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339 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Two antibiotics that can be given at the same time to produce synergistic effects are: |
Penicillin and Gentamicin |
|
Pharmacokinetics directly relates to: |
absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs |
|
The group of medications that is not absorbed well and is therefore ineffective systemically when given orally are the: |
aminoglycoside antibiotics |
|
A type of insecticide that can become irreversibly bound to the receptor sites of the nervous system and is considered to be a potentially potent toxin is: |
Organophosphate |
|
Drugs that are more soluble and more readily readily absorbed are usually: |
Lipid soluble |
|
When medications that are in the circulatory system are bound to protien, the protein that is involved in the binding is most commonly: |
albumin |
|
Penicillin G, when given orally, is: |
not acid stable |
|
The specialized cell that is present between the capillaries of the brain and the cerebral tissue that is effective in the blood brain barrier is the: |
Glial cell |
|
A drug that is an agonist is one that will __________ the action of a tissue |
Enhance |
|
The term used for the amount of time that it takes for the quantity of drug in the body to be reduced by 50% is: |
Half Life |
|
True or False: Most drugs are well absorbed at extremes of pH. |
FALSE |
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An organ of the body where drug accumulation is likely to occur is the: |
Liver |
|
The receptor is a site on the cell membrane where a drug will _________ and ___________ an effect in the cell. |
attach and produce |
|
Pentothal comes as a powder of 5 gram in a bottle for dilution. How much saline must you add to get a solution of 2.5% |
200 ml |
|
You have 10.0 cc of 10% fenbendazole. You need 2.5% fenbendazole. How much saline will you add to the 10 cc's to get the 2.5% solution. |
30 ml |
|
The concentration of Azium is 2mg/ml. You will give 1.0 mg/lb to a dog the weighing 11 kg. Calculate the amount you will administer. |
12.1 ml |
|
Acepromazine is 10 mg per ml. How many mls will you give if your patient needs 1.0 mg. |
0.1 ml |
|
You are to induce a 112 pound dog with 8 mg/lb of Pentothal, (Pentothal is 2.5%). How many mls do you give this patient. |
35.8 ml |
|
The concentration of Acepromazine is 10mg/ml. How many ml of Ace will be given to the 88 pound dog at a dose of 0.1 mg / kg. |
0.4 ml |
|
The amount of a 50% dextrose solution that is required to make 1.0 liter of 10% Dextrose is: |
200 ml of dextrose is added to 800 ml of saline |
|
The dose of Rompun for the horse is 50mg/100 lbs. The concentration is 10%. How many mls of Rompun is needed for a horse weighing 1900 pounds. |
9.5 ml |
|
A 20% solution of Mannitol will be given to administer 4.5 grams to a dog. How many mls do you give this patient. |
22.5 ml |
|
How much of a 1% solution can be prepared from 6 ml of a 5% solution? |
30.0 ml |
|
4% Pentothal is how many mg per ml |
40 mg/ml |
|
True or False: The law sates that controlled substances must be kept in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet or safe. |
True |
|
The period of time that Veterinarians must retain a controlled substances use log and keep it available for inspection is: |
2 years |
|
The area of the Veterinary Clinic where prescription pads should be stored is: |
Controlled drug cabiniet, under lock and key |
|
The law that requires manufacturers to show a drug is safe for animal use, has therapeutic efficacy, and if used in food animals, must have a method to establish the drug withdrawal period is the: |
New Animal Drug Amendment |
|
All controlled drugs are marked with the letter "C" and inside the open area of the "C" is placed the: |
schedule number |
|
True or False: Generally, no prescription may be refilled for a period in excess of one year from the date of the original dispensing of the prescription. |
True |
|
Information on drug labels for dispensing should contain all of the following EXCEPT: |
name and address of drug manufacurer |
|
OD is the abbreviation for: |
right eye |
|
gtt is the abreviation for: |
drops |
|
The recommended minimum number of inventory turns per year for a typical veterinary practice is: |
4-6 |
|
The primary disadvantage of having a large inventory on hand is: |
expense of tying up working capital in the drugs and supplies |
|
A drug that would be illegal to borrow from another a neighboring veterinary practice would be: |
phenobarbital |
|
True or False: In general, it is not legal to purchase larger quantities of medications made at compounding pharmacies and then to prescribe and dispense smaller amounts later for individual patients. |
True |
|
Of all of the insecticides used in veterinary hospitals, the most frequently associated with human toxicity are |
organophosphates and carbamates |
|
The most common health problem related to the use of disinfectants is: |
skin irritation |
|
In most cases, the most hazardous pharmaceuticals the veterinary technician will handle are: |
cancer chemotherapy drugs |
|
Cyclophosphamide, vincristine and doxorubicin are examples of: |
chemotherapeutic agents |
|
Latex gloves should be worn when handling urine, feces, vomitous and other body fluids from an animal that has received chemotherapeutic drugs because these drugs are considered dangerous for up to: |
48 hours |
|
Chemotherapy agents will generally target: |
rapidly dividing cells |
|
The drug that is noted to be an alpha blocker is: |
acepromazine |
|
The division of the nervous system that alpha, beta-1 and beta-2 receptors are specifically associated with is the: |
sympathetic |
|
The types of drugs that may result in an increase in intra-ocular pressure and are contraindicated in certain types of glaucoma are the: |
anticholinergics |
|
Considering the autonomic nervous system, stimulation of receptors that will result in powerful vasoconstriction are termed: |
alpha |
