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375 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is the most important responsibility of the EEFCC?

To integrate the entire F-16 avionics system by serving as the primary bus controller for the serial digital


buses.

What computations does the EEFCC perform?

A/G and A/A weapon delivery solutions, navigation functions, and energy management information.

What other important function does the EEFCC perform?

Fault gathering and reporting center of the weapons control system.


What is the EEFCC’s backup bus controller?


The ACIU


What are the three operating cycles of the EEFCC’s memory?


Read, write, and read modify-write


What are the power requirements of the EEFCC’s power supply?


115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3-phase power


Describe the make-up of a MUX bus.


Consists of all the hardware (including twisted-shielded pair cable, isolation resistors, transformers, etc.)


required to provide a single data path between the bus controller (EEFCC) and all associated remote


terminals (avionic systems).


What are the two different MUX buses tied into the EEFCC that allow it to communicate with the


other avionic terminals?


A-MUX and D-MUX.


How are MUX terminals connected to the buses?


Though the use of isolation transformers.

What are the three different types of message words?


Command, data, and status.

What component transmits a command word?


Only the bus controller


What has the capability of transmitting a data word?


The bus controller to a slave terminal; a slave terminal to the bus controller, or from one slave terminal to


another according to the direction of the command word.


What transmits a status word and when does this occur?


The slave terminals. They are transmitted to the EEFCC preceding or immediately following a data


transaction


What is the basic function of the odd parity bit?


It establishes the overall parity of the word, helping the EEFCC determine if the transmitted word is good


or bad.


What conditions, or reasons, will enable the EEFCC to report weapons control system faults?


The EEFCC can transmit a command word to a terminal and the terminal does not respond; the terminal

can transmit a data or status word with the wrong parity bit; the terminal can transmit a status word, which

tells the EEFCC that the terminal has performed a BIT, or self-test, on itself that failed in part or

completely.


If a fault is not severe enough to be reported as a PFL, where is it reported and why?


To the MFL, for retrieval by maintenance personnel after flight.


When is a BIT performed on the EEFCC?


When the system first has power applied.


Where are the instructions built into and stored for the EEFCC’s self-test?


Built into the EEFCC’s OFP and stored in the computer’s main memory.


What is a software module?


It’s a smaller portion of the self-test procedure.


Where is the MMC located?


Behind access door 1103


What is the function of the chassis’s backplane?


Provide the electrical interface with the LRMs.


How many LRMs are housed in the MMC chassis?


Fifteen.


What is the advantageous feature about the battery assembly compartment?


It’s accessible without having to open the MMC front cover.


What switch is used to apply and remove power to and from the MMC?


The MMC power switch, located on the avionics power panel.


What switch provides power to the HLVPS module?


The SYM thumbwheel, located on the ICP.


What modules make up the MPS?


Three MB64 modules, two WM64 modules, and the AD64 module.


The MPS has growth provisions for up to how many MB64 modules?


Nine.


How do the AIO modules communicate with the MPS?


Over the TM bus.


What does the PSS provide power to?


The MMC modules and the HUD PDU


What two buses are associated with MMC module communication?


The PI and TM buses.

To accommodate CCIP, what two MUX-buses had to be added to the existing MUX-bus


arrangement?


The C-MUX and the F-MUX


What avionic system is connected to the C-MUX?


The JHMCS.


What was done to the C-MUX to gain additional bandwidth?


It was split into two multiplex buses; that is, a left C-MUX [C(L)] and a right C-MUX [C(R)].


What avionic system will be connected to the F-MUX?


The MIDS/LVT and CMFDS


When talking about avionic systems, what does the term backup traditionally mean?


If one item (subsystem) fails, a capability can remain present if another subsystem assumes the failed


subsystem’s functionality.


When the MMC enters degraded operation, how many levels of support are available?


Three.


What determines the level of support provided to a malfunctioning MMC?


The internal failures present.


When the MMC enters a degraded level, how is the pilot alerted of it?


It’s displayed as a pilot message on the PFLD.


What are the two scenarios in which the MMC performs auto restart?


MMC software failures and MMC hardware failures.


During an MMC restart, what is blanked for approximately nine seconds?


The HUD.


What is the breakdown of the 17 MFL MMC memory locations?


Two of these entries are special events, and 15 are used to store actual faults.


Where would you go to access MMC BIT?


The CMFDS test format page (BIT2 page).


Which ADIS component consists of a microprocessor, firmware, interface electronics, power


supply, and other electronics necessary to manage data transfer?


The DTU.


Which ADIS component is a transportable, nonvolatile memory, which interfaces aircraft systems


through the DTU?


The DTC.


Which zeroize switch position clears the memory of the DTC provided the DTC is inserted and


locked into the DTU, and declassifies data in the MMC, eCPDG, communication, IFF, RWR, and


GPS?


The ZEROIZE OFP position.


Which zeroize switch position declassifies data in the ALR–56M, DTC, IFF, GPS, secure voice,


and MMC (sensitive data only)?


The ZEROIZE DATA position.


What will happen when the ejection sequence is initiated on the ejection command zeroize


switch?


The switch will clear memory data in the DTC, MMC, IFF, communication, eCPDG and global positioning


system.


How are most of the UFC controls and displays situated in the F-16C/D aircraft?


Centralized up front within the pilot’s peripheral vision and are accessible to either hand.


What equipment complements the UFC?


The DTE, which is used to automatically initialize the avionics equipment; thereby further reducing the


pilot’s workload.


Where is the CDEEU located?


Behind the forward cockpit seat.


What are the primary functions of the CDEEU?


To process signals that integrate the UFC with other avionic systems and to display system faults in the


flight controls, engine, and avionics systems.


What type of display is used by the DED?


A LED type display


What is each LED on the DED referred to as?


A pixel.


What is the additional display in block 40 and up F-16C/D aircraft called?


It’s called a PFLD.


What is the maximum number of faults that can be reviewed at one time on the PFLD?


Three.


When would the pilot most likely choose to display PFLD information on the HUD?


If the PFLD fails


Where are the DED/PFLD power supplies located?


In the cockpit.


Collectively, what do the priority override keys, located on the ICP/IKP, provide to the user?


Frequently utilized, high-priority data entry functions that can be quickly accessed and still allow a oneswitch


return to the overridden DED page.


What type information can be accessed by depressing the LIST priority override key?


Infrequently used data pages.


What would be the result if you depressed the no. 1 priority function key, located on the ICP/IKP,


with the CNI page displayed?


You’d gain access to the T-ILS priority function.


