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195 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is this goal of the CCEMT-P
continuous bed to bed care.
reason most law suits occur in critical care
airways
negligence
failure to use such care as a reasonable and prudent practitioner would under similar circumstances
assault vs battery
assault is verbal battery is physical touch
EMTALA is under which act
social Security act of 1986.
What is involuntary consent:
a 302 patient, could be an inmate, or a minor
specificity
probability that a test will be negative in absence of disease
sensitivity:
probability that a test will be positive in presence of disease
primary acid excreting organs
lungs(co2) and kidneys (hco3)
carbonic buffer system
effective, but slow correcting of acid base.
respiratory acidosis causes:
-CNS depression
-neuromuscular disease
-Trauma: HIGH SPINAL CORD INJURY.
-obstructive disease: obesity or lung diseases.
respiratory alkalosis causes
anxiety
head trauma
fever
pain
PE
altitude
asthma
form of metabolism that builds lactic acid
anaerobic metabolism often due to metabolic acidosis.
most common cause of normal metabolic acidosis anion gap
Diarrhea
What causes dilutional acidosis
excessive fluid admin without electrolyte replacement
pH, PaCO2, HCO3, BE, PaO2, SaO2 normal values:
pH: 7.35-7.45
HCO3: 22-26
BE: -2+2
PaO2: 80-100
SaO2: 90-100% (>95)
ABG golden rules:
-every 10mmHg change in CO2 results in pH of .08 in opposite direction.
-every 10mmHg change in HCO3 will cause .15 change of pH in same direction
bicarb replacement formula
kg/4× base deficit
CBC (complete blood count) consists of
white blood count
WBC differential
RBC count
H&H
platelet count
elevated WBC count causes:
infection
leukemia
liver cirrhosis
burns
tissue necrosis
causes of low WBC
hematopoietic disease
malaria
bone marrow suppresion
anemia
viral infection
stress
trauma
fever
Red blood cell used for
oxygen transport: normal value 5
if respirations increase which way will the pH go?
pH will also increase (alkalosis)
if respirations decrease which direction will the H+ go?
H+ will increase (acidosis)
What does hematocrit measure?
it measure the number of red blood cells in 100ml of blood. expressed in %. normal is 45%.
What is PT and what does it measure
prothrombin time: measures effectiveness of Coumadin type anticoagulants. normal is 11.2 -13.2 seconds
INR normals
-international normalized ratio: AKA PT- INR: in normal person not on anticoagulants it should be 1.

-typical numbers of person taking anticoagulants is 1.5-2.5
BUN
measures metabolic breakdown of blood, muscle, and proteins.
7-21 is normal value.

causes for increased levels would include a GI bleed or disease causing breakdown of blood, muscles, proteins.
elevates sodium causes:
dehydration
excessive sodium intake
Diabetes insipidus
coma
CHF
Cushing disease
low sodium causes
vomiting/diarrhea
GI suction
over hydrated
DKA
diuretic use
renal disease
Addison disease
burns
creatinine normal values:
creatinine is a waste product of protein metabolism.

normal value is 06-1.4
What is renal failure and lab values associated with:
renal failure occurs with rapid decline in renal filtration function.

creatinine is typically elevated as well as the BUN.

BUN/Creatinine ration of >10:1 indicates renal failure
diuretics typically cause what metabolic disturbance?
metabolic alkalosis
What is the most SPECIFIC lab value for an AMI?
troponin.
normal Ca++, K+, Na+
sodium 135-145
potassium 3.5-5
calcium 9-11
BNP value that indicates probable heart failure
>400pg/ml
What does lactate indicate??
indicates anaerobic metabolism.
What is a fistula and how is it formed?
fistula are formed by surgically connecting the walls of an artery to a vein and usually take 3-6 months to mature.
CVAC tunneled cath # lumens, short or long term use?
can be single, double, or multi lumen and are typically for home use and long term use.
SVAD aka port a cath require what needle? if not available what is an alternative?
a Huber needle is to be used.

