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258 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Cellular respiration occurs in three stages: glycolysis, the Kreb's cycle, and the electron transport chain.




-True


-False

True

The purpose of cellular respiration is to provide oxygen needed to accomplish biological work.




-True


-False

False

A decline in respiratory rate can be due to which of the following?




-muscle cells running low on ATP


-muscle cells running low on oxygen


-lactate build-up in the muscle cells


-All of the above answers

All of the above answers

An increase in the rate of respiration indicates all of the following EXCEPT:




-an increase in ATP production


-an increase in ATP utilization


-a decrease in oxygen uptake


-an increase in oxygen uptake

a decrease in oxygen uptake

Glycolysis is aerobic respiration and requires oxygen.




-True


-False

False

As the reaction temperature increases, the rate of respiration decreases.




-True


-False

False

During respiration, _____.




-carbon dioxide is produced.


-oxygen is consumed.


-ATP is produced.


-heat is produced.


-all of the above choices are correct.

all of the above choices are correct.

An organism's respiration rate can reach zero if the body temperature is lowered enough.




-True


-False

False

When an organism becomes hypothermic, the overall metabolism of the organism is depressed, in addition to a decrease in respiratory reactions.




-True


-False

True

Organisms with a long recovery period for respiration rates to decrease to normal rates are unlikely to chase prey over long distances.




-True


-False

True

The phenotype of an organism refers to the genetic makeup, or which alleles, the organism possesses.




-True


-False

False

According to the thin-layer chromatography (TLC) activities, glyptodonts that are heterozygous for shell color possess 2 pigments.




-True


-False

True

According to the thin-layer chromatography (TLC) activities, there were three possible pigments for glyptodont shell color. Match the pigment color to the correct Rf.




-__ Red


-__ Yellow


-__ Grey




1. Rf = 0.44


2. Rf = 0.60


3. Rf = 0.75


_3_ Red


_2_ Yellow


_1_ Grey




1. Rf = 0.44


2. Rf = 0.60


3. Rf = 0.75

Glyptodonts that are homozygous dominant for shell color possess red and yellow pigments.




-True


-False

False

According to the electrophoresis activity, glyptodonts that are homozygous dominant possess 8 proteins.




-True


-False

True

According to the electrophoresis activity, individuals that are homozygous recessive differ from those that are homozygous dominant because they have one additional protein that homozygous dominant individuals do not possess.




-True


-False

False

It is impossible to distinguish a homozygous dominant individual (AA) from a heterzygous individual (Aa) using thin-layer chromatography or electrophoresis.




-True


-False

True

The dominant allele is always expressed in the phenotype.




-True


-False

True

If all the offrpsing of two red glyptodonts are also red, what are the possible genotypes of the parents?




-Both parents are Aa.


-One parent is Aa, the other is AA.


-Both parents are AA.


-All of these may be true; the offspring must be test-crossed before we can be certain.

All of these may be true; the offspring must be test-crossed before we can be certain.

What are the genotypes of two glyptodont parents with red shells that produce 3 red-shelled offspring and 1 yellow-shelled offspring?




-AA x AA


-aa x aa


-AA x aa


-Aa x aa


-Aa x Aa

Aa x Aa

In an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, males are affected more than females.




-True


-False

False

Two phenotypically normal parents can have a child affected with an autosomal recessive disease.




-True


-False

True

If both parents are "carriers" of an autosomal recessive disease due to the presence of one copy of the recessive allele responsible for the trait being studied, what are the odds that they would have an affected child?




-0


-25%


-50%


-75%


-100%

25%

It is possible to be a "carrier" (phenotypically normal but capable of passing the allele to one's offspring) for a genetic disease exhibiting the autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance.




-True


-False

False

Two phenotypically normal parents cannot have a child affected with an autosomal dominant disease.




-True


-False

True

If two parents are affected by an autosomal dominant genetic disease, what is the odds that they will have a child affected with the disease?




-0


-25%


-50%


-75%


-100%

75%

In an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance, females are affected more than males.




-True


-False

False

It is possible to be a "carrier" (phenotypically normal but capable of passing the allele to one's offspring) for a genetic disease exhibiting the X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance.




-True


-False

True

If a female parent is a carrier, due to the presence on the X chromosome of one copy of the recessive allele responsible for an X-linked recessive genetic disease, what are the odds that a male child would be affected?




-0


-25%


-50%


-75%


-100%

50%

Match the genetic disease with the correct type of inheritance pattern.




-__ X-linked recessive


-__ autosomal recessive


-__ autosomal dominant


-__ autosomal recessive


-__ X-linked recessive


-__ autosomal dominant




1. Huntington's disease


2. Hemophilia A


3. Tay-Sachs Disease


4. Achondroplasia


5. Cystic Fibrosis


6. Color Blindness

_6_ X-linked recessive


_5_ autosomal recessive


_1_ autosomal dominant


_3_ autosomal recessive


_2_ X-linked recessive


_4_ autosomal dominant




1. Huntington's disease


2. Hemophilia A


3. Tay-Sachs Disease


4. Achondroplasia


5. Cystic Fibrosis


6. Color Blindness

A single change in the amino acid sequence of hemoglobin causes the hemoglobin molecules to clump together.




-True


-False

True

Sickle-cell is characterized as




-autosomal dominant


-autosomal recessive


-x-linked

autosomal recessive

If a father has sickle-cell and a mother does not have sickle cell nor is a carrier, what is the percentage that their child will have sickle cell?




