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265 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Ligand |
Signaling molecule |
|
Receptor protein |
Molecule to which a ligand binds |
|
Paracrine Signals |
Signals with short-lived, local effects |
|
Hormones |
Longer-lived signal molecules that may affect cells very distant from the releasing cell |
|
Endocrine Signaling |
Type of intercellular communication that uses hormones |
|
Neurotransmitters |
The signal molecules of the nervous system cells |
|
Chemical Synapse |
The association of a neuron and its target cell |
|
Synaptic Signaling |
The type of intercellular communication between a neuron and its target cell |
|
Signal Transduction |
The events that occur within the cell on receipt of a signal |
|
Phosphorylation/Dephosphorylation |
The addition or removal of phosphate groups |
|
Phosphatases |
A class of enzymes that removes phosphate group, reversing the action of kinases |
|
Protein Kinases |
Enzymes that add phosphate groups to proteins |
|
G Protein |
A class of cell surface receptors that act indirectly on enzymes or ion channels in the plasma membrane with the aid of assisting protein |
|
Second Messangers |
Small molecules or ions that alter the behavior of cellular proteins by binding to them and changing their shape |
|
Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate (cyclic AMP) or Calcium Ions |
A common second messenger
|
|
Nuclear Receptors |
The ligand-receptor complex of steroid hormones |
|
Coactivators |
Act in concert with receptors, controlling a cell's response to signal |
|
Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs) |
Type of receptor that influences the cell cycle, cell migration, cell metabolism, and cell proliferation
|
|
Adapter Proteins |
Class of proteins that can also bind to phosphotyrosines and act as a link between the receptor and protein |
|
Mitogen-Activated Protein (MAP) Kinases |
Class of cytoplasmic kinases that stimulates cell division by activating the normal pathways that control division |
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Kinase Cascade |
The signaling module that activates MAP kinases |
|
Ras |
A small GTP-binding protein, this is the link between the RTK and the MAP kinase cascade |
|
Adenylyl Cyclase |
The enzyme that GPCR uses as an effector to create a large amount of cAMP |
|
Diacylglycerol (DAG) and Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) |
The products when PIP2 is cleaved by an inositol phospholipid |
|
Binary Fission |
The duplication and segregation of genetic information into daughter cells, and the division of cellular contents in bacteria |
|
Septum |
The barrier that grows between two dividing bacteria cells |
|
Septation |
The process of creating a septum in bacterial reproduction |
|
Mitosis |
The phase of the cell cycle in which the spindle apparatus assembles, binds to the chromosomes, and moves the sister chromatids apart |
|
Chromatin |
What chromosomes are composed of |
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Heterochromatin |
Domains of chromatin that are not expressed |
|
Euchromatin |
Domains of chromatin that are expressed |
|
Histone Proteins |
Proteins that the DNA duplex winds around in the chromosome structure |
|
Nucleosome |
The complex of DNA and histone proteins |
|
Karyotype |
The particular array of chromosomes in an individual organism |
|
Haploid (n) |
Number of different chromosomes in a species |
|
Diploid (2n) |
The total number of chromosomes in a cell |
|
Homologous |
The maternal and paternal chromosomes |
|
Homologue |
One chromosome of a homologous pair |
|
Cohesins |
Complex of proteins that holds chromosomes together |
|
Sister Chromatids |
What composes one condensed chromosome of two strands held together around the centromere |
|
G1 (Gap Phase 1) |
Primary growth phases of the cill, fills the gap between cytokinesis and DNA synthesis, and is the longest phase |
|
Cell Cycle |
The duplication of the genome, its accurate segregation, and the division of cellular contents |
|
S (Synthesis) |
The phase in which the cell synthesizes a replica of genome |
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G2 (Gap Phase 2) |
The second growth phase, and preparation for separation of the newly replicated genome, during this phase microtubules begin to reorganize to form a spindle |
|
Interphase |
G1, S, and G2, the portion of the cell cycle between cell divisions |
|
Cytokinesis |
The phase of the cell cycle when the cytoplasm divides, creating two daughter cells- in animal cells, the microtubule spindle helps position a contracting ring of actin that constricts like a drawstring to pinch the cell in two |
|
G0 Phase |
A resting state in the cell cycle , generally before G1 (before DNA replication) |
|
Centromere |