if unknown Huber size or NA, use a 22g 1.5in
sluggish infusion of cvac management
-reposition
-remove injection cap and inspect for a clot
-flush vigorously with 20-30ml of NSS
arterial line indication, prefered site, and labeling:
-it is indicated for beat to beat blood pressure management.
-should be labeled red to prevent ANY medications from being administered through the line.
-radial artery is prefered site.
equipment needed for arterial cath
-special tubing that is rigid
-500cc bag with 300mmHg pressure bag.
-Transducer
-amplifier
-monitor
dampening of arterial waveform in reguard to BP and causes of?
-dampening usually underestimates blood pressure.

-causes include: blood clot, tube kinking, compression of air bubbles, drag of saline in the line.
trouble shooting lost arterial waveform:
check for kinks
clots in tube
all cables connected?
try new transducer
ENSURE IT IS STILL IN PLACE
purpose of hemodynamic monitoring:
most important aspect is the determination of CARDIAC OUTPUT!

evaluates blood flow to tissues
goals of monitoring hemodynamics
determine left ventricular preload
assess peripheral perfusion
determine left ventricular function
4 lumens of the pulmonary artery catheter:
-Distal lumen is yellow measures the pressures in the pulmonary artery.

-balloon inflation port is red and is inflated to advance catheter during insertion and to wedge the catheter when it's in the pulmonary artery

-proximal lumen is blue and is located in the right atrium. used to measure CVP (preload) which is normally 2-6 (same as right ventricle pressure (RVP)

- infusion port is white and is used for medication infusions as well as to check temperature.

-intracardiac pacing lumen has opening in right atrium or ventricle and does atrial or ventricular pacing.
What does CVP measure?
CVP (central venous pressure) measures the right end diastolic pressure (preload) normal value is 2-6mmHg.
common site for Arterial catheter
subclavian vein
leveling the transducer in PAC:
-3way stopcock is closed to patient and open to air
-press zero button for 3 seconds and zeroes should be displayed.
-close the stopcock so that it is open to patient.
-readings should appear on monitor immediately.
Where should transducer be placed at:
should be at the level of the right atrium. AKA phlebostatic axis.
if placed lower than phlebostatic axis what readings would you get? what if higher than axis?
if it is placed higher then you wpuld get a lower reading.
if it is lower than you would see a higher reading.
causes of elevated CVP
Right side heart failure
cardiac tamponade
pulmonary HTN
volume overload
positive pressure ventilations
causes of low CVP:
volume depletion
vasodilation
venous vasodilation
RVP values and when readings are taken
RVP measures the pressure in the right ventricle while inserting the pulmonary cath.

systolic pressures are 15-30
diastolic are 0-8
PAP normal values
is the pressure in the pulmonary artery when the balloon is DEFLATED.
(left ventricle or afterload)

systolic pressure is 15-30
diastolic pressure is 8-15
What size syringe to inflate iabp, time it may be inflated, normal values:
a 1.5cc is used to inflate the Balloon which should be inflated for no more than 15 seconds.

normal values are 4-12mmHg
Where is the IABP placed:
1-2cm below the left subclavian and above renal.
What is cardiac output and the normal values:
cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected by left ventricle each minute.

normal cardiac output is 4-8lpm.
What would increase cardiac output:
-sympathetic nervous system stimulation
-positive inotropic stimulation
-hyperthyroidism
-hypervolemia
-anemia
-catecholamine admin
-RISE IN CO increases oxygen demand.
When is cardiac output decreased:
-heart rate greater than 150
-decreased heart rate
-decreased contractility
-increased afterload.
normal cardiac index and how to calculate it:
normal cardiac index is 2.5-4.2 and is calculated by cardiac output ÷ BSA.

