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104 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The damage control organization is divided into what two main parts?
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The damage control organization is divided into the—
a. Administrative organization b. Battle organization |
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What is the purpose of the administrative phase of DC?
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The purpose of the administrative phase of DC is to establish and maintain material readiness conditions.
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Who is responsible to maintain properly trained DCPOs, repair parties, and repair locker personnel?
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The engineer officer.
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Who is the senior person assigned as team leader on DCTT?
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The XO is the senior person assigned as team leader on DCTT.
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What person is responsible for making sure that all battle lanterns, dog wrenches, spanners, and other damage control equipment are in place and in a usable condition within their division?
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The DCPO is responsible for making sure that all battle lanterns, dog wrenches, spanners, and other damage control equipment are in place and in a usable condition within their division.
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Before anyone can enter a poorly ventilated space or void, who must certify the space as safe?
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The gas free engineer (GFE).
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When does the battle phase of damage control start?
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The battle phase of damage control starts when the ship receives actual damage.
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Where is the battle station for the DCA?
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The battle station for the DCA is DCC/CSS.
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During GQ, DCC receives reports and casualty status from—
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DCC receives reports and casualty status from repair parties.
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What is the minimum requirement to be a member of the in-port emergency team?
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The minimum requirement to be a member of the in-port emergency team is to be repair party qualified.
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What are the primary missions of the rescue and assistance team?
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The primary missions of the rescue and assistance team are to assist persons from the water, other units in distress, and other persons or activities in distress ashore.
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What is the ship’s highest state of readiness?
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General quarters is the highest state of readiness.
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The X40J circuit is commonly referred to as what kind of line?
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The X40J circuitry is commonly referred to as the salt and pepper line.
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List the names of the alarms that can override the microphone control of the 1MC.
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The alarms that can override the microphone control of the 1MC are the—
a. Collision b. Chemical attack c. General d. Flight crash |
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When all communications systems fail, how are messages and orders relayed between repair lockers and DCC?
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When all communications systems fail, messengers are used to deliver messages and orders between repair lockers and DCC.
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What is the most important feature of a ship to ensure its survivability?
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Survivability of the ship can be ensured by compartmentation.
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List the three basic material conditions of readiness.
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The three basic material readiness conditions are— XRAY, YOKE, and ZEBRA.
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What material condition provides the least amount of water-tightness?
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Material condition XRAY provides the least amount of water-tightness.
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When is YOKE normally set?
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Normally, YOKE is set at sea and in port during wartime.
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What material condition is set when GQ is sounded?
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Material condition ZEBRA is set when GQ is sounded.
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What fittings are closed to set darken ship?
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DOG ZEBRA fittings are closed to set darken ship.
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To find a list of all DC fittings within a compartment, you should refer to—
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To find a list of all DC fittings within a compartment, you should refer to the compartment check-off list.
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How many minutes of air is the EEBD designed to provide?
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The EEBD is designed to provide 15 minutes of air.
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Why should you stay away from open flames when you first remove an EEBD?
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You should stay away from open flames when you first remove an EEBD because your hair is saturated with oxygen and could catch fire.
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What should you listen for when donning an EEBD?
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When donning an EEBD, you should hear a hissing sound.
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What device is worn by engineering watch standers?
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Engineering watch standers wear a SEED.
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What is the effective time of an OBA?
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The effective time of an OBA is 45 minutes.
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When do you pull the cotter pin on an OBA canister?
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You pull the cotter pin on an OBA after the canister has been inserted in the OBA and locked in place.
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Fire prevention is the responsibility of—
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Fire prevention is the responsibility of all hands.
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List the four components that make up a fire.
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The four components that make up a fire are—heat, fuel, oxygen, and a chemical reaction.
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What process is involved in most cases of spontaneous combustion?
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Most cases of spontaneous combustion involve the process of rapid oxidation.
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List the three methods of heat transfer.
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The three methods of heat transfer are— Conduction, Convection, and Radiation.
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What types of materials comprise a “Class A” fire?