The point of constriction on the chromosome containing repeated DNA sequences that bind specific proteins
|
|
Kinetochore
|
The proteins from the centromere that make up a dislike structure |
|
Tubulin |
The protein that forms microtubules |
|
Prophase |
The first stage of mitosis, when the chromosome condensation initiated in G2 phase reaches the point at which individual condensed chromosomes first become visible with the light microscope |
|
Spindle Apparatus |
The assembly that will later separate the sister chromatids during prophase
|
|
Aster |
The arrangement of microtubules where the centrioles extend a radial array of microtubules toward the nearby plasma membrane when they reach the poles of the cell |
|
Prometaphase |
The condensed chromosomes become attached to the spindle by their kinetochores- each chromosome possesses two kinetochores, one attached to the centromere region of each sister chromatid |
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Metaphase |
The alignment of the chromosomes in the center of the cell |
|
Anaphase |
The shortest stage of Mitosis, begins when the proteins holding sister chromatids together at the centromere are removed. Then comes the simultaneous removal of these proteins from all of the chromosomes. Finally, the sister chromatids are pulled rapidly toward the poles to which their kinetochores are attached |
|
Cytokinesis |
The phase of the cell cycle when the cell actually divides
|
|
Telophase |
Phase where the spindle apparatus disassemble as the microtubules are broken down and a nuclear envelope forms around each set of sister chromatids |
|
Cleavage Furrow |
A pinching belt around the cell's circumference created by actin filaments |
|
Cyclins |
Proteins that are produced in synchrony with the cell cycle |
|
Cyclin-Dependent Kinase (Cdk) |
A protein kinase enzyme that is only active when complexed with cyclin
|
|
G1/S Checkpoint |
The primary checkpoint at which the cell "decides" whether or not to divide, the phase during which growth factors affect the cycle and also the phase that links cell division to cell growth and nutrition |
|
G2/M Checkpoint/M Phase-Promoting Factor (MPF) |
Complex checkpoint which represents the commitment to mitosis, assessing the success of DNA replication and can stall the cell cycle if DNA has not been accurately replicated
|
|
Spindle Checkpoint |
Checkpoint that ensures that all of the chromosomes are attached to the spindle in preparation for anaphase |
|
Anaphase-Promoting Complex |
The signal that tells the cell it can pass by the spindle checkpoint is transmitted through this |
|
Platelet-Derived Growth Factor (PDGF) |
One of the first growth factors to be identified, is a receptor tyrosine kinase that initiates a MAP kinase cascade to stimulate cell division |
|
Cancer |
The unrestrained, uncontrolled growth of cells |
|
p53 |
The gene that plays a key role in the G1 checkpoint, monitoring the integrity of DNA, and halting cell division, stimulating the activity of special enzymes to repair the damage |
|
Tumor-suppressor Gene |
Genes that prevent the development of many mutated cells |
|
Oncogenes |
Genes that can, when introduced into a cell, cause it to become a cancer cell |
|
Proto-oncogenes |
Normal cellular genes that become oncogenes when mutated |
|
Retinoblastoma Susceptibility Gene (Rb) |
The first tumor-suppressor gene identified which predisposes individuals for a rare form of cancer that affects the retina of the eye
|
|
Gametes |
The egg and sperm cells, each containing two chromosomes |
|
Somatic Cells |
All of the nonreproductive cells of embryos and mature individuals, which contain four chromosomes |
|
Zygote |
The cell created with the fusion of an egg and a sperm cell |
|
Fertilization/Syngamy |
The fusion of gametes to form a new cell |
|
Meiosis |
Occurs during gamete formation, producing cells with half the normal number of chromosomes |
|
Sexual Reproduction |
Reproduction that involves the alternation of meiosis and fertilization |
|
Germ-line Cells |
The cells that will eventually undergo meiosis to produce gametes |
|
Meiosis I/II |
The two rounds of division in Meiosis that each have a prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase stage |
|
Synapsis |
A process during Prophase I of meiosis when homologous chromosomes find each other and become closely associated |
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Synaptonemal Complex |
An elaborate structure that helps homologous chromosomes find their proper partners during Prophase I |
|
Recombination/Crossing Over |
Process that allows homologues to exchange chromosomal material |
|
Chiasmata |
The sites where crossing over or recombination occurs |
|
Independent Assortment |
The genes in Meiosis I result in the __________ of maternal and paternal chromosomes into gametes |