-0%


-25%


-50%


-75%

0%

Used to make a DNA copy of mRNA.




-polymerase


-reverse transcriptase


-primase


-ligase

reverse transcriptase

Which is not required to perform PCR?




-large amount of DNA


-2 DNA primers


-Taq polymerase


-all are required

large amount of DNA

Using 13 STR markers, if one allele from the DNA of an individual who is a suspect, is different from any of the markers, it means that individual was not likely at the scene.




-True


-False

True

The probability of a match being due to chance _____________ as the number of markers increase




-increase


-decrease

decrease

The probability of two random events occuring together is




-sum of individual probabilities


-difference of their individual probabilities


-product of their individual probabilities

product of their individual probabilities

If a man who has sickle cell marries a woman who is a carrier for sickle cell and they have children, what is the probability their first child will have sickle cell?




-0%


-25%


-50%


-75%

50%

STR stands for "short tandem repeats".




-True


-False

True

Match the term with the correct definition.




-__ genetic drift


-__ mutation


-__ fitness


-__ natural selection




1. variation in allelic frequencies from one generation to the next due to pure chance


2. bias in reproductive success due to morpholocial, behavioral, physiological, or ecological factors


3. biochemical error in DNA replication


4. a measure of differential reproductive success

_1_ genetic drift


_3_ mutation


_4_ fitness


_2_ natural selection




1. variation in allelic frequencies from one generation to the next due to pure chance


2. bias in reproductive success due to morpholocial, behavioral, physiological, or ecological factors


3. biochemical error in DNA replication


4. a measure of differential reproductive success

Which of the following is NOT a condition assumed by Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?




-The population is very small.


-Mating is random for the genes being studied.


-No gene flow (migration) occurs.


-No mutations occur.


-All individuals reproduce with equal success.

The population is very small.

According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the allelic frequency of the A allele is 0.8, then what is the frequency of the a allele?




-0.2


-0.4


-0.6


-0.8


-1.0

0.2

Under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, allelic frequencies do not change over time.




-True


-False

True

Both strong and weak natural selection against the dominant phenotype have the ability to completely elminate the dominant genotype.




-True


-False

True

Evolution acts at the level of the individual, and natural selection acts at the level of the population.




-True


-False

False

Mutations increase genetic diversity.




-True


-False

True

Gene flow decreases genetic diversity.




-True


-False

False

The presence of cichlids in a pond causes natural selection for an increase in spot number in male guppies to avoid predation.




-True


-False

False

If you went to the field site and removed predators from the natural ponds, do you think the results of your field experiments would mirror the results you obtained in the laboratory?




-Yes, the field experiment results and the lab experiment results would be identical.


-No, the field experiment results would show higher spot numbers than the lab experiment results.


-No, the genetic variability in the ponds is limited to low spot numbers, so although there might be high spot numbers after the experiment, they would not be as high as in the laboratory results.

No, the genetic variability in the ponds is limited to low spot numbers, so although there might be high spot numbers after the experiment, they would not be as high as in the laboratory results.

Population biology is the scientific study of the interactions between organisms and the abiotic and biotic factors that make up their environment.




-True


-False

False




Population biology is the study of populations and the factors that operate to regulate and control the size of these populations.

Three factors influence population growth: population size, growth rate, and a correction term.




-True


-False

True

Population growth is most rapid when the population size is near zero.




-True


-False

False

The carrying capacity (K) of a population has no effect on population growth.




-True


-False

False

What happens to a population when the death rate is larger than the birth rate?




-The population remains at equilibrium.


-The population declines.


-The population grows very quickly.

The population declines.

When a prey population reaches a population growth equal to zero, the prey is reproducing at a faster rate than the predators are removing prey.




-True


-False

False




The prey is reproducing at the exact same rate that predators are removing prey.

Increases in the prey growth rate are followed by _____.




-increases in the predator growth rate.


-decreases in the predator growth rate.


-no change in the predator growth rate.

increases in the predator growth rate.

Factors that might influence the size of a prey population beyond predation are available food supply, disease, parasites, and weather.




-True


-False

True

What is the ultimate response of both predator and prey populations to the sudden loss of either prey or predators?




-The equilibrium point is changed.


-The equilibrium point is not changed and both populations will ultimately return to their stable equilibrium values.


-The equilibrium point is temporarily changed.


-None of the above.

The equilibrium point is not changed and both populations will ultimately return to their stable equilibrium values.

One way to control the deer populations in many parts of the northeastern United States that are out of control is to decrease human predation by shortening the length of the hunting season.




-True


-False

False




Increasing the length of the hunting season would help to control the populations.

Environment refers to anything that is external to an organism, both abiotic factors and biotic factors.




-True


-False

True

All trophic levels, including decomposers, depend on the previous trophic level as a source of energy.




-True


-False

False




Decomposers receive their energy from each of the other four trophic levels (producers, herbivores, 1st carnivores, and 2nd carnivores).

Each trophic level must have a balanced energy budget such that the total amount of energy going into the level must equal the total amount of energy going out.




-True


-False

True

Energy leaves the system studies in two pathways: through respriation of organisms at each trophic level and through tourists who visit the catfish.




-True


-False

False




Tourists add energy to the system by feeding bread to the catfish.A small amount of energy (11.7%) is lost because of plant material that flows downstream, leaving the system.