a cardiac index >1.8 indicates cardiogenic shock
if you find rust colored flakes in the tube of IABP what would you suspect?
blood in the tube from rupturing.
causes of a sypply/demand mismatch
-decreased CO leads to decreased oxygen supply to tissue
-decreased oxygen availability leads to less oxygen supply to tissue.
-decreased hemoglobin availability
-inability for oxygen to leave hemoglobin.
normal LVA
it is the systemic vascular resistance.
8-1200 dynes/sec/cm2
treatment of a forward Displaced IABP:
-try turning patient on their side.
-if this fails call a physician immediately for guidance, as the catheter will need to be pulled back 3-4cm.
backward displacement treatment
notify MD immediately and ensure balloon is deflated. pull cath back into right atrium to avoid lethal dysrhythmias and possible catheter whipping.
iabp dampened waveform causes
air/blood in tubing
blood in transducer
low fluid lvl in flush bag
catheter kinked
catheter migrated forward
spontaneous wedge
dampened waveform treatment:
-attempt to pull back into right atrium if it migrated forward.
-if waveform indicates spontaneous wedge and the balloon is deflated, be prepared to pull catheter back into pulmonary artery.
if no waveform is observed while iabp is inserted:
-stopcock turned off to patient
-catheter tip is clotted
-monitor/system is setup wrong
-equipment not working
plasma made up mostly of:
90% of plasma is made up of water.
What portion of blood contains antigens and which antigen is it typically?
Rh antigens are actually the "D" antigen which are found in red blood cells.
risks of Rh+ in an Rh- person
once a person who is Rh- is given Rh+ blood, the person will have antigens which will cause an alergic reaction if they receive it again.
blood typing:
process of classifying individuals based on their antigens on erythrocytes.

AKA ABO blood group.
What is the universal donor blood?
O- is the universal donor blood.
What is the universal blood recipient?
AB+ and Rh+ person.
What blood product is given to treat thrombocytopenia?
platelets are used to treat thrombocytopenia and you do not need to do blood typing.
When is whole blood given?
typically whole blood is only given in people with hemorrhagic shock, or severally anemic patients.
Why do patients receiving large units of blood need monitored for hypocalcemia?
citric acid is in the packaged blood which binds calcium.
FFP composition
plasma
ALL coagulation factors
NO platelets
When is FFP indicated and what is it compatibility?
indicated for patient who is actively bleeding or has documented coagulation factor deficiency.

patient must be ABO compatible!

What is given to treat hemophilia
cryoprecipitate is given for hemophilia A
most subtle indications of a transfusion reaction:
increased heart rate and temp.
What is TRALI
transfusion related acute Lung injury. it is unpredictable and unpreventable.
hyperkalemia in person receiving blood
hemolysis of stored blood occurs causing an increase in potassium.
the longer the blood is stored, the higher the potassium level is in the blood.
What is 2,3-DPG?
it is the "crowbar" that forces oxygen off of the hemoglobin.