|
Achiasmate Segregation |
Alternative mechanism for joining homologues and then allowing their segregation during Anaphase I (without chiasmata) |
|
Prophase II |
Phase of Meiosis II where the nuclear envelope breaks down as a new spindle forms at the two poles of the cell |
|
Metaphase II |
Phase of Meiosis II where spindle fibers from opposite poles bind to kinetochores of each sister chromatid, allowing each chromosome to migrate to the metaphase plate as a result of tension on the chromosomes from polar microtubules pulling on sister centromeres |
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Anaphase II |
Phase of Meiosis II where the spindle fibers contract, and the cohesion complex joining the centromeres of sister chromatids is finally destroyed, allowing sister chromatids to be pulled to opposite poles |
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Telophase II |
Phase of Meiosis II where the nuclear envelope re-forms around the four sets of daughter chromosomes |
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Aneuploid Gametes |
Gametes with an improper number of chromosomes |
|
Hybridizations |
Cross-fertilization of different strains to obtain fertile offspring
|
|
True-breeding |
Offspring produced from self-fertilization remains uniform from one generation to the next
|
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Segregating |
Some offspring exhibits one form of a trait, and other offspring from the same mating exhibits a different form |
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Self-fertilization |
Both male and female sexual organs are enclosed in organism, and gametes produced by the parts of the same organism can fuse to form viable offspring |
|
Reciprocal Crosses |
Using sperm from one organism to fertilize another, and vice-versa (such as from white to purple flowers and purple to white flowers) |
|
First Filial Generation/F1 |
The first generation ofter a cross-breeding |
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Dominant |
The trait that is expressed in the F1 generation |
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Recessive |
The trait that is not expressed in the F1 generation |
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Second Filial Generation/F2 |
The second generation after cross-breeding, contains a 3:1 phenotypic ratio and 1:2:1 genotypic ratio |
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Mendelian Ratio |
3:1 segregation of phenotypic characteristics for a monohybrid cross |
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Alleles |
Alternative forms of genes |
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Homozygous |
When two haploid gametes contain the same allele fuse during fertilization |
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Heterozygous |
When two haploid gametes contain a different allele fuse during fertilization |
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Genotype |
The total set of alleles that an individual contains |
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Phenotype |
The physical appearance of an individual which results from an allele's expression |
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Principle of Segregation |
States: The two alleles for a gene segregate during gamete formation and are rejoined at random, one from each parent, during fertilization |
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Punnett Square |
A simple diagram that allows the visualization of the possibilities of the F2 generation |
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Pedigree |
A consistent graphical representation of matings and offspring over multiple generations for a particular trait |
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Dihybrid Cross |
The following of behavior of two different traits in a single cross-breed |
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Principle of Independent Assortment |
States: In a dihybrid cross, the alleles of each gene assort independently |
|
Testcross |
A procedure where an individual with unknown genotype is crossed with a homozygous recessive genotype to reveal what the unknown genotypes are |
|
Polygenic Inheritance |
A mode of inheritance where more than one gene affects the phenotype |
|
Continuous Variation |
The gradation that arises when genes segregate independently and more than one gene affects the phenotype |
|
Quantitative Traits |
The traits that form from continuous variation |
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Pleiotropic |
An allele that has more than one effect on a phenotype |
|
Incomplete Dominance |
The heterozygote is intermediate in appearance between the two homozygotes |
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Codominant |