Typically, which functions does the DCS, located on the ICP/IKP, control?


Positioning the DED asterisks, page title option access, and CNI page access.


How would you access the CNI page using the DCS?


By positioning the data control switch to RTN.


In general terms, what type of information does the CNI page provide to the pilot, and where is it


displayed?


Relevant communication, navigation, and identification information, and it’s displayed on the DED.


What occurs three minutes after the UFC set is turned on and where is the UFC power switch


located?


The CNI page is displayed on the DED. The switch is located on the avionics power panel.


What specific information is displayed on the CNI page?


UHF/VHF channels or frequencies, selected steer point, IFF modes enabled, TACAN channel number and


band, and system time. It also displays the status of the switches on the AUX COMM, audio 1, and audio 2


panels.


What happens to the ICP/IKP keyboard when the LIST override function is accessed?


The keyboard is remapped to page select keys, which are used to select the pages indicated by the display.

How is the miscellaneous page selected?


It’s accessed by first displaying the LIST page and then by depressing the no. 0 key on the ICP/IKP


keyboard.

What page has to be displayed to access the OFP page?


The MISC page.

What is the required prerequisite to access a priority function?


The CNI page must be displayed.

How is the TACAN/ILS page accessed?


Ensure the CNI page is displayed on the DED, depress the T-ILS (no. 1) key on the ICP/IKP. From this


page, in conjunction with the ICP/IKP, you can manipulate operations of either the TACAN or ILS


subsystems.

When are the descriptors (found on keys 2, 4, 6, 8, and 0 of the ICP/IKP) actually interpreted as


descriptor key depressions?


If the key depression is the first stroke of the data entry sequence requiring descriptors.

What occurs when the ENTR key on the ICP/IKP is depressed?


It initializes an error check on the entered data, and the system either accepts or rejects the data.

If you were in the data entry phase and made an erroneous keystroke, how would you correct it?


Depress the RCL key located on the ICP/IKP.

With the previous question in mind, what (typically) would be the result if you depressed the


RCL key a second successive time?


It would remove all newly inputted data, remove the entry highlight, and recall the previously entered data.

If the CNI page is displayed, how many function values can be changed using the


increment/decrement switch? What are these functions?


Three; UHF and VHF presets and steer-point numbers.

How is the increment/decrement symbol, when displayed on the CNI page, moved between


functions?


Positioning the DCS up or down

Depending on the situation, what are the three possible outcomes of depressing the M-SEL key?


Display a zero in the data field, display a negative sign (–) to applicable data field entries, or select a mode


(option) from the controlling subsystem.

In regards to the UFC self-test, what is meant by an out-of-tolerance condition?


Out-of-tolerance conditions generally are equipment faults that cause the UFC set to perform below


specified performance limits, but don’t render it or its equipment modes unusable.

Describe the UFC BIT feature


The BIT is an interruptive function that requires the user’s participation. BIT, when supplemented by selftest,


provides 95 percent detection of all malfunctions/out-of-tolerance conditions and isolates them to the


faulty LRU.

Where is the UFC BIT display test pattern displayed on block 40 F-16s?


On the DED and PFLD.

What page does the DED return to upon completion of UFC BIT?


The CNI page.

What type faults are enclosed with warning indicators?


FLCS warning faults.

How are faults prioritized on the PFLD?


Flight control warning faults (highlighted by the warning indicators), flight control caution faults, engine


caution faults, and avionics caution faults.

Normally, how is a PFLD fault acknowledged?


By depressing the F-ACK button.

The most important responsibility of the EEFCC is to integrate the entire F-16 avionics

system by serving as the


a. backup bus controller for the serial digital buses.


b. primary bus controller for the serial digital buses.


c. backup bus controller for the parallel digital buses.


d. primary bus controller for the parallel digital buses.


B

The fault gathering and reporting center of the weapons control system is the


a. heads-down display.


b. heads-up display system.


c. stores management system.


d. enhanced expanded fire control computer.


D

As directed by the EEFCC OFP, all arithmetic calculations are performed by the


a. core memory unit.


b. serial-digital interface.


c. I/O unit.


d. CPU.


D

What is the core memory size of the EEFCC?


a. 256K.


b. 512K.


c. 256M.


d. 512M.


B

Where are MUX bus transformers located and what’s their purpose?


a. In the EEFCC; communicates with slave terminals.


b. On MUX matrix assemblies; provides impedance matching and short-circuit protection.


c. In the EEFCC; provides impedance matching and short-circuit protection.


d. On MUX matrix assemblies; communicates with slave terminals.


B

When the EEFCC determines if a transmitted word is good or bad, what type of bit aids in


this?


a. Identity.


b. Response.


c. Odd parity.


d. Even parity.


C

Which statement best describes the self-test of the EEFCC?


a. The EEFCC only utilizes BIT.


b. It’s run only when commanded by the operator.


c. It’s a self-running test and when complete, starts over again.


d. It’s performed only once at GAC power-up.


C

What type of battery does the MMC contain, and what is the battery’s purpose?


a. An alkaline 3.6 volt, C size battery; it provides a back-up capability in the event of failure,


removal, or recharging of the aircraft battery.


b. A lithium 3.6 volt, D size battery; it provides a back-up capability in the event of failure,


removal, or recharging of the aircraft battery.


c. An alkaline 3.6 volt, C size battery; it provides primary power to the MMC.


d. A lithium 3.6 volt, D size battery; it provides primary power to the MMC.


B

If you want standby power to all SMS store stations that have inventory loaded in memory,


which switch would you use?


a. MMC power switch.


b. SMS standby power switch.


c. MMC master switch.


d. Store station switch.


D

The two internal MMC buses that provide communication between modules are the

a. parallel intermodule bus/serial digital test and maintenance bus.


b. parallel intermodule bus/serial digital test and evaluations bus.


c. discrete digital data bus/parallel test and maintenance bus.


d. discrete digital data bus/parallel test and evaluations bus.


A

The EEFCC and MMC MUX bus architecture is basically the same except the


a. MMC doesn’t use the A-MUX or B-MUX.


b. EEFCC doesn’t use the A-MUX or B-MUX.


c. MMC has two additional buses: the C-MUX and F-MUX.


d. EEFCC has two additional buses: the C-MUX and F-MUX.


C

Which two scenarios will generate a MMC auto restart when the MMC fails?


a. Software failures and hardware failures.


b. Software failures and slave terminal failures.


c. Hardware failures and slave terminal failures.


d. Hardware failures and MUX bus failures.


A

How many MFL memory locations does the MMC contains?


a. 15.


b. 16.


c. 17.


d. 18.