if person is in a left shift they will have decreased ability to offload oxygen.
causes of right shift in hemoglobin curve
increase PCO2
increase temp
increase 2,3-DPG
decrease pH
causes of left shift in hemoglobin curve
decreased PCO2
decrease temp
decrease 2,3-DPG
increase pH
**carbon monoxide poisoning**
MOANS acronym in airway:
Mask/seal
obesity/obstruction
age
No teeth
stiff
What is seen on x ray with epiglotitis?
thumb print sign
What is the medication given for magnesium toxicity?
calcium gluconate is given for magnesium OD
stressor of flight
hypoxia
barometric changes
thermal variations
fatigue
noise
vibration
4 types of hypoxia
hypoxic
histoxic
anemic
stagnant
rotary wing used for what distance?
less than 150 nautical miles
size of LZ
100x100
air on radiograph
black
blood on radiograph
white in acute bleeding, grey/black in old blood
correct placement of distal end of thbe
3-7cm above carina
acute infections typically have a left or right shift?
left shift is usually seen as an increase in number of neutrophil bands.
CPK normal value and what it's used to measure
creatine phosphokinase is normally 5-35mcg/ml and is used to evaluate renal function
When injecting anything into a dialysis shunt what is the smallest syringe you should use
10cc is smallest.
is a PICC line a tunneled or non tunneled cath?
non tunneled cath
CVP and RAP measure?
Right ventricle end diastolic pressure.
(preload)
PAWP reflects what pressure?
LVEDP left ventricular end diastolic pressure
patients receiving large amounts of blood should be monitored for what lab value?
hypocalcemia due to citric acid
FFP should be given within what time after thaw?
within 6 hours of thawing
clinical criteria for an ARDS patient:
has an acute onset
PAWP <18
predisposing condition
PaO2/Fio2 <200 reguardless of PEEP levels.
most common complaint in elderly ACS patients
Dyspnea
What would you find on an ekg with pericarditis or myocarditis?
ST elevation is seen in almost all leads
3 causes of airway obstruction in COPD
broncho-constriction
airway edema
mucus plugging
adrenergic agonists
albuterol
terbutaline
anticholinergics
ipratropium bromide
most common cause of sudden unexpected arrest second to CAD
pulmonary embolus
persons at increased risk for PE
AMI,CHF,A-fib
pregnancy
postpartum
oral contraceptives

HYPERCOAGULABILITY
altered mental status in respiratory patient indicates
severe hypoxia and impending respiratory arrest.
most common symptom of PE
dyspnea in 73%
Gold standard test for PE
CT scan
common cardiac arrhythmia in PE
sinus tachycardia
non specific ST changes
What is the usual catalyst of ARDS
sepsis
When does ARDS usually develop
after a significant physiologic event.

THIS IS A SYSTEMATIC INFLAMMATION RESPONSE NOT INFECTIOUS PROCESS
clinical criteria for ARDS
-acute onset
-predisposing factor
-bilateral infiltrates on chest radiograph
-PCWP <18mmHg
PaCO2 abnormalities in PE
hypocapnia early
hypercapnia late
vent settings in the ARDS patient
should mimic the origional settings.

start TV low and reduce the TV until PIP is under 35.

if low inspiratory volume results, add PEEP
What causes a bypass in upper airway defenses
ET tube
suction catheters
NG tubes
pneumonia chest scan
infiltrates
plural effusion
consolidation
iatrogenic risk factors that may cause pneumothorax
positive pressure ventilations
central venous catheter placement
thoracentesis
nasogastric tube placement
bronchoscopy
CPR
primary spontaneous pneumo results from
subpleural emphysema blebs
secondary spontaneous pneumo from
COPD is most common associated disease
signs and symptoms of tension pneumo
decreasing SaO2
tachycardia
resp distress
increased inspiratory pressure
hypotension
PEA
What is heimlich valve
one way valve that attahces to chest tube.
replaces the underwater pleural drainage system
typically used in long standing pneumothorax kits.
patient positioning during tube thoracostomy
30-60 degrees
air removal site
midclavicular 2nd space
fluid removal site
midaxillary 4th
drainage unit FOCAL assessment
Fluctuation
output
color
air leak
levels
anaphylactoid
reaction produces a similar response to an anaphylactic reaction but isn't immune mediated
3 layers of heart
epicardium is outer layer
myocardium is middle muscular layer
endocardium is inner layer
left coronary artery
-LCA
-circumflex supplies blood to left atrium and posterior left ventricle
Right artery
supplies right atrium and branches to marginal and posterior artery
Right artery supplies
Right atrium
anterior right ventricle
inferior left ventricle
posterior ventricle
1/3 septum
left artery supplies
left anterior descending:
anterior left ventricle
2/3 septum
apex of left ventricle

left circumflex
left atrium
posterior left ventricle
systole of cardiac cycle
depolarization: sodium and calcium move into the cells

repolarization: Potassium flows out of cells
frank starlings law
the degree of stretch in diastole determines velocity and force of contraction
cardiac output is what
the end measurement of hemodynamics
mean arterial pressure
(2x diastolic + systolic) ÷3
3 major functions of renal system
excretion
elimination
regulation
goal of urine production
maintain homeostasis by regulating volume and composition of blood
GFR
glomerular filtration rate: the amount of filtrate produced by the kidneys each minute
bun about 60 indicates
severe renal failure
most common used diuretic
thiazide inhibits sodium - chloride transport
emergent dialysis AEIOU
acidosis
electrolytes
ingestion
overload
uremia
rhabdomylysis
rhabdomylysis is:
the breakdown of muscle fibers resulting in the release of myoglobin into the blood stream.