The heterozygote shows some aspect of the phenotype of both homozygotes
|
|
ABO Blood Groups |
Four different cell-surface phenotypes that are a good example of codominant alleles |
|
Epistasis |
The type of gene interaction in which one gene can interfere with the expression of another |
|
Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance |
Theory that similar chromosomes pair with one another during Meiosis |
|
X Chromosome |
The sex of an individual is determined by the number of copies of the ___ chromosome |
|
Y Chromosome |
The chromosome the X Chromosome pairs with in Meiosis |
|
Sex Chromosomes |
The X and Y Chromosomes |
|
Sex-linked |
A trait determined by a gene on the X Chromosome |
|
Autosomes |
The twenty-two pairs of perfectly matched chromosomes |
|
Dosage Compensation |
The inactivation of one of the X Chromosomes in females so that there is an equal level of expression from the sex chromosome |
|
Genetic Mosaics |
Individual cells may express different alleles, depending on which chromosome is inactivated |
|
Maternal Inheritance |
The mode of uniparental inheritance from the mother |
|
Linked |
When genes are close together and the number of recombinant progeny is much lower than the number of parental progeny |
|
Recombination Frequency |
The number of recombinant progeny divided by the total progeny |
|
Map Unit |
Each 1% of recombination |
|
Anonymous Markers |
Genetic markers that can be detected using molecular techniques, but that do not cause a detectable phenotype |
|
Single-Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) |
Polymorphisms affecting a single base of a gene locus |
|
Nondisjunction |
The failure of homologues or sister chromatids to separate properly during meiosis |
|
Aneuploidy |
The gain or loss of a chromosome |
|
Monosomics |
Humans who have lost one copy of an autosome |
|
Trisomics |
Humans who have gained one copy of an autosome |
|
X Chromosome Nondisjunction |
When the X Chromosomes fail to separate during Meiosis |
|
Y Chromosome Nondisjunction |
When the Y Chromosomes fail to separate during Meiosis |
|
Genomic Imprinting |
The phenotype caused by a specific allele is exhibited when the allele comes from one parent, but not from the other |
|
Epigenetic Inheritance |
A stably heritable phenotype resulting from changes in a chromosome without alteration in the DNA sequence |
|
Amniocentesis |
A procedure that permits the prenatal diagnosis of many genetic disorders |
|
Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS) |
A less invasive procedure for genetic screening than amniocentesis |
|
Transformation |
The transfer of virulence from one cell to another |
|
Bacteriophages/Phages |
Viruses that infect bacteria |
|
Purine |
Adenine or Guanine nitrogenous base in DNA |
|
Pyrimidine |
Thymine or Cytosine nitrogenous base in DNA (or Uracil instead of Thymine in RNA) |
|
Phosphodiester Bond |
The linkage from the 5' phosphate and 3' hydroxyl groups that allow DNA and RNA to form long chains of nucleotides |
|
Base-pairs |
Adenine and Thymine (or Uracil) OR Cytosine and Guanine |
|
Semiconservative Model |
One strand of the parental duplex remains intact in daughter strands |
|
DNA Polymerase |
The enzyme that matches the existing DNA bases with complementary nucleotides and then links the nucleotides together |
|
Replicon |
The DNA controlled by the origin |
|
DNA Polymerase I (Pol I) |
Enzyme that acts on the lagging strand to remove primers and replace them with DNA |
|
DNA Polymerase II (Pol II) |
Enzyme that does not appear to play a role in replication, but is involved in DNA repair processes
|
|
DNA Polymerase III (Pol III) |
The main replication enzyme |
|
Endonucleases |
Nucleases that cut DNA internally |
|
Exonucleases |
Nucleases that chew away at an end of DNA |
|
Helicases |
Enzymes that use energy from ATP to unwind the DNA templates
|
|
Supercoiling |
When the unwinding of two strands of DNA introduce torsional strain |
|
Topoisomerases |
Enzymes that can alter the topological state of DNA |
|
DNA Gyrase |
A topoisomerase that is involved in DNA replication by relieving supercoiling |
|
Leading Strand |
The DNA strand that is replicated continuously |
|
Lagging Strand |
The DNA strand that is replicated discontinuously
|
|
Okazaki Fragments |
DNA fragments synthesized on the lagging strand |
|
Replication Fork |
The partial opening of a DNA helix to form two single strands |
|
DNA Ligase |
An enzyme which seals the "nick," joining the Okazaki fragments into complete strands |
|
Replisome |
The enzymes involved in DNA replication form a macromolecular assembly called the ___________ |
|
Telomeres |
The specialized structures found on the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes |
|
Telomerase |
The enzyme that creates the sequence of telomeres |