Carbon is added to the atmosphere by:




-biota and detritus


-soil


-the upper ocean


-all of the above

all of the above

Carbon is removed from the atmosphere by:




-biota and the upper ocean


-detritus


-soil


-the lower ocean

biota and the upper ocean

What effect does the relative rate at which a compartment exchanges carbon with other compartments have on the stability of a compartment?




-Compartments with higher exchange rates should respond more quickly to changes in carbon levels than compartments with lower exchange rates.


-Compartments with higher exchange rates should respond more slowly to changes in carbon levels than compartments with lower exchange rates.


-The relative rate which a compartment exchanges carbon with other compartments has no effect on the stability of a compartment.

Compartments with higher exchange rates should respond more quickly to changes in carbon levels than compartments with lower exchange rates.

The atmosphere pathway for carbon exchange is most stable.




-True


-False

False




The terrestrial pathway is most stable.

One long-term response of the prairie dog community following the removal of predators is that by year 50, hawks and ferrets had begun to re-establish, and by year 100 both were back at or near their original population sizes.




-True


-False

True

A keystone species is a species on which the persistence of a large number of other species in the ecosystem depends and whose impact on community structure is disproportionate to its relative abundance. Of the species tested in the simulation, which one is the most likely candidate for designation as a keystone species?




-deer mouse


-ferret


-mesquite


-prairie dog

prairie dog

As stimulation time increases, the scorpion's respiratory rate begins to decline. This decline is probably due to




-lactate build-up in the muscle cells.


-muscle cells running low on O2.


-muscle cells running low on ATP.


-all of the above answers.

all of the above answers.

In this simulation, how is respiration rate being measured?




-O2 consumption


-CO2 consumption


-CO2 production


-O2 production

CO2 production

Scorpion muscle contraction is fueled directly by energy derived from




-ethanol.


-lactic acid.


-ADP.


-ATP.

ATP.

Do scorpions have a maximum rate for respiration?




-yes


-no

yes

An increase in the rate of respiration indicates an




-all of the above.


-increase in ATP production.


-increase in ATP utilization.


-increase in O2 production uptake.

all of the above.

What is the approximate maximum rate of respiration that scorpions exhibit?




-Around 22 microliters of CO2 per minute/gram of scorpion weight.


-They do not exhibit a maximum rate.


-Around 12 microliters of CO2 per minute/gram of scorpion weight.

Around 12 microliters of CO2 per minute/gram of scorpion weight.

During respiration by ground squirrels,




-heat is produced.


-O2 is consumed.


-all of the choices are correct.


-ATP is produced.


-CO2 is produced.

all of the choices are correct.

As the body temperature of the ground squirrel decreases, its respiration rate




-increases.


-decreases.


-remains relatively constant.

decreases.

Can the energy released as heat during respiration be recaptured and used to do additional work?




-no


-yes

no

If we continued to lower the body temperature of the ground squirrel, would its respiration rate ever reach zero while the squirrel was still alive?




-yes


-no

no

As the ground squirrel's body temperature increases, its respiration rate




-increases.


-remains relatively constant.


-decreases.

increases.

When an organism (such as a ground squirrel) becomes hypothermic, are ONLY the respiratory reactions likely to be affected, or would the overall metabolism of the organism be depressed?




-there is little affect on any of the organism’s systems


-only the respiratory reactions are likely to be affected


-the overall metabolism of the organism would be depressed

the overall metabolism of the organism would be depressed

If you could increase the availability of O2 to the muscle cells of scorpions, you might expect respiration rates to




-decrease.


-remain relatively constant.


-increase.

increase.

After a period of stimulation, how long does it take for scorpion respiration rates to reach their maximum?




-Seconds


-Hours


-Minutes

Minutes

After a period of intense physical activity, how long does it take for scorpion respiration rates to return to their initial values?




-Approximately one hour


-Less than 30 minutes


-Less than 60 seconds

Approximately one hour

Given the fact that their respiration rate increases rapidly during activity but is slow to decrease following activity, does it seem likely that scorpions chase their prey over long distances?




-no


-yes

no

If scorpion respiration rates were being estimated by measuring O2 uptake rather than CO2 production, the graph of O2 uptake versus time would




-be similar to the graph of CO2 production versus time.


-have a shape completely unrelated to the shape of the CO2 graph.


-be the exact inverse of the graph of CO2 production versus time.

be similar to the graph of CO2 production versus time.

Do scorpions exhibit a maximum rate of respiration?




-no


-yes

yes

Scorpion respiration rates reach their maximum




-after stimulation.


-before stimulation.


-during stimulation.

after stimulation.

Based on these data, do scorpions seem well adapted to chasing down their prey over long distances?




-no


-yes

no

How many pigments are present in the samples derived from individuals that are heterozygous for shell color?




-1


-3


-2

2

What was the Rf of the red pigment?




-0.44


-0.75


-0.60

0.75

What was the color of the other pigment present in the shell extract of the Aa individuals?




-Yellow


-Grey


-Pink

Grey

What was the Rf of this other pigment in the Aa extract?




-0.75


-0.60


-0.44

0.44

What was the Rf of the yellow pigment?




-0.60


-0.44


-0.75

0.60

What pigments are present in the samples derived from individuals that are homozygous recessive for shell color?




-Red, yellow, and grey


-Red and yellow


-Yellow and grey


-Red and grey

Yellow and grey

What pigments are present in the samples derived from individuals that are homozygous dominant (AA) for shell color?