C

The MMC BIT is


a. interruptive, meaning that normal operation of the subsystem is maintained during the actual


BIT.


b. noninterruptive, meaning that normal operation of the subsystem is maintained during the


actual BIT.


c. interruptive, meaning that normal operation of the subsystem is not available until the BIT has


been completed.


d. noninterruptive, meaning that normal operation of the subsystem is not available until the BIT


has been completed.


C

Which F-16 ADIS component contains a microprocessor, firmware, interface electronics,


power supply, and other electronics necessary to manage data transfer?


a. DTU.


b. DTC.


c. DTCP.


d. DTS/DTC.


A

Which F-16 ADIS component is a transportable, nonvolatile memory, which interfaces


aircraft systems through the DTU?


a. DTD.


b. DTC.


c. DTCP.


d. DTDU.


B

Considered the heart of the UFC system, this component is a programmable computer that


controls and interfaces the UFC.


a. CDEEU.


b. MMC.


c. MFD.


d. DEEU power supply


A

On what F-16 would you find a PFLD?


a. F-16A/B block 15.


b. F-16C/D block 40 only.


c. F-16C/D block 40 and up.


d. F-16C/D blocks 25 through 32.


C

If the PFLD fails but the UFC set is still functioning, the PFLD data can be displayed on the


a. HUD.


b. DED.


c. MFD.


d. MFDS


A

Identify the four priority override keys which are located across the top of theICP and IKP.

a. COM 1, COM 2, INS, LIST.


b. COM 1, COM 2, IFF, LIST.


c. COM 3, COM 4, INS, LIST.


d. COM 3, COM 4, IFF, LIST.


B

All of the following are functions provided by the DCS except

a. page title option access.


b. SOI selection.


c. positioning the DED asterisks.


d. CNI page access.


B

If you depress the LIST priority override key, the UFCs will display a list of selectable,


a. infrequently accessedMFD pages.


b. infrequently accessed data pages.


c. frequently accessed MFD pages.


d. frequently accessed data pages


B

On the F-16 UFC, which page is more or less a continuation of the LIST page?


a. BNGO page.


b. STPT page.


c. MISC page.


d. CNI page.


C

UFC priority functions are made available through the priority function keys, only when the

a. CNI page is displayed on the DED.


b. MISC page is displayed on the MFD.


c. MISC page is displayed on the DED.


d. CNI page is displayed on the MFD.


A

When do the UFC provide the capability to enter numeric data through the ICP/IKP?


a. After the NUMERIC key is depressed.


b. Only when entering navigation coordinates.


c. Anytime a DED page is displayed.


d. When the asterisks are positioned about a numeric data field.


D

When the CNI page is displayed, how many function values can be changed using the


increment/decrement switch?


a. Two.


b. Three.


c. Four.


d. Five.


B

Depressing the M-SEL key, depending on the situation, can display a negative sign (-) to


applicable data field entries, select a mode (option) from the controlling subsystem, or display a


a. zero in the data field.


b. one in the data field.


c. two in the data field.


d. three in the data field.


A

The UFC BIT is selected by depressing and releasing the OSS adjacent to the


a. DEEU mnemonic on the MFD BIT2 page.


b. UFC mnemonic on the MFD BIT2 page.


c. UFC mnemonic on the DED BIT2 page.


d. DEEU mnemonic on the DED BIT2 page.


B

If the more faults indicators are present on the PFLD, these additional faults are reviewed

by depressing the


a. more faults button.


b. F-ACK button.


c. clear button on the MFD.


d. additional faults button for 10 seconds to allow automatic display.


B

What are the major components of the HUD?


PDU, HUD EU, RSU, and the HUD remote control panel.

What prevents humidity buildup in the PDU?


The desiccator.

Besides displaying the HUD symbols, what’s the purpose of the HUD combining glass?


It also serves as a safety-of-flight device designed to deflect the air blast during canopy breakage or during


the pilot ejection process when the canopy separates.

Where are the frequently used HUD controls located?


On the ICP within the pilot’s field of view.

Where are the roll, pitch, yaw, and normal acceleration signals applied, and what is the purpose of


these signals?


The EU to be used in the computations for properly positioning the weapons solution cues on the HUD


display.

Where are infrequently used HUD controls located?


The HUD remote control panel.

What are the eight controls on the ICP that directly affect the HUD display?


SYM control, INT control, CONT control, RET DEPR control, DRIFT switch, terrain-following weather


mode push button, FLIR increment/decrement switch, and the FLIR gain/level switch.

What are the three positions of the declutter switch and their functions?




ATT/FPM: This position (up) selects the attitude (pitch/roll) ladder and flight-path marker for display;


FPM: selects FPM only; OFF: removes both the FPM and attitude ladder, except when the landing gear is


down; in that case, only the FPM will be displayed.

What are the two major purposes of the DED data switch on the HUD remote control panel?


To have the DED or PFLD data in his or her FOV while flying the aircraft and to use HUD display as a


backup if these displays fail

How many positions are there on the altitude switch, and what are they called?


Three; RADAR, BARO and AUTO.

How many different HUD test patterns is the HUD capable of displaying with the TEST switch


on the HUD remote control panel?


Four.

What enables the pilots that fly the F-16, who are all not the same height, to view the HUD


symbology the same?


The design eye on the TEST page.

Match the symbol names in column B to the symbol descriptions in column A. The symbols


listed in column B may be used once or not at all.



An 8 mr circle that appears when you select initial point


sighting.


R

In ILS, the localizer and glide slope signals drive them.


O

Flashes for two seconds when the solution cue appears and


then disappears.


N

Represents target position in air-to-air modes


L

Represents air-to-air missile data.


I

Indicates bearing to the steer point.


A

Its flashing indicates weapon release in air-to-air and air-toground


weapons delivery modes.


B

Represents the fuselage reference line.


F

It runs from the flight-path marker to the CCIP pipper in the


CCIP submode.


M

It indicates the correct course for a slaved AIM-120A launch


on a locked-on target.


K

Displays air-to-air gunnery data.


G

This symbol is at a point equal to the selected steer point plus


cursor corrections during air-to-ground and navigation modes.


D

Provides ILS command steering.


C

This symbol is a 12 mrs high and 6 mrs wide isosceles


triangle.


E

Only one-quarter of this 70 mr circle is visible


P

A cross that indicates EO weapon is pointed to the armament


datum line.


J

Consists of a 2 mr cross surrounded by a dotted 50 mr inner


circle and a 100 mr dotted outer circle.