|
Mutagen |
An agent that increases the number of mutations above background levels |
|
Excision Repair |
A common form of nonspecific repair where a damaged region is removed and is then replaced by DNA synthesis |
|
Nutritional Mutations |
Mutations in cells where the cells carrying them only grow if the medium is supplemented with additional nutrients |
|
One-gene/One-polypeptide Hypothesis |
Relationship idea that many enzymes contain multiple polypeptide subunits, each encoded by a separate gene |
|
Central Dogma of Molecular Biology |
Information passes in one direction from the gene (DNA) to an RNA copy of the gene, and the RNA copy directs the sequential assembly of a chain of amino acids into a protein |
|
Transcription |
The DNA-to-RNA step of the central dogma of molecular biology |
|
Translation |
The RNA-to-protein step of the central dogma of molecular biology |
|
Retroviruses |
Class of viruses that can convert their RNA genome into a DNA copy |
|
Reverse Transcriptase |
A viral enzyme that is used by retroviruses |
|
Template Strand |
The DNA strand that is copied during transcription |
|
Coding Strand |
The DNA strand that is not copied during transcription |
|
Messenger RNA (mRNA) |
An intermediate form of the information in DNA that can be transported out of the eukaryotic nucleus to the cytoplasm for ribosomal processing |
|
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) |
The class of RNA found in both ribosomal subunits and is critical to the function of the ribosome
|
|
Transfer RNA (tRNA) |
The intermediary adapter molecule between mRNA and amino acids, have amino acids covalently attached to one end and and anticodon that can base-pair with an mRNA codon at the other |
|
Small Nuclear RNA (snRNAs) |
Type of RNA that is involved in nuclear processing of eukaryotic "pre-mRNA" |
|
Signal Recognition Particle RNA (SRP RNA)
|
Type of RNA that mediates the synthesis of proteins on the rough endoplasmic reticulum |
|
Small RNAs (mi-RNA or siRNA) |
Class of RNA that includes both micro-RNA (miRNA) and small interfering RNA (siRNA) |
|
Codons |
A series of blocks of information, each corresponding to an amino acid in the encoded protein |
|
Reading Frame |
The genetic code is read in increments of three nucleotides (triplet code) without punctuation so the ________ is extremely important |
|
Frameshift Mutations |
Mutations that alter the reading frame of the genetic message |
|
Stop Codons |
Three codons, UAA, UGA, and UAG, that signals "stop" |
|
Start Codon |
One codon, AUG, that signals "start" |
|
Degenerate |
Word that describes the fact that some amino acids are specified by more than one codon |
|
Promoter |
DNA site that forms a recognition and binding site for the RNA polymerase |
|
Start Site |
DNA site where the RNA polymerase begins transcription |
|
Terminator
|
DNA site where the RNA polymerase is signaled to end transcription |
|
Transcription Unit |
The region on the DNA strand from the promoter to the terminator |
|
Transcription Bubble |
The region that contains the RNA polymerase, the DNA template, and the growing RNA transcript |
|
Operon |
The grouping of functionally related genes |
|
RNA Polymerase I |
The enzyme that transcribes rRNA |
|
RNA Polymerase II |
The enzyme that transcribes mRNA and some small nuclear RNAs |
|
RNA Polymerase III |
The enzyme that transcribes tRNA and some small nuclear RNAs |
|
TATA Box |
Part of the "core promoter" that RNA Polymerase II binds to |
|
Transcription Factors |
Factors that allow for promoter recognition |
|
Primary Transcript |
The RNA synthesized by RNA Polymerase II |
|
Mature mRNA |
The RNA produced from the primary transcript after undergoing caps, tails, and splicing |
|
5' Cap/Methyl-G Cap |
The modified primary transcript by the addition of GTP to the 5' PO4 group |
|
3' Poly-A Tail |
A series of adenine residues added to the 3' end of the primary transcript |
|
Spliceosome |
An organelle that splices the pre-mRNA so that noncoding sequences are removed |
|
Introns |
The noncoding DNA that interrupts the sequence of the gene |
|
Exons |
The coding sequences of DNA |
|
Pre-mRNA Splicing |
The process of the primary transcript being cut and put back together |
|
Small Nuclear Ribonucleoprotein Particles (snRNPs) |
Complexes composed of snRNA and protein that cluster together to form a spliceosome |
|
Alternative Splicing |
A process where a single primary transcript can be spliced into different mRNAs by the inclusion of different sets of exons |
|
Aminoacyl-tRNA Synthetases |
This enzyme activates the covalent attachment of an amino acid to the correct tRNA for protein synthesis |
|
Acceptor Stem |
The end of the tRNA that allows amino acids to be attached |
|
Anticodon Loop |
The part of the tRNA that contains the anticodon sequence so it can base-pair with codons in the mRNA |