-Red and grey


-Red, yellow, and grey


-Yellow and grey


-Red and yellow

Red and grey

Can you distinguish between the chromatograms of an Aa individual and an AA individual?




-yes


-no

no

Which pigment is always present when a dominant allele (A) is present?




-Red


-Yellow

Red

Is the grey pigment controlled by the same gene as the red pigment?




-yes


-no

no

Large, high molecular-weight proteins are always found




-nearer the top of the gel.


-nearer the bottom of the gel.


-close to the middle of the gel.

nearer the top of the gel.

What is the approximate molecular weight of the protein that is missing from the homozygous recessive extract?




-35 kDa


-25 kDa


-65 kDa


-45 kDa

45 kDa

How many proteins are present in the extract from the individual that is homozygous dominant?




-7


-5


-8


-6

8

How many proteins are present in the extract from the individual that is homozygous recessive?




-9


-7


-6


-8

7

The protein profiles for the Aa and AA individuals are




-different.


-similar.


-identical.

identical.

How many proteins appear to be related to the differences in shell color?




-4


-1


-2


-3

1

Is it reasonable to conclude that the 45 kDa protein is involved in shell pigment production?




-no


-yes

yes

Does the presence or absence of a particular protein correlate with the presence or absence of a particular allele?




-no


-yes

yes

Since genes are expressed by coding for the production of individual proteins, do any proteins found appear to be under the control of any particular allele(s)?




-yes


-no

yes

What can you conclude if the protein with an apparent mass of 45 kDa is not detected in dividuals that lack the dominant allele?




-that protein is probably coded for by the dominant allele


-that protein is probably coded for by the recessive allele


-that protein is probably expressed only when the recessive and dominant alleles are both present

that protein is probably coded for by the dominant allele

Is the phenotype of an organism controlled by its genotype?




-no


-yes

yes

Are dominant alleles always expressed in the phenotype?




-no


-yes

yes

When two AA glyptodonts mate, will they breed true for shell color? In other words, will the dominant phenotype be found in all of the offspring?




-no


-the shell color cannot be predicted


-yes

yes

When an AA glyptodont mates with an Aa glyptodont, will any of their offspring have yellow shells?




-no


-yes

no

If all the offspring of two red glyptodonts are also red, what are the possible genotypes of the parents?




-Both parents are Aa.


-Both parents are AA.


-All of these may be true; the offspring must be test-crossed before we can be certain.


-One parent is Aa, the other is AA.

All of these may be true; the offspring must be test-crossed before we can be certain.

When two Aa glyptodonts mate, what percentage of their offspring would you expect to have yellow shells?




-100%


-0%


-25%


-50%

25%

What glyptodont cross ensures that you will have all yellow offspring?




-Aa x aa


-AA x aa


-Aa x aa


-aa x aa

aa x aa

You have a red male glyptodont but don't know if he is a heterozygote (Aa) or a homozygote (AA). Which mating would most quickly reveal his genotype?




-With a yellow female


-With a red female

With a yellow female

Is the working hypothesis proving to be valid? That is, does shell color appear to be under the control of a single gene with two alleles, where the dominant phenotype is red and the recessive is yellow?




-yes


-no

yes

After the results of the chromatography and electrophoresis experiments, can you reasonably conclude that the red shell color is produced by a single red pigment whose synthesis is catalyzed by an enzyme (with an approximate mass of 45 kDa) coded for by the dominant allele?




-No


-You can reasonably conclude that the shell color is produced by a single pigment, but not that it is catalyzed by an enzyme coded for by the dominant allele.


-Yes

Yes

Huntington’s Disease is inherited as an

-X-linked recessive.
-autosomal recessive.
-autosomal dominant.

autosomal dominant.

An individual with the Huntington’s allele will always pass the allele on to their children.




-True


-False

False

Is it possible to be a “carrier” for Huntington’s Disease (someone who will never develop the disorder but capable of passing the allele to ones offspring)?




-no


-yes

no

Could two individuals who were heterozygous for the Huntington’s allele have a normal child?




-yes


-no

yes

If one parent has the Huntington’s allele, and the other is normal, what are the odds that they could have a normal child?




-100%


-50%


-75%


-25%


-0%

50%

What type of inheritance pattern does Hemophilia A exhibit?




-Autosomal dominant


-X-linked recessive


-Autosomal recessive

X-linked recessive

Based on your pedigree data, does the inheritance of Hemophilia A appear to be related to the sex of the offspring?




-yes


-no

yes

Is it possible to be a “carrier” (phenotypically normal but capable of passing the allele to one’s offspring) for Hemophilia A?




-no


-yes

yes

Could two phenotypically normal parents have a child with Hemophilia A?




-yes


-no

yes

If a female parent is a carrier, due to the presence of one copy of the recessive Hemophilia A allele being carried on the X chromosome, what are the odds that she could have an affected male child?




-50%


-25%


-75%


-0%


-100%

50%

What type of inheritance pattern does Tay-Sachs Disease exhibit?




-Autosomal recessive


-X-linked recessive


-Autosomal dominant

Autosomal recessive

Based on the pedigrees that you have generated, does inheritance of Tay-Sachs disease appear to be related to the sex of the offspring




-yes


-no

no

Is it possible to be a "carrier" (phenotypically normal but capable of passing the allele to one’s offspring) for Tay-Sachs Disease?




-yes


-no

yes

Could two phenotypically normal parents have a child with Tay-Sachs Disease?




-yes


-no

yes

If both parents are “carriers” due to the presence of one copy of the Tay-Sachs allele, what are the odds that they would have a normal child?