V

Indicates various selectable ACM search volumes


S

Appears above the CCIP pipper if the target is in range for the


selected weapon.


Q

A bracket that aids landing.


T

Consists of a 2 mr center pipper surrounded by a dashed 50 mr


inner circle and a solid 100 mr outer circle.


U

If this altitude is missing, barometric altitude takes its


place


D, E

Consists of a vertical line for minimum and maximum


range and a smaller vertical line to indicate the no escape


zone.


H

A triangular indicator is positioned on a fixed scale.


G

Calibrated airspeed, true airspeed, and ground speed.


A

The HUD remote control panel selects one of several of


these scales.


B

Displayed at the bottom of the HUD in navigation modes


and at the top in most air-to-ground modes.


F

Reference tics indicate 20 feet instead of 100 feet during


landing.


C, D

How many CMFDs and eCPDGs does the F-16C have?


Two CMFDs and one eCPDG.

How many CMFDs and eCPDGs does the F-16D have?


Four CMFDs and one eCPDG.

Indicates the entire multifunction system, including all of the LRUs.


C

Speaks specifically, or in general, of a single display indicator.


D

Describes a general mode of operation.


A

Speaks of all CMFD display indicators on board the aircraft.


E

Refers to a particular display on the CMFD.


B

What type of display tube do the CMFDs use?


Cathode-ray tubes

What switches are incorporated on the CMFD bezel assembly?


Twenty OSSs and four rocker switches.

What is the purpose of the momentary flash that occurs whenever an OSS is depressed and


released?


It informs the operator of OSS actuation.

What do the four rocker switches control?


Display brightness, contrast, symbology intensity, and gain of the selected sensor video.

What functions are executed by the eCPDG’s SFP?


Executes the OFP, reports faults, and communicates with other avionic systems on the D-MUX bus

Between which components does the UART provide the communication link?


All CMFDs and the eCPDG.

Where is the CMFD power switch located?


On the avionics power panel.

What is the purpose of the basic format menu?


Provides the user with a means to select a display format (usually an avionics system) for some sort of use.

Considering this system is installed on the aircraft you’re working, what is the title of the 12th


display format mnemonic?


ECM.

With the format menu displayed, what happens if you depress and release an OSS adjacent to a


secondary format?


The secondary format becomes the primary format.

What occurs when the SWAP display format function is used?


An interchange of the left and right CMFD format, including video, text, symbology, and SOI, takes place.

When is the DCLT option available?


Only when using the FCR, TGP, TFR, FLIR, or WPN formats.

Where is the DMS located?


On the side-stick controller.

What is the advantage of having the DMS on the side-stick controller?


It allows the pilot to quickly make display changes without having to remove his or her hands from the


side-stick.

What does a displayed halo on the left CMFD signify?


That the left CMFD is the SOI.

What effect does the DMS down position have on the CMFDs?


The SOI moves to the CMFD of the highest priority if allowed. Subsequent down depressions moves the


SOI to the opposite CMFD if allowed.

What does a tail on an air-to-air target indicate?


It indicates that the target is in missile firing range.

What is a “bugged” target?


It’s a circle that appears around a target to indicate that this target is the next-to-shoot (target of interest).

What is the heart of the JHMCS processing system?


The JHMCS EU.

What LRUs make up the HVI?


The UHVI and the LHVI.

What is the purpose of the EEPROM in the HDU?


Fault and maintenance data storage.

Where is the MRU located?


Within the HDU.

What signal is used by the EU to compensate for changes in the magnetic environment of the


cockpit caused by different seat positions, and where does this signal originate?


The seat position signal is used; originates from the seat position sensor.

How does JHMCS determine the position of the pilots’ helmet?


By comparing the information sent from the helmet to the previously mapped cockpit magnetic field data.

Define the JHMCS FOV.


Twenty degree diameter circle centered on the JHMCS LOS.

What is forward (HUD) blanking?


A display declutter feature that removes all HMCS symbols (in A-A or A-G mode) when the JHMCS LOS


(borecross) is within the inside edge of the HUD instantaneous FOV.

How many levels of declutter are available?


Three.

What effect will a DMS aft of > 0.5 seconds have on JHMCS?


Toggle the JHMCS between displaying symbology and not displaying symbology.

There is excessive moisture in the HUD PDU when the


a. PDU moisture indicator is pink.


b. PDU moisture indicator is blue.


c. HUD desiccator is pink.


d. HUD desiccator is blue.


A

If you want to use the HUD PDU with the largest FOV, which one of the following would


you use?


a. Conventional HUD.


b. Wide-angle raster HUD.


c. WAC HUD.


d. LANTIRN HUD


D

The RSU contains the components and circuits that produce normal acceleration signals and


a. roll, lift, and yaw angular rates.


b. roll, pitch, and lift angular rates.


c. pitch, lift, and yaw angular rates.


d. pitch, roll, and yaw angular rates.


D

If you want to apply power and adjust brightness to the HUD, which control would you


use?


a. INT control.


b. CONT control.


c. SYM control.


d. RET DEPR control.


C

You have selected AUTO BRT with the brightness switch. If the ambient (surrounding) light


increases, the brightness of the HUD


a. increases.


b. decreases.


c. stays the same.


d. reverts to manual operation.


A

What is the total number of HUD test pattern pages that may be selected with the TEST


switch?


a. 2.


b. 3.


c. 4.


d. 5.


C

On the HUD remote control panel, you can check the PRI and STBY reticle by placing the


RET DEPR switch to either


a. PRI or ALT.


b. SEC or PRI.


c. PRI or STBY.


d. STBY or SEC.


C

The three HUD master modes are air-to-ground, air-to-air, and


a. navigation.


b. air-to-air guns.


c. air-to-air missiles.


d. electronic countermeasures.


A

A flashing flight-path marker indicates


a. weapons release.


b. central air data computer failure.


c. failure of the stores management system.


d. INU alignment complete.


A

How many levels of EEGS are there?


a. 2.


b. 3.


c. 4.


d. 5.


D

The size of the air-to-air missile allowable steering error circle depends on the


a. range to the target and selected FOV.


b. missile type and selected FOV.


c. range to the target.


d. missile type only.


B

The maximum toss anticipation cue consists of a


a. 100 mr circle above the boresight cross at 0azimuth and –3elevation.

b. 100 mr circle below the boresight cross at 0azimuth and –3elevation.

c. 50 mr circle above the boresight cross at 0azimuth and –3elevation.

d. 50 mr circle below the boresight cross at 0azimuth and –3elevation.