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Wood and wood products, cloth, textiles and fibrous materials, and paper and paper products.
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What is the proper method of extinguishing a “Class A” fire?
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Water in straight or fog pattern. If the fire is deep-seated, aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) is more effective than seawater and can be used as a wetting agent.
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What types of materials comprise a “Class B” fire?
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Flammable liquids, such as gasoline, diesel fuel (F-76), jet fuels, hydraulic fluid, and lube oil. Also, involves flammable gases.
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What is the proper method of extinguishing a “Class B” fire?
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Extinguished with AFFF, Halon 1211, Halon 1301, or potassium bicarbonate (PKP). Never extinguish flammable gases unless there is a good chance that the flow of gas can be secured. Securing the flow of gas is the single most important step in controlling a gas fire.
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What types of materials comprise a “Class C” fire?
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Energized electrical fires.
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What is the proper method of extinguishing a “Class C” fire?
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Use nonconductive agents, such as CO2, Halon 1211, or water spray. Most effective tactic is to de-energize and handle the fire as a class A fire. If fire isn’t deep-seated, clean agents that don’t a cleanup problem are preferred (CO2 or Halon 1211).
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What types of materials comprise a “Class D” fire?
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Combustible metals, such as magnesium and titanium.
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What is the proper method of extinguishing a “Class D” fire?
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Water in quantity, using fog patterns. When water is applied to burning class D materials, explosions may occur. Apply water from a safe distance or from behind shelter.
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What is the most available heat-removing agent for shipboard use?
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Sea water is the most available heat-removing agent for shipboard use.
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AFFF was developed to combat what class of fire?
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AFFF was developed to combat class B fires.
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CO2 is the primary agent to disrupt the fire triangle of what class fire?
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CO2 is the primary agent to disrupt the fire triangle of class C fires.
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What is an effective agent against a class D fire?
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Water fog is an effective agent against a class D fire.
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What is the purpose of the Damage control shoring chest?
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A chest that is divided into compartments for storing materials used for shoring.
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What is the purpose of the P-100 pump?
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The P-100 pump can be used to fight fires or to dewater spaces.
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What is the purpose of the Firefighter ensemble?
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The firefighter ensemble protects personnel from short duration flames, heat, and falling debris.
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What is the purpose of the Anti-flash clothing?
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Anti-flash clothing protects personnel from heat caused by high explosive weapons and from burns caused by fire. There are two items that make up anti-flash clothing—anti-flash gloves and the anti-flash hood.
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What is the purpose of the Fire hose station?
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The fire hose station is where the fireplug and associated equipment is located.
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The damage control organization is divided into how many parts?
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One
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What person coordinates the efforts of repair parties to control damage?
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The operations officer
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What are the duties of the administrative organization of damage control?
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A. Records and schedules for maintenance
B. Written doctrine and procedures relating to damage control C. Ship's bills |
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What are the duties of the executive officer as pertaining to damage control?
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A. Ship's survivability training
B. Readiness to manage casualties C. Control and recover from damage |
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What officer is designated as the ship's damage control officer?
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The engineer officer
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The DCA is the primary assistant to the damage control officer. As such, the DCA has which of the following responsibilities?
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A. Training the ship's DC personnel
B. Administration of the ship's DC organization C. Maintain records of DC personnel PQS accomplishment for all hands |
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What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO)?
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Complete the PQS
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Normally, the job of DCPO is held for what period of time?
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6 months
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What are the responsibilities of the DCPO?
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A. Assist in the instruction of division personnel in damage control
B. Prepare and maintain damage control checkoff lists for their spaces C. Make required reports |
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What person is responsible for determining the safe entry of personnel into closed or poorly ventilated spaces?
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The gas free engineer
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What person is designated to aid the DCA train personnel and to prevent and fight fires?
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The fire marshal
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What action is taken if the fire marshal finds hazards that relate to poor housekeeping during a daily inspection?
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Submit discrepancy report to DCA with copies to XO and department head
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The fire marshal has what responsibilities?