-25%


-75%


-0%


-50%


-100%

75%

What type of inheritance pattern does achondroplasia exhibit?




-Autosomal dominant


-Autosomal recessive


-X-linked recessive

Autosomal dominant

An individual with this type of dwarfism will always pass the allele on to their children.




-False


-True

False

Is it possible to be a “carrier” for achondroplasia (phenotypically normal but capable of passing the allele to one’s offspring)?




-yes


-no

no

Could two achondroplastic dwarfs have a normal child?




-yes


-no

yes

If one parent has achondroplasia, and the other is normal, what are the odds that they could have a normal child?




-50%


-100%


-0%


-75%


-25%

50%

What type of inheritance pattern does cystic fibrosis exhibit?




-Autosomal recessive


-X-linked recessive


-Autosomal dominant

Autosomal recessive

Based on the pedigrees that you have generated, does the inheritance of cystic fibrosis appear to be related to the sex of the offspring?




-yes


-no

no

Is it possible to be a “carrier” (phenotypically normal but capable of passing the allele to one’s offspring) for cystic fibrosis?




-yes


-no

yes

Could two phenotypically normal parents have a child with cystic fibrosis?




-yes


-no

yes

If both parents are “carriers” due to the presence of one copy of the cystic fibrosis allele, what are the odds that they would have a normal child?




-0%


-100%


-50%


-25%


-75%

75%

What type of inheritance pattern does color blindness exhibit?




-X-linked recessive

-Autosomal dominant
-Autosomal recessive

X-linked recessive

Based on your pedigree data, does the inheritance of color blindness appear to be related to the sex of the offspring?




-yes


-no

yes

Is it possible to be a “carrier” (phenotypically normal but capable of passing the allele to one’s offspring) for color blindness?




-Yes, but only men can be carriers.


-Yes, but only women can be carriers.


-Yes, women and men can be carriers.


-No

Yes, but only women can be carriers.

Could two phenotypically normal parents have a color-blind child?




-yes


-no

yes

If a female parent is a carrier, due to the presence of one copy of the recessive color-blindness allele being carried on the X chromosome, what are the odds that she could have an affected male child?




-0%


-100%


-25%


-75%


-50%

50%

Whose family tree could possibly harbor the recessive allele for Tay-Sachs Disease?




-Ian's


-Sylvia's

Sylvia's

Could Sylvia be a carrier for the Tay-Sachs allele?




-yes


-no

yes

Although an orphan, Ian is also Jewish. If both he and Sylvia were carriers, what would be their chances of having a Tay-Sach's child?




-Not enough information is given to make this type of prediction.


-2 out of 4 (50%)


-3 out of 4 (75%)


-1 out of 4 (25%)

1 out of 4 (25%)

Does Andrew have a reason to be concerned about developing Huntington's Disease?




-Yes, absolutely.


-Perhaps, but the likelihood is remote.


-No, he has no reason to be concerned.


-Not enough information is given

Yes, absolutely.

At 38, Andrew's mother is symptomless for Huntington's Disease. What are the chances that she has inherited the Huntington's allele from her mother?




-3 in 4 (75%)


-2 in 4 (50%)


-4 in 4 (100%)


-1 in 4 (25%)

2 in 4 (50%)

If Andrew has indeed inherited the Huntington's allele from his mother, what are the chances that he could pass the allele to his children?




-1 in 4 (25%)


-4 in 4 (100%)


-3 in 4 (75%)


-2 in 4 (50%)

2 in 4 (50%)

There is a test for the presence of Huntington's allele in symptomless individuals. Would you recommend that Andrew have himself tested?




-yes


-no

yes

Is Tina a potential carrier of the Hemophilia A allele?




-yes


-no

yes

Is there any possibility that Ike is a carrier of Hemophilia A?




-yes


-no

no

If Tina is a carrier, what is the chance that she will have a son with Hemophilia A?




-No chance (0%). All sons would be normal.


-She can expect 50% of her sons to have Hemophilia A.


-Not enough data is given.


-All of her sons will have Hemophilia A.

She can expect 50% of her sons to have Hemophilia A.

As a carrier, Tina has one son with Hemophilia A. If she becomes pregnant for a second time with a boy, what is the chance that her second son could also suffer from Hemophilia A?




-25%


-none


-100%


-50%

50%

Is it possible to be a “carrier” (phenotypically normal but capable of passing the allele to one’s offspring) for a sickle-cell anemia?




-yes


-no

yes

Could two normal parents have a child with sickle-cell anemia?




-yes


-no

yes

The two nucleotide sequences are




-80 to 90% different


-none of the above


-80 to 90% the same


-identical

none of the above

How many nucleotides are different in one sequence from those in the other?




-3


-1


-2


-4

1

Do any difference(s) detected in DNA sequence seem to correlate with a difference in amino acid sequence?




-yes


-no

no

What specific nucleotide difference did you discover?




-C is replaced by G.


-G is replaced by A.


-G is replaced by C.


-A is replaced by T.

A is replaced by T.

What specific amino acid difference did you discover between normal and sickle-cell betaglobin?




-Valine is replaced by glutamic acid.


-No differences were detected.


-Glutamic acid is replaced by valine.


-Glutamine is replaced by valine.

Glutamic acid is replaced by valine.

Do you think that the altered amino acid sequence in sickle-cell betaglobin could alter the overall structure of hemoglobin?