B

Which of the following conditions will prevent the HUD from displaying the roll indicator?


a. DED or PFLD data is displayed on the HUD.


b. The FPM bank roll indicators are absent.


c. In a dogfight, with ammunition not loaded in the gun.


d. INU data is valid.


A

Each tic on the aircraft velocity scale represents


a. 1 knot.


b. 5 knots.


c. 10 knots.


d. 50 knots.


C

In the air-to-air mode, with the velocity switch in GND SPD, when the landing gear handle


is lowered, the scale magnetic heading/ground track scale


a. displays ILS magnetic ground track with the triangle index mark.


b. displays magnetic heading with the heading index mark unless ILS is selected.


c. automatically displays magnetic ground track instead of magnetic heading.


d. automatically switches from ground track to magnetic heading.


D

On the HUD, what scale consists of a vertical line to indicate minimum and maximum


range, with a smaller vertical line to indicate the no-escape zone?


a. Air-to-air missile range scale.


b. Magnetic ground track scale.


c. Vertical velocity scale.


d. Airspeed scale.


A

The CMFD bezel assembly contains a total of 20 OSS,


a. two rocker switches, two ALS, and the panel illuminators.


b. four rocker switches, two ALS, and the panel illuminators.


c. and two rocker switches only.


d. and four rocker switches only.


B

What will inform the operator if a CMFD OSS is actuated?


a. Copilot.


b. Tone in the headset.


c. Momentary flash on the CMFD screen.


d. Tone in the headset as well as a momentary flash on the CMFD screen.


C

Which component provides the communication link between all the CMFD and the


eCPDG?


a. D- MUX bus.


b. SFP.


c. DFP.


d. UART.


D

An OSS function is identified by the


a. mnemonic adjacent to the OSS.


b. mnemonic engraved on the OSS face.


c. number sequence adjacent to the OSS.


d. number sequence engraved on the OSS face.


A

While there are typically 11 CMFD display formats available to the user, a 12th display


format would be possible if


a. an ECM pod is loaded onto station 5.


b. a time compliance technical order would have to be accomplished.


c. an ECM pod is loaded on stations 3, 5, or 7.


d. the active towed decoy system is installed.


D

D&R either secondary OSS causes the display on the particular CMFD to change,


a. making this new format the primary format.


b. but this new format still remains as a secondary format.


c. prompting the multifunction display set to enter self-test.


d. but after 10 seconds reverts back to the original primary format.


A

The CMFD feature that allows an interchange of the left and right CMFD format is the


a. MFDS BIT.


b. DCLT.


c. RESET MENU.


d. SWAP.


D

The DMS is located on the


a. throttle grip.


b. side-stick controller.


c. avionics power panel.


d. CMFD.


B

On the F-16 CMFD symbology, the circle around the target symbol indicates the


a. velocity of the target.


b. target is in missile range.


c. tracking of a friendly aircraft.


d. target is the one next-to-shoot.


D

Outputs from JHMCS EU are sent to the MMC over


a. C(L) MUX only.


b. C(L) MUX and C(R)MUX.


c. A MUX.


d. B MUX.


A

Which LRU contains the high-voltage power supply that is used to power the CRT in the


JHMCS HDU?


a. CU.


b. HDU.


c. MTU.


d. JHMCS EU.


A

Which JHMCS component contains the MRU?


a. CU.


b. HDU.


c. JHMCS EU.


d. MTU.


B

If the operator wants to power up the JHMCS, what switch on which component would be


used?


a. JHMCS power switch on the avionics power panel.


b. JHMCS power switch on the JHMCS control panel.


c. On/off brightness control switch on the avionics power panel.


d. On/off brightness control switch on the JHMCS control panel.


D

Which JHMCS LRU generates a magnetic field is generated inside the cockpit?


a. MEU.


b. MGU.


c. MTU.


d. PMG.


C

What is the F-16’s JHMCS FOV?


a. 10°.


b. 20°.


c. 30°.


d. 40°.


B

What symbology will stay displayed when the JHMCS TD cockpit blanking is enabled and


the HMCS LOS is in the cockpit blanking region?


a. Great circle steering error.


b. FPM.


c. Target locator line.


d. Attitude bars.


C

What level of declutter is being used in the F-16’s JHMCS if altitude, range to steer point,


and head heading scale are being decluttered?


a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.


B

How fast do radio waves travel?


186,000 miles per second or 162,000 nms.

What does the position of the antenna accurately indicate?


The direction of the object reflecting the radar energy.

What is radar return clutter?


Unwanted echoes that are reflected from unwanted targets (that make it difficult to select the desired


target).

What are the received radar echoes applied to?


Some type of indicator display unit (sometimes called a scope for short) where they appear as marks of


light.

What are the four components that comprise a basic radar system?


Transmitter, antenna, receiver, and indicator or display.

What component is responsible for generating the RF pulse?


The transmitter.

What are the main functions of the antenna?


To radiate RF energy into space and receive reflected RF echoes.

Where and how is the transmitter’s output routed?


To the antenna, using a waveguide

What’s the function of the duplexer?


Allows the same antenna to be used for both transmitting and receiving.

What is the radar receiver’s job?


Amplifies the radar echoes (also known as radar returns) and converts them to a video signal to be applied


to the indicator.

What target information can a pilot determine from a radar display?


Range, direction, and target velocity

What are the types of radar displays you will be most concerned with on the F-16?


PPI and B-scan.

Describe the Doppler Effect.


An approaching object adds to the frequency of the sound, light, or radio waves being radiated from it due


to the speed of the object. By the same token, as the object is moving away, the frequency (pitch) of the


radiated waves decreases.

When does the Doppler Effect exist?


It exists any time there’s relative motion between the source and the receiver.

In terms of an airborne radar system, what information can be determined about a target due to


the presence of the Doppler Effect?


Target velocity in relation to the radar set.

What four components make up a basic radar set?


Transmitter, receiver, antenna, and display

What are the multipurpose capabilities of the F-16 radar set?


A/A or A/G weapons deliver and navigation even during adverse weather conditions.

What greater capabilities does the AN/APG-68 have over AN/APG-66?


Greater range capability in all A/A modes.

Where is the radar computer assembly located in the AN/APG-68 radar set?


Within the PSP.

How many degrees of coverage are provided by the two gimbaled axes (azimuth and elevation) of


the antenna?


±60.

Which LRU and what portion develops the RF drive signal to be amplified by the DMT?


MLPRF—STALO develops the RF drive signal.

Which DMT component is the key to its high performance?


The TWT.

What voltage does the HVPS provide to the cathode?


It provides –25 kV to the cathode.