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A. Submitting reports citing hazards and recommendations for their correction
B. Setting up a fire watch team before regular overhauls |
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What is the purpose of the ship's damage control battle organization?
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To restore the ship to as near normal operation as possible
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In the damage control battle organization, what person is responsible for controlling damage; fighting fires; CBR countermeasures; and control of stability, list and trim?
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The DCA
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What are the primary damage control battle organization unit(s)?
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Repair parties
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What is the nerve center of the directing force for directing the damage control organization?
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DCC or CCS
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What repair party is assigned to Main Deck Repair?
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Repair 1
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What repair party is assigned to Propulsion Repair?
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Repair 5
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What repair party is assigned to Ordnance?
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Repair 6
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What repair party is assigned to Electronic casualty control?
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Repair 8
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Each repair party should be capable of performing what functions?
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A. Rigging casualty power
B. Controlling flooding C. Extinguishing all types of fires |
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When in port, the ship has which of the following duty section components available to respond to any type of casualty?
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In port emergency teams Salvage teams
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The rescue and assistance detail must have what qualifications?
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A. Be qualified as an emergency team member
B. Be qualified in first aid |
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TRUE or FALSE. “General quarters” is an all hands evolution -- it is the highest state of readiness of the ship.
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TRUE
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What is the correct route to follow during GQ?
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Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side
Forward in the passageways and up ladders on the starboard side |
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Which of the following is an emergency damage control communications system?
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X40J
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What systems signals override microphone control stations to notify the ships crew of imminent danger?
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Alarms for collision, chemical attack, general and flight crash
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What alarm is sounded by the OOD or PreFly notifying ship's company of a pending or actual flight deck emergency?
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FLIGHT CRASH
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What alarm is sounded when there is a possibility that the ship will be struck by another waterborne unit?
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COLLISION
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When this alarm is sounded, all hands report to their preassigned stations and set material condition ZEBRA.
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CHEMICAL ATTACK
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Which of the following means of communications is used when all other methods have failed?
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Messengers
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All Navy ships have how many material conditions of readiness?
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Three
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What material condition provides the least degree of watertight integrity? (ZEBRA, YOKE, or XRAY)
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XRAY
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What material condition sets the highest degree of watertight integrity? (ZEBRA, YOKE, or XRAY)
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ZEBRA
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Which fittings are closed when condition ZEBRA is set?
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DOG Z fittings, Circle X fittings, Y fittings
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What means is used by repair parties to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment?
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Compartment checkoff lists
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The Damage Control Closure Log is maintained in which locactions?
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DCC and the Quarterdeck
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Which of the following logs is a list of all DC-related fittings that don't work properly?
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Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log
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What fittings are secured when the ship is set for "darken ship"?
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DOG ZEBRA
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The emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) supplies breathable air for what maximum period of time?
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15 minutes
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With training, you should be able to activate the EEBD within what maximum period of time?
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30 seconds
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Which of the following breathing devices should NOT be worn for fire-fighting purposes?
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SEED
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Which of the following is the primary fire fighting tool for respiratory protection?
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OBA
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From the time it is activated, each cylinder used in the self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) will last approximately what length of time?
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45 minutes
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Which of the following substances must be present to start a fire?
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Oxygen, Heat, Fuel
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In the fire tetrahedron, how many components are necessary for combustion?
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Four
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Flammable materials give off vapors. What is the lowest temperature that these vapors burn when a spark is applied?
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Flash point
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What term is used to describe the lowest temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs?
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Ambient temperature
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Heat from fire can be transferred by how many methods?
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Three
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What method of heat transfer occurs when heat moves from one body to another by direct contact?
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Conduction
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What method of heat transfer occurs through the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated gases?
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Convection
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What type of heat transfer occurs when heat moves in all direction unless blocked?
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Radiation
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Which agent(s) should be used to extinguish a Class B fire?
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AFFF and PKP
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Which agent(s) should be used to extinguish a Class A or D fires?
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Water
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