-Yes, a single amino acid substitution could radically affect the overall structure of hemoglobin.


-No, a single amino acid substitution is too small of a change to affect a large protein.

Yes, a single amino acid substitution could radically affect the overall structure of hemoglobin.

A specific marker with a single peak indicates that the individual is ________ with respect to that particular STR marker.




-heterozygous


-homozygous

homozygous

A specific marker with two peaks indicates that the individual is ________ with respect to that particular STR marker.




-heterozygous


-homozygous

heterozygous

Can an individual receive two STR alleles from the same parent?




-yes


-no

no

Would it ever be possible for two humans to have identical "DNA fingerprints"?




-yes


-no

yes

Does the crime scene DNA match either suspect?




-yes


-no

yes

The probability that two random events will occur together is equal to the __________.




-sum of their individual probabilities


-difference between their individual probabilities


-product of their individual probabilities

product of their individual probabilities

If the frequency of marker D8S1179/10 is 1.0099 X 10-1, what would the odds be that a random person was homozygous for this marker?




-1.01 x 10^-1


-1.02 x 10^-2


-1.03 x 10^-2


-1.01 x 10^-3

1.02 x 10^-2

The probability of a match being due to chance diminishes as the number markers used ____________.




-increases


-decreases

increases

How many markers are currently used in the CODIS system in creating a DNA fingerprint?




-14


-15


-12


-13

13

Under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:




-Allelic frequencies change quickly over time.


-Allelic frequencies do not change over time.


-Allelic frequencies change slowly over time.

Allelic frequencies do not change over time.

Under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:




-Genotypic frequencies change quickly over time.


-Genotypic frequencies change slowly over time.


-Genotypic frequencies do not change over time.

Genotypic frequencies do not change over time.

Under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, are recessive phenotypes eventually eliminated?




-yes


-no

no

Under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which frequency of A yields the highest frequency of AA?




-0.5


-0.8


-0.4


-0.6


-0.2

0.8

Under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which frequency of A yields the highest frequency of aa?




-0.5


-0.2


-0.4


-0.8


-0.6

0.2

Under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the maximum attainable frequency for Aa?




-0.25


-0.0


-1.0


-0.75


-0.5

0.5

Under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the frequency of A = 0.9, then the frequency of a =




-0.1


-1.0


-0.9


-none of the above (frequency of a cannot be determined)


-0.0

0.1

Based on the simulation of allele frequencies in an infinite population under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, does the dominance of an allele have any influence on its allele frequency in future generations?




-no


-yes

no

Evolution is defined as a change in allelic frequencies that occurs over time. Knowing this, did you see evolution occur during any of your experiments?




-yes


-no

no

Changes in allelic frequencies due to genetic drift are




-random and unpredictable


-nonrandom and predictable


-uniform from generation to generation

random and unpredictable

Genetic drift affects




-allelic, genotypic, and phenotypic frequencies


-allelic frequencies only


-genotypic frequencies only


-phenotypic frequencies only

allelic, genotypic, and phenotypic frequencies

Which population size exhibited the greatest amount of variation in allele frequency during these simulations?




-1000


-100

100

In which population size did the allelic frequencies change more quickly?




-100


-1000

100

Do all natural populations experience some degree of genetic drift?




-yes


-no

yes

If we continued to run the simulation indefinitely at a population size of 1000, what do you think would be the ultimate fate of the A and a alleles?




-All of the above.


-The A allele could be eliminated due to genetic drift.


-All individuals would have either an AA or aa genotype.


-The a allele could be eliminated due to genetic drift.

All of the above.

Strong selection against the dominant phenotype




-reduces the equilibrium frequency of the dominant genotypes


-completely eliminates the dominant genotypes


-has no effect on the dominant genotypes

completely eliminates the dominant genotypes

Weak selection against the dominant phenotype




-reduces the equilibrium frequency of the dominant genotypes


-completely eliminates the dominant genotypes


-has no effect on the dominant genotypes

completely eliminates the dominant genotypes

Strong selection against the recessive phenotype




-has no effect on the recessive genotype


-reduces the equilibrium frequency of the recessive genotype


-completely eliminates the recessive genotype

completely eliminates the recessive genotype

Natural selection acts on




-alleles


-genotypes


-phenotypes

phenotypes

Natural selection acts at the level of the




-population


-gene


-individual

individual

In this simulation, certain phenotypes were selected against, but all other Hardy-Weinberg conditions held true. Under these conditions, natural selection




-has no effect on the genetic diversity of a population


-increases the genetic diversity of a population


-decreases the genetic diversity of a population

decreases the genetic diversity of a population

Strong selection against the phenotypes for both homozygotes




-has no effect on the homozygous genotypes


-completely eliminates the homozygous genotypes


-reduces the equilibrium frequencies of the homozygous genotypes

reduces the equilibrium frequencies of the homozygous genotypes

Weak selection against the phenotypes for both homozygotes




-completely eliminates the homozygous genotypes


-has no effect on the homozygous genotypes


-reduces the equilibrium frequency of the homozygous genotypes

reduces the equilibrium frequency of the homozygous genotypes

Selection favoring the phenotype for the heterozygote




-produces a stable equilibrium for allelic frequencies


-has no effect on allelic frequencies


-always leads to elimination of at least one allele

produces a stable equilibrium for allelic frequencies

Natural selection favoring the heterozygote




-maintains the genetic variability of a population


-decreases the genetic variability of a population


-increases the genetic variability of a population

maintains the genetic variability of a population

Mutations




-decrease genetic diversity


-increase genetic diversity


-have no effect on genetic diversity

increase genetic diversity

Do mutations require very high rates before they can affect genetic diversity?