Where is the FCR arc detector located?


In the output waveguide near the TWT of the DMT.

What’s the minimum time to begin transmitting from a cold start?


3 minutes and 4.3 seconds.

Why does a shutdown for missing phase or over temperature take about four seconds?


This delay allows the antenna to reach the stowed position (60left and 30up) before power is removed

from the FCR.

Where is the radar data-processing portion of the PSP contained?


In the AP.

Where is the FCR master clock signal generated?


MLPRF.

What portion of the PSP contains the radar OFP?


Array processor software.

What piece of equipment is presently used to load/change OFPs within the PSP?


EDNA

What source provides the cooling air to the FCR LRUs?


An air plenum extending through the center of the radar equipment rack.

What acts as a backup in the event the FCR doesn’t supply the X and Y cursors?


The CDEEU.

What suppresses arcing of the waveguide assembly at high altitude?


Pressurization of the waveguide assembly by filtered and dehydrated engine servo air.

What are the two major operating modes of the F-16 radar?


A/A and A/G.

What is the purpose of the raid cluster resolution?


To determine whether the target is actually one target or a cluster of targets flying in close formation.

What two velocity thresholds can a pilot select to eliminate moving targets on the ground?


1,200 and 2,400 knots.

What do the A/G operating modes help the pilot with?


Weapons delivery, navigation, fix-taking, reconnaissance, and target detection.

What condition must exist before an accurate track on a ground target can be maintained while


the target remains in the radar FOV?


The ratio of the signal strength of the designated ground discrete to surrounding clutter must be high


enough.

Name three A/G targets a pilot may wish to track.


Discrete sea targets, moving vehicles, and stationary discrete ground targets, such as buildings and other


structures.

How does the pilot know if the FCR has shut down due to a malfunction or if the MFDS is unable


to communicate with the radar over the MUX BUS?


The MFD reports the OFF condition on the FCR format page on the MFD display.

Once the FCR power switch on the sensor power panel has been in the FCR position (power on),


how long does it take to power down the radar after the FCR switch is placed to OFF?


Approximately four seconds.

How can you verify that the antenna has been placed in the stowed position in STBY?


On the MFD with the AZ and EL antenna carets displaying 60azimuth and 30elevation.

What will stop the radar from transmitting and place the antenna in the stowed position?


Selecting the STBY mode by depressing the STBY mnemonic (OSS 10) or the OVRD mnemonic (OSS 4).

How many control options are there on the CNTL page, and what are they called?


Seven; channel rotary, range mark intensity rotary, frequency agility band rotary, beacon delay, altitude


tracker rotary, target history rotary, and moving target reject rotary.

How do you accomplish an MMC commanded FCR BIT?


By accessing the MFD test format and depress the OSS next to the FCR mnemonic on the BIT 1 page.

What is displayed on the MFD, if the FCR detects a fault during self-test and shuts down the


system.


The message FCR OFF will be displayed in the center of the MFD.

What inoperative messages are there?


WAIT, CHK FCR CNTL PG, and RECYCLE FCR PWR.

How many range marks are there on the MFD in A/A mode, and what do they represent?


Three; the distance between each mark represents one-fourth of the selected range.

What do the reference tics for antenna elevation angle signify?


They are aids for referencing the antenna angle. They’re positioned at (starting at the top) +30, +20, +10,

0, –10, –20, and –30.

List the six basic A/A operating modes.


RWS, ULS, VS, TWS, ACM, and SAM.

What two velocity thresholds can be selected for GMTR while in the RWS mode?


55 and 110 knots.

What’s the maximum range selection available in the A/A RWS operating mode?


160 nm.

Define target aspect angle


The angle in the horizontal plane between your aircraft and the target velocity vector.

What steering maneuvers are available to intercept a target?


Lead, pursuit, and collision.

Which A/A operating mode provides the pilot with the longest range of target detection in a


clutter-free environment?


Uplook search

What PRF does the velocity search use, and why does it use it?


High-PRF pulse Doppler processing. It’s used to provide long-range detection of airborne targets in both


look-up and look-down geometry. High-PRF pulse Doppler is preferred under a high-closing rate, forward


hemisphere (head-on) conditions, especially where the target’s velocity is greater than that of the


interceptor’s.

How many track and search targets can be displayed in the TWS mode?


Up to 10 track and 10 search targets.

How are targets in AUTO TWS prioritized?


Automatically based on range (aspect and velocity).

What happens to the TOI if the system automatically switches from STT to TWS MTT?


TOI remains with the same target.

In ACM, what are the four scan patterns?


ACM search (30  20), ACM search (10  60), Slewable ACM, and Boresight ACM.

Why are search targets never displayed in ACM?


Because once a target is detected, the system automatically acquires it.

Between which three A/A modes of operation is situation awareness mode an intermediate mode?


RWS and ULS and STT.

What is a dedicated, one-target track mode that’s entered from an A/A search TWS mode?


STT

What are the five different modes available for ground mapping, target detection, and AGR?


GM, GMT, SEA, BCN, and AGR.

What display is provided to the pilot in GM?


GM provides the pilot with an all-weather mode display that’s a drift-stabilized radar map of the ground in


the aircraft’s flight path.

What options are available to increase resolution in GM, and what are their ratios?


EXP, Doppler beam sharpening one (DBS 1) and DBS 2; 4:1, 8:1 and 64:1.

What GM option provides a snapshot of the ground radar map?


FRZ.

While in GM and FTT is selected, what is not displayed on the MFD?


Map video, range settings, gain gauge and expansion cues.

What provides enhanced real-video symbols superimposed on a background map?


GMT mode.

How can GMTT be selected?


Either manually by the operator, or automatically by the MMC.

Map gain in GMT is adjusted where?


On the MFD using either OSS 16 (decrease) or OSS 17 (increase).

What is frequency agility used for in the SEA mode?


Varying the transmitter frequency has the effect of canceling the phase of the clutter echoes created by the


wave action.

What FOV options are not available in SEA mode?


DBS 1 and 2.

What can the pilot do if he knows the exact locations of the beacon?


Perform various navigation, fix-taking, direct, and offset weapons delivery duties.

What commands the AGR mode?


Only the MMC.

In AGR, when will the radar system break target lock-on?


If there’s a large antenna pointing error signal or when antenna gimbals limit are exceeded.

How does the CARA measure altitude?


The system radiates an RF signal straight down and measures the time it takes this signal to reach the


ground and return. Frequency modulation is used to differentiate between transmitted and received signals,


enabling system to calculate the time between the transmitted and received signals. The receiver knows that


a given frequency difference relates to time. Since the speed of RF energy is known (984 ft per


microsecond), speed and time relate to distance traveled (altitude).