these myoglobin will clog up the kidneys leading to failure
extracellular ions
sodium
calcium
bicarbonate
intracellular ions
potassium
magnesium
phosphate
sodium potassium pump needs what to function
ATP and oxygen is needed to function
leading cause of rhabdomylysis
natural or human made disasters
rhabdomylysis treatment
aggressive fluid rehydration with ISOTONIC crystalloids at 500/hr minimum and 200-300cc/hr urine output
Rhabdomylysis and sodium bicarb admin
mix one amp of bicarb in one liter bag of 0.5nss and administer 100cc/hr until pH rises above 7.0
gram -/+ tests for what?
sepsis
most deadly complication of kidney stones
infected hydronephrosis can rapidly lead to sepsis and death
a leaking aneurysm may mimic what other condition
kidney stones
Foley catheters used for:
monitoring volume status
assessing renal perfusion
adult urinary output
20-50cc/hr
number one reason people present to the ER
non descript abdominal pain
most serious type of visceral abdominal pain
ischemic pain which the pain is out of proportion
When is abdominal palpation contraindicated?
if an aortic aneurysm is suspected
Right upper pain
cholecystitis
pancreatitis
renal stones
PUD
pneumonia
PE
MI
left upper quadrant
gastritis
ulcer
pancreatitis
splenic rupture
renal stone
pneumonia
PE
MI
platelet count requiring transfusion
if it falls below 50,000
pancreatitis is what:
inflammatory process in which the pancreatic enzymes auto digest the gland.
pancreatitis signs and symptoms
nausea and vomiting
hypotension
tachycardia
tachypnea
fever
right upper abdomen pain going onto back
Grey turners sign
Cullen sign
leading cause of acute liver failure
drug related hepatoxicity
most important treatment of acute liver failure:
to identify the causing factor
pain from peri umbilical area to right lower abdomen is a strong indicator of what?
appendicitis
most AAA begin where and where?
below the renal arteries and above the iliac arteries
AAA medications
HTN:
nitroprusside
labetalol

BB
labetalol
propranolol
esmolol

2 long term feeding tubes
PEG
PEJ
components of central nervous system
brain and spinal cord
components of peripheral nervous system
efferrnt and afferent divisions
list of neurotransmitters
acetylcholine
epinephrine
norepinephrine
large opening at base of cranium
foremen magnum
meninges PAD
Pia
Arachnid
Dura
receives incoming signals to brain
thalamus
hypothalamus
autonomic control center:

temp control
thirst and hunger
ADH secretion from petuitary gland.
medulla control centers
cardiac
vasomotor
respiratory
single episode of this will cause mortality to increase 200%
single episode of hypoxia
(SPO2 <90%)
What is normal ICP value
5-15mmHg
measuring CPP
MAP-ICP=CPP
allows for collateral circulation in brain if one vessel is occluded
circle of Willis
hallmark sign for vertebro-basilsry artery bleed
vertigo
What can cross the blood brain barrier
lipid soluble substances, carbon dioxide, water, and oxygen.

isotonic solutions can cross barrier, colloid solutions cannot
causes of increased cerebral blood flow
hypoxemia
hyperthermia
hypercapnia
vasodilators
causes of decreased CBF
increased ICP
hypocapnia
hypothermia
barbituates.
expressive aphasia
inability to express language clearly
receptive aphasia
unable to understand language