-yes


-no

no

Can mutations replace alleles eliminated from a population by genetic drift?




-yes


-no

yes

Are all mutations eventually eliminated by natural selection?




-yes


-no

no

Gene flow




-has no effect on genetic diversity


-increases genetic diversity


-decreases genetic diversity

increases genetic diversity

Gene flow has a greater effect on large populations than on small populations.




-True


-False

False

Gene flow can establish new alleles in a population.




-True


-False

True

In small populations with no other deviations from Hardy-Weinberg conditions, genetic drift eventually results in fixation on a single allele. If Hardy-Weinberg conditions are further changed by the introduction of new alleles by a constant flow of immigrants, will genetic drift necessarily eliminate these new alleles?




-yes


-no

no

Population growth the most rapid when the population size is




-near K


-half-way between zero and K


-near zero

half-way between zero and K

The initial size of a population _____________ affect the carrying capacity of the environment.




-does not


-does

does not

The larger the initial size of a population, the faster it can reach K.




-True


-False

True

Does K affect population growth?




-yes


-no

yes

What happens to population size (N) if there is no constraint on growth?




-The population will grow continuously at an ever-increasing rate.


-The population will decline.


-The population will quickly level out and maintain an equilibrium.


-The population will grow continuously at the same rate.

The population will grow continuously at an ever-increasing rate.

Did increasing K affect the maximum growth rate (dN/dt) a population can exhibit? Hint: you may want to use Plot dN x t to get a more accurate measure of dN/dt and/or look at the data in tabular form.




-yes


-no

yes

Are growth rates constant until K is achieved?




-yes


-no

no

When the size of a population (N) exceeds the carrying capacity (K), population growth is __________________.




-less than zero


-greater than zero

less than zero

dN/dt is a measure of _____________________.




-carrying capacity


-population growth rates


-generation time


-population size

population growth rates

What happens to the population size when the birth rate is much larger than the death rate?




-It grows to K, but very slowly.


-It remains at an equilibrium.


-It grows to K very quickly.


-The population declines.

It grows to K very quickly.

What is the effect of equal rates of birth and death?




-The population grows, but very slowly.


-The population declines.


-The population grows very quickly.


-The population remains constant as long a r remains equal to zero.

The population remains constant as long a r remains equal to zero.

What happens if the death rate exceeds the birth rate?




-The population will decrease and continue to decrease as long as r is negative.


-The population will increase, but very slowly.


-The population will remain the same.


-The population will increase rapidly.

The population will decrease and continue to decrease as long as r is negative.

The human population is currently growing exponentially. Assuming that there is a carrying capacity for humans (Khuman), how would you suggest that the population slow its growth and stabilize at a sustainable number? (Select and defend one or more of the choices listed below.)




-Increasing Khuman through technological advances.


-Increasing death rates through euthanasia.


-Either b or c can be considered correct choices.


-Decreasing birth rates through birth control and family planning.

Either b or c can be considered correct choices.

What do the peaks in the prey population graph signify?




-At the top of the peak, the prey population is increasing.


-At the top of the peak, the prey population is neither increasing nor decreasing (dNprey/dt =0).


-At the top of the peak, the prey population is decreasing.

At the top of the peak, the prey population is neither increasing nor decreasing (dNprey/dt =0).

What causes the peaks in the prey population (i.e., what causes the prey population to stop increasing in size and start decreasing in size)?




-The prey is reproducing at a faster rate than predators.


-Immigration of more predators.


-Disease process occurs that kills off more prey than in previous years.


-The prey is reproducing at the exact same rate that predators are removing prey.

The prey is reproducing at the exact same rate that predators are removing prey.

Does it make a difference which peak of the predator population you choose to examine?




-yes


-no

no

As the predator population continues to increases, the prey population will eventually begin to _________.




-remain unchanged


-decrease


-increase

decrease

Predator and prey populations ___________ over time.




-fluctuate


-remain relatively constant

fluctuate

The size of the predator and prey populations are influenced by each other.




-True


False

True

The size of the predator population is always greater than the size of the prey population.




-True


-False

False

Why are the predator and prey growth curves out of phase?

-Because both predator and prey are responding to changes in the previous generation of the other population.
-All of the above.
-Because neither population can respond instantly to changes in the other population.
-Because reproductive cycles in either population cause a delay in response to the other population.

All of the above.

Increases in the prey growth rate are followed by

-Decreases in the predator growth rate.
-Increases in the predator growth rate.
-The predator growth rate is not affected by the prey growth rate.
-No change in the predator growth rate.

Increases in the predator growth rate.

Increases in the predator growth rate are followed by




-No change in the prey growth rate.


-Decreases in the prey growth rate.


-The prey growth rate is not affected by the predator growth rate.


-Increases in the prey growth rate.

Decreases in the prey growth rate.

Decreases in the prey growth rate are followed by




-No change in the predator growth rate.


-Decreases in the predator growth rate.


-Increases in the predator growth rate.


-The predator growth rate is not affected by the prey growth rate.

Decreases in the predator growth rate.

At what point(s) on the graph does the growth of the predator population = 0?




-at the 2 points where the prey isoclines intersects the ellipse


-at the 2 points where the predator isoclines intersects the ellipse

at the 2 points where the predator isoclines intersects the ellipse

What is the significance of the intersection of the prey isocline and the predator isocline?