BLANK


BLANK

Where does the CARA R/T receive a signal from to prevent low warnings during takeoff and


landing?


The landing gear handle control assembly.

What radar altimeter power switch position allows the system to warm up or the pilot to fly in a


“ready but silent” mode?


STBY

What is the CARA power requirement?


28 VDC

How is system power applied to the CARA R/T?


Placing the altimeter switch on the sensor power panel to STBY or RDR ALT.

In what RF switch position will mode status not be displayed on the MFDs?


The NORM position.

What position(s) must the radar altimeter switch on the sensor power panel be in to run a CARA


IBIT?


In either STBY or RDR ALT position.

Approximately how long does it take to run RALT IBIT?


Approximately five seconds.

What altitude information is displayed in the HUD when the HUD remote control panel ALT


switch is in the AUTO position?


Either radar or barometric altitude, depending on the current altitude.

When will the radar altimeter thermometer scale be displayed in the HUD?


10. When altitude is less than 1,200 ft descending or 1,500 ft ascending.

What scale features the AL window, indicating the manually set minimum altitude?


Thermometer scale.

How is the barometric altitude scale marked for reading?


In hundreds of feet with a numerical readout at 500 ft intervals. Each interval is separated by tics


representing 100 ft each. The comma displayed after the first digit indicates thousands of feet.

What LRUs make up the CARA system?


The CARA R/T, SDC, two antennas, cable assembly, and mount

Where are the CARA R/T and SDC located?


Behind door 1103.

What is the purpose of the CARA R/T?


Generate and transmit RF energy via the forward antenna, receive and process RF energy return signals via


the aft antenna, and to supply the radar altitude and warning signals to the HUD and other avionic


equipment.

What are the characteristics of the CARA self-test?


Comprehensive, continuous, and noninterrupted

In order to replace the CARA R/T, why must the SDC be removed from the aircraft?


Because it shares the same mount as the R/T.

Where does the SDC send altitude information


To the MMC, MFD, HUD, caution panel, and VMU.

What are the purposes of the CARA system’s forward and aft antenna?


The forward antenna transmits and the aft antenna receives.

If the pilot realizes the radar altitude in the HUD is frozen, even though aircraft altitude is


changing, what should he or she do?


Try to cycle CARA system power.

If you’re called out for a red ball because of erroneous radar altitude readings in chocks, what is


the possible cause?


Operating on the ground near buildings, work stands, or other aircraft, or support equipment can cause this


problem and may persist during taxi but should cease after takeoff.

What are the references used to measure aircraft boresight accuracy?


The ABRL, pitch angles, and roll angles.

What’s the exception to not allowing anyone on aboard the aircraft during boresighting


procedures?


HUD confidence checks and/or boresighting

What can cause misalignment of equipment boresight?


Hard landings, excessive G-loads, and violent maneuvers, as well as LRU mount replacement.

What are the optical instruments you’ll need to perform the weapons system?


The boresight alignment telescope, optical collimator, and optical clinometer.

Used with the gun and HUD boresight fixture to boresight


and do a confidence check of the PDU mount.


F

Used to do a quick check of the HUD PDU.


H

Used to perform the confidence checks and boresight the


FCR antenna mounting pins.


D

Used in conjunction with the alignment telescope to


establish ABRL.


A

Used to confidence check and boresight the INU and RSU


mounting pins


C

Used in conjunction with either the gun and HUD boresight


fixture, or gun quick check target assembly, to quick check


and boresight the gun.


G

Used in conjunction with the gun-alignment adapter and


telescope to determine the need to do a gun boresight.


I

Used to do PDU mount confidence checks and to boresight


the PDU mount and gun.


E

Used with the clinometer to determine aircraft pitch angle


deviation.


B

Used to check or align pitch attitude when the AOA


transmitters are suspected to be out of alignment with the


aircrafts reference planes in pitch attitude.


J

What systems have the capability for electronic boresight?


The HUD, camera, hard points (left and right) for the LANTIRN, INS, FCR, and FLIR.

What technical order do you use for the electronic boresight of the F-16C/D block 40?


TO 1F-16CG-2-94JG-70-1.

Where do you enter the electronic boresight (system and page/s)?


On the UFCs, LIST page, MISC page, and the correction page.

Radar sets determine the distance (range) to a potential target by measuring the


a. strength of the reflected pulses.


b. amplitude of the pulses reflected back to the antenna.


c. elapsed time between pulse transmission and reception.


d. PRF of the reflected energy.


C

To accurately indicate the direction of the object reflecting the radar energy, you adjust the


position of the radar


a. antenna.


b. receiver.


c. indicator.


d. transmitter.


A

The output of the radar transmitter is routed to the antenna


a. through a waveguide.


b. by hardwired duplex cabling.


c. through a shielded-pair coax cable.


d. by electromagnetic wave propagation.


A

The antenna waveguide duplexer in a radar system


a. routes high-power RF into the receiver.


b. allows the same antenna to both receive and transmit RF.


c. prevents the received RF from damaging the receiver.


d. prevents high-power RF from being transmitted.


B

Radar antennas are said to be highly directional, allowing them to transmit and receive in


a. one-dimensional patterns.


b. 180surface-to-surface angles.

c. continuous 360rotational arcs.

d. only one direction at any given time.


D

Doppler effect is a principle that allows the radar system to


a. search and track a target.


b. lock on and track a target.


c. search and lock on a target.


d. lock on and search a target.


B

The F-16C/D FCR LRU that generates the RF drive signal to be amplified and transmitted


describes the


a. TWT.


b. DMT.


c. PSP.


d. MLPRF unit


D

The F-16C/D radar OFP is contained in the


a. DMT.


b. electronic equipment rack assembly.


c. PSP.


d. MLPRF assembly.


C

The F-16C/D ANT ELEV control and radar CURSOR/ENABLE switches are located on


the


a. MLPRF assembly.


b. pressure regulator/relief valve.


c. waveguide assembly.


d. throttle grip.


D

The FCR cable assembly routes the RF sample between the


a. DMT and the PSPBUS.


b. MLPRF and the TWT.


c. VCXO and the DMT.


d. MLPRF STALO and the DMT.


D

The two major operating modes of the F-16 FCR system are


a. search and track.


b. direction and tracking.


c. beacon and air combat.


d. air-to-air and air-to-ground.