|
Charging Reaction |
The reaction where an amino acid joins to a tRNA |
|
P Site (Peptidyl) |
Ribosomal site that binds to the tRNA attached to the growing peptide chain |
|
A Site (Aminoacyl) |
Ribosomal site that binds to the tRNA carrying the next amino acid to be added |
|
E Site (Exit) |
Ribosomal site that binds to the tRNA that carried the previous amino acid added |
|
Peptidyl Transferase |
This enzyme is required for the formation of peptide bonds within the ribosome |
|
Initiation Complex |
The complex that includes the small subunit, mRNA, tRNA (fMet), and some other initiation factors
|
|
Initiator tRNA |
A special tRNA molecule that is charge with a chemically modified methionine |
|
Ribosome-Binding Sequence (RBS) |
A conserved sequence in the 5' end of the mRNA that helps position the small ribosomal subunit and the mRNA strand correctly |
|
Elongation Factor (EF-Tu) |
A factor that binds to the charged tRNA and to GTP to help bind a second charged tRNA to the empty A site
|
|
Wobble Pairing |
The effect of the presence of modified bases with less accurate pairing in the 5' position of the anticodon |
|
Signal Sequence |
A polypeptide that starts with a short series of amino acids |
|
Signal Recognition Particle (SRP) |
A cytoplasmic complex of proteins that specifically recognizes the signal sequence |
|
Point Mutation |
A mutation that alters a single base |
|
Base Substitution Mutation |
The substitution of one base pair for another in DNA |
|
Missense Mutation |
When base substitution changes an amino acid in protein |
|
Nonsense Mutations |
When base substitution changes a transcribed codon to a stop codon |
|
Chromosomal Mutations |
Extensive mutations that alter the structure of the chromosome itself |
|
Deletion |
The loss of a portion of a chromosome |
|
Duplication |
The mutation where the region of a chromosome is replicated and may or may not lead to phenotypic consequences |
|
Inversion |
When a segment of a chromosome is broken in two places, reversed, and put back together |
|
Translocation |
When a piece of one chromosome is broken off and joined to another chromosome |
|
Regulatory Proteins |
Proteins that modulate the ability of RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter |
|
Major Groove |
The deeper groove of the DNA molecule |
|
DNA-Binding Motifs |
Regulatory proteins employ _________ that share the property of interacting with specific sequences of bases |
|
Helix-Turn-Helix |
The most common DNA-binding motif constructed from two alpha-helical segments |
|
Homeodomain |
A special class of helix-turn-helix motifs that play critical roles in development in many eukaryotic organisms |
|
Zinc Fingers |
A DNA-binding motif that uses one or more zinc atoms to coordinate its binding to DNA |
|
Leucine Zipper |
A DNA-binding motif that allows different subunits of a protein to associate with the DNA (an example of a dimerization motif) |
|
Positive Control |
Control that increases the frequency of initiation |
|
Negative Control |
Control that decreases the frequency of initiation |
|
Repressors |
Proteins that mediate negative control |
|
Operators |
The regulatory DNA site that repressors bind to |
|
Induction |
When enzymes for a certain pathway are produced in response to a substrate |
|
Repression |
When enzymes for a certain pathway are non produced |
|
Catabolite Activator Protein (CAP) |
An allosteric protein with cAMP as an effector |
|
Derepressed |
When an operon that has been repressed, stopped being repressed |
|
General Transcription Factors |
Factors necessary to establish productive initiation
|
|
Specific Transcription Factors |
Factors that act in a tissue- or time-dependent manner to stimulate higher levels of transcription than the basal level |
|
Enhancers |
The DNA binding sites of specific transcription factors |
|
Transcription Complex |
What all of the specific transcription factors make-up |
|
Chromatin-Remodeling Complexes |
Complexes that alter chromatin structure to regulate gene expression |
|
Micro-RNA (miRNA) |
A type of small RNA directly involved in gene expression |
|
Small Interfering RNAs (siRNAs) |
These use double-stranded RNAs to turn off gene expression |
|
RNA-Induced Silencing Complex (RISC) |
The complex of proteins where miRNA eventually is loaded into |
|
RNA Interference |
The most commonly used term that describes the production of siRNAs |
|
Translation Repressor Proteins |
Proteins that shut down translation by binding to the beginning of the transcript, so that it cannot attach to the ribosome |
|
Proteases |
Enzymes that can degrade proteins by breaking peptide bonds, converting a protein into its constituent amino acids |
|
Proteasome |
The cellular organelle that degrades proteins marked with ubiquitin |