-The two isoclines intersect when both populations are decreasing.


-The two isoclines intersect at a point where one is increasing and the other is decreasing.


-The two isoclines intersect at the point of equilibrium where neither population changes size.


-The two isoclines intersect when both populations are increasing.

The two isoclines intersect at the point of equilibrium where neither population changes size.

In the absence of predators, the prey population




-increases rapidly


-decreases rapidly


-increases rapidly


-decreases slowly

increases rapidly

In the absence of predation, is there any limit on prey population size?




-yes


-no

no

What other factors might influence the size of the prey population?




-weather


-disease


-parasites


-available food supply


-all of the above

all of the above

Does increasing the predation rate increase or decrease the variation in the size of the prey population?




-increase


-no difference


-decrease

decrease

Given that the Predator-Prey II model combines aspects of the Population Growth model and the Predator-Prey I model, what is causing the fluctuations and what causes the populations to eventually stabilize at zero population growth?




-Fluctuations are caused by species interactions, while stability is apparently due to the carrying capacity of each species.


-Species interactions are the cause of both fluctuations and stabilization.


-Fluctuations are caused by a population seeking its carrying capacity, while stability is caused by species interactions.


-Carrying capacity is the predominant force in both cases.

Fluctuations are caused by species interactions, while stability is apparently due to the carrying capacity of each species.

When a prey population dramatically decreases, the predator population will subsequently _______________.




-increase


-not change if it is a species with a long generation time


-decrease dramatically as well


-decrease, but very slowly over time

decrease dramatically as well

How does the effect of a sudden drop in predator population compare to the effect of a sudden drop in prey population?




-A sudden drop in the predator population results in a corresponding drop in the prey population, while a sudden drop in the prey population results in a sudden drop in the predator population.


-A sudden drop in predator population results in an increase in prey population, while a sudden drop in the prey population results in a sudden drop in the predator population.


-A sudden drop in the predator population results in a corresponding sudden increase in the prey population, but a sudden drop in the prey population does not affect the predator population.


-A sudden drop in the predator population does not affect prey population numbers, but a sudden drop in the prey population will result in a sudden drop in the predator population.

A sudden drop in predator population results in an increase in prey population, while a sudden drop in the prey population results in a sudden drop in the predator population.

What is the ultimate response of both populations to the sudden loss of either prey or predators?




-The equilibrium point is changed.


-The equilibrium point is not changed and both populations will ultimately return to their stable equilibrium values.


-The equilibrium point is temporarily changed.


-None of the above.

The equilibrium point is not changed and both populations will ultimately return to their stable equilibrium values.

When predators are hungry, the maximum rate of predation is ________________.




-not affected


-achieved slowly


-achieved quickly

achieved quickly

Increasing the predation pressure on a prey population will radically alter the equilibrium sizes of both populations.




-False


-True

False

The deer population in many parts of the northeastern United States is perceived to be out of control. What solutions to this problem would you deem to be the most feasible? (Select and defend one or more of the solutions listed below.)




-There is no absolute correct answer to this question since each choice, although it will impact the deer population, has its pros and cons.


-Lowering the birth rate of the deer by putting out feed laced with birth-control chemicals.


-Increasing human predation by increasing the length of hunting season .


-Increasing the rate of predation by re-introducing natural predators such as bobcats and mountain lions.

There is no absolute correct answer to this question since each choice, although it will impact the deer population, has its pros and cons.

A network of interactions that involves the cycling of materials and the flow of energy between a community and its physical environment is which of the following?




-species


-population


-community


-ecosystem


-biosphere

ecosystem

Wastes would accumulate and most nutrients would stop cycling if the ____ in the ecosystem died.




-bacteria and fungi


-algae


-insects


-flatworms, roundworms, and earthworms


-vertebrates

bacteria and fungi

Primary production is the




-rate of energy flow.


-amount of energy stored in the ecosystem.


-rate of photosynthesis.


-rate at which producers capture and store energy.


-amount of energy utilized.

rate at which producers capture and store energy.

Most of the energy within an ecosystem is lost




-when organisms disperse.


-by organisms at the top of the food web.


-when organisms die.


-by herbivores.


-as a result of metabolism.

as a result of metabolism.

Which is a primary consumer?




-dog


-hawk


-snake


-cow


-fox

cow

Ecological efficiency, the percentage of energy at one trophic level that ends up in tissue in the next level, is about




-15 to 50 percent.


-10 to 40 percent.


-5 to 30 percent.


-1 to 5 percent.


-5 to 25 percent.

5 to 30 percent.

If 5,000 Kcal (kilocalories) of energy are available per square meter of prairie grass per month, we can assume that _____ to ______ Kcal can be passed to the grasshoppers that graze on this patch of prairie grass each month.




-400; 4,000


-350; 3,000


-300; 2,000


-100, 500


-250; 1,500

250; 1,500

In a typical food web, 95% of all species are within _____ of one another.




-two


-five


-four


-six


-three

three

Detritus specifically includes




-organic wastes.


-living bacteria and fungi.


-toxic materials.


-small bits of decaying organic matter.


-both toxic wastes plus small bits of decaying organic matter.

small bits of decaying organic matter.

Decomposers perform their recycling efforts on organisms




-at the top of a trophic pyramid.


-that are producers.


-that are consumers.


-at the end of a food chain.


-all of these.

all of these.