D

A/A capabilities of the radar set used on any of the F-16 models include airborne


a. fix-taking.


b. lead and pursuit.


c. target detection and tracking.


d. track while scan, up-look and velocity search.


C

If the pilot wants to eliminate moving targets on the ground that may show up as airborne


targets while the antenna is in a down-look situation, what two velocity thresholds can be selected


while in A/A radar mode?


a. 120 or 240 knots.


b. 200 or 400 knots.


c. 1,200 or 2,400 knots.


d. 2,000 or 4,000 knots.


C

On the F-16 FCR, the FOV display may be expanded while in GM mode by using the


a. FOV switch on the MFD and the cursor switch on the throttle grip.


b. cursor switch on the throttle grip and the pinky switch on the side stick controller.


c. FOV switch on the throttle grip or the pinky switch on the side stick controller.


d. pinky switch on the side stick controller or the FOV switch on the MFD.


D

While performing an operational checkout of the FCR system on an F-16C/D, you decide to


reinitialize the system; however, you do not want the system to reenter the BIT. To accomplish

this, how soon would you place the FCR switch back to the FCR position?


a. After 10 seconds have elapsed.


b. Before the four-second time-out sequence is completed.


c. After the system has completed the power down sequence.


d. You cannot reinitialize the system without the system entering BIT.


B

The maximum azimuth scan limits of the F-16C/D radar antenna are

a. 10, for a total of 20of scan.

b. 30, for a total of 60of scan.

c. 60, for a total of 120of scan.

d. 120, for a total of 240of scan.


C

Once the designate switch is released to command the F-16C/D FCR system to enter single


target track, the target will appear on the MFD as a


a. square.


b. triangle.


c. square enclosed in a circle.


d. triangle enclosed in a circle.


D

If the F-16C/D FCR target aspect angle exceeds 60, the intercept steering symbol will

a. flash.


b. blank.


c. center itself on the display.


d. position itself on the bottom, center of the display.


B

The FCR TWS mode can track up to


a. 4 targets.


b. 6 targets.


c. 8 targets.


d. 10 targets.


D

The radar display in STT mode on the MFD is a


a. PPI display.


b. programmable PPI format.


c. logarithmic display.


d. B-scan format.


D

In GMTI mode, the F-16C/D radar transmitter operates in a coherent,


a. low PRF with precision clutter tracking.


b. medium PRF to separate the target from main beam clutter.


c. high PRF for clutter tracking and closing velocities.


d. high PRF with precision clutter tracking


A

When in GMT mode on the FCR, fine MTG adjustments are made on the


a. ICP.


b. MFD.


c. throttle gain control.


d. pilot’s side stick.


C

Where is the CARA power switch located?


a. CARA power panel.


b. SNSR PWR panel.


c. Avionics power (AMUX PWR) panel.


d. HUD remote control panel.


B

The CARA IBIT is initiated by depressing


a. the OSB adjacent to CARA on the MFD TEST page.


b. and holding the CARA IBIT button on the HUD remote control panel.


c. the OSB adjacent to RALT on the MFD TEST page.


d. and holding the RALT IBIT button on the HUD remote control panel.


C

What indication is presented on the MFD that a CARA IBIT is in progress?


a. RALT indication is highlighted and 300 feet is displayed beneath the mnemonic.


b. CARA indication is highlighted and 300 feet is displayed beneath the mnemonic.


c. RALT indication is highlighted only.


d. CARA indication is highlighted only.


A

What indication is there in the HUD that the ALT switch on the HUD remote control panel


is in the RADAR position?


a. A flashing R symbol above the altitude scale.


b. A flashing R symbol beneath the altitude scale.


c. A steady R symbol to the right of the altitude scale.


d. An R mnemonic is displayed along with the altitude scale.


D

What scale is displayed in the HUD when altitude data is unavailable?


a. Flashing R.


b. Radar altitude.


c. Altitude low data.


d. Barometric altitude.


D

What F-16 component processes returned RF signals in order to supply radar altitude


signals to other equipment?


a. SDC.


b. GAC.


c. CADC.


d. CARA R/T.


D

Which of the CARA antennas transmits and which receives?


a. Forward transmits, aft receives.


b. Aft transmits, forward receives.


c. The transmit and receive cycles alternate between the two antennas.


d. They both transmit and receive; the forward is primary and aft is backup.


A

What indication is there to a pilot that the SDC has latched?


a. Radar altitude in the display is frozen, even though aircraft altitude is changing.


b. Steady AL mnemonic in the HUD.


c. Audio warning in the headset, “altitude, altitude”.


d. Flashing AL mnemonic in the HUD.


A

In addition to the INS and the gun, what F-16 systems require boresighting?


a. SMS, TCN, ILS, HUD, FCR.


b. SMS, TCN, RTWS, HUD, FCR.


c. LANTIRN TGT pod, TCN, ILS.


d. LANTIRN TGT pod, HUD, FCR.


D

You do a boresight confidence check on any F-16 LRU you suspect is out of tolerance, with


the exception of the


a. INU and the HUD.


b. FCR antenna and the gun.


c. PDU and the gun.


d. RSU and the HUD.


C

Before an F-16 aircraft is boresighted, the


a. engine must be installed.


b. aircraft must be completely refueled, and all stress panels must be installed.


c. equipment forward of the intake must be installed or replaced with ballast of equal weight.


d. aircraft must be parked in direct sunlight so as to gain maximum expansion while boresighting.


C

The optical clinometer is used to check and set angular relationships of parts to each other


in a


a. pitch plane only.


b. pitch or roll plane.


c. azimuth plane only.


d. azimuth or pitch plane.


B

To determine an F-16’s pitch angle deviation, you would use the


a. telescope and clinometer.


b. pitch platform and clinometer.


c. forward and aft boresight fixtures.


d. clinometer and forward and aft boresight fixtures.


B

Where is the boresight fixture attached when you are boresighting the F-16 FCR?


a. DMT.


b. TWT.


c. Equipment rack.


d. Antenna.


D

To boresight the HUD and gun on an F-16, you would use the


a. boresight tool and HUD quick-check template assembly.


b. gun and HUD positioning boresight fixtures.


c. HUD quick-check template assembly.


d. gun quick-check boresight assembly.


B

What F-16C/D systems have the capability for electronic boresight?


a. HUD, camera, TACAN, ILS, INS, and FLIR.


b. HUD, TACAN, ILS, RTWS, INS, FCR, and FLIR.


c. Hard points (left and right) for the LANTIRN, RTWS, FCR, and ILS.


d. HUD, camera, hard points (left and right) for the LANTIRN, INS, FCR, and FLIR.


D