|
The drug that would be classified as a cholinergic agent due to its stimulating effect on the parasympathetic nervous system is: |
neostigmine |
|
A neurotramsmitter for the sympathetic nervous system is: |
epinephrine |
|
The two classifications of medications that have similar effect on the eye in that they cause dilation of the pupil are the: |
anticholinergics and sympathomimetics |
|
The common signs of organophosphate overdose such as miosis and breathing difficulties are due the organophosphate agent affecting: |
anticholinesterase |
|
Drugs that may be used to treat atropine intoxication and also reverse the effects of some of the neuromuscular blocking agents are: |
neostigmine and physostigmine |
|
A medication that may be used to produce local hemostasis as an aid in controlling capillary bleeding in highly vascular tissue is: |
epinephrine |
|
Alpha receptor stimulation would likely result in: |
splenic contraction |
|
In small animal practice, central nervous system stimulants are likely to be used to produce: |
respiratory stimulantion |
|
The drug that is noted for producing long acting bronchodilating effects is: |
theophylline |
|
The fentanyl patch is a controlled substance that is a Schedule: |
II |
|
A medication that is noted for producing cough suppressing effects is: |
butorphanol |
|
The anticonvulsant drug that is usually available in grains is: |
phenobarbital |
|
The analgesic effect of opioids is due to the: |
interaction with receptors such as kappa and mu in the brain and spinal cord |
|
The NSAID group of medications will produce anti-inflammatory effects by: |
inhibition of prostaglandin systhesis |
|
The medication that has a mechanism of action that inhibits cyclooxygenase II to counteract inflammation while producing minimal, but some, effects on the stomach and kidney is: |
carprofen |
|
An antipyretic medication would have the action of relieving: |
fever |
|
The most likely clinically important side effect of NSAIDs is: |
gastrointestinal ulceration |
|
A major side effect of the use of phenobarbital as an anticonvulsant is dose dependent: |
respiratory depression |
|
A side effect that may be seen with oral phenobarbital administration for treatment of epilepsy is: |
polydipsia |
|
What is the amount of drug given per unit of body weight called |
dosage |
|
What is the amount of drug given at one time |
dose |
|
Which book is a concise and useful information on drugs commonly used in practice |
Plumb's Veterinary Drug Handbook |
|
most medicines will be absorbed by the |
small intestine (duodenum) |
|
______ ______ tablets or capsules have a special coating usually a wax or a polymer that prevents them form being dissolved in the stomach |
enteric coated |
|
solution of a drug dissolved in a sweetened alcohol base |
elixirs |
|
a drug dissolved in an 85% dextrose solution |
syrup |
|
administration by other than the GI tract |
Parenteral |
|
if medications are not irritating they should be given on an empty stomach when stomach acidity is ______ |
low |
|
IM Injections: usually no more than _____ to avoid pain and discomfort to patient. |
- usually no more than 2 ml |
|
IV Injections |
-rapid distribution -good for irritating drugs or concentrated drugs. -watch for phlebitis, emboli, slough |
|
the study of the movement of drugs in the body |
Pharacokinetics |
|
What are the 4 stages of Pharacokinetics? |
absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion |
|
True or False:
|
True |
|
Lipophilic describes drugs that are: |
lipid soluble are more readily absorbed because of the lipid barrier of the cell membranes |
|
Examples of Lipophilic drugs include: |
Enrofloxacin (Baytril) and Prednisone |
|
True or False Water soluble drugs are not well absorbed |
True
|
|
Drugs that are water soluble are called |
hydrophilic |
|
Examples of Hydrophilic drugs |
aminoglycoside antibiotics, such as gentamicin3. |
|
Drugs that are _______ are not electrically charged. These drugs will be absorbed better |
nonionized |
|
Injection into the spinal canal, usually the subarachnoid space |
intrathecal |
|
_________ may allow for an elevated blood sugar by antagonizing the effect of insulin |
cortisone |
|
The acids of the stomach are neutralized by sodium bicarbonate that is produced by the ___________ |
pancreas |
|
The _________ route is often used for skin testing |
intradermal (ID) |
|
The __________ route may be used when other routes are not practical |
intraperitoneal (IP) |
|
Example of drugs that are tightly bound are called irreversible and will act for a long time |
organophosphate insecticides |
|
Drugs that mimic the natural body functions are called __________ |
Agonists |
|
Drugs that inhibit a normal body function are called ____________ |
Antagonist |
|
An agonist drug that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, causes the pupil to dilate and the heart rate to increase |
Epinephrine |
|
An antagonist drug that suppresses the parasympathetic nervous system and prevents the heart rate from slowing down |
Atropine |
|
Numerical value that represents the relationship between the dose that is effective in 50% of the animals tested and the dose that is lethal in 50% of the animals tested |
LD 50 |
|
True or False
As the Theraputic Index increases the margin of safety increases |
True |
|
The FDA requires a minimum Theraputic Index of _____ if the drug is to be commercially available |
4 |
|
Liver, kidney, small intestine are organs of ______ |
metabolism |
|
_______ clears the drug from the blood stream and chemically alters the drugs so they are no longer active |
biotransformation (metabolism) |
|
The process of attachment of molecules to a drug is __________ |
conjugation |
|
True or False In general, cats will be slower at metabolizing medicines than dogs |
True |
|
The liver enzyme system is not fully developed until __________________ |
30 - 60 days of age |
|
When a drug is repeatedly given, it will cause _______________ to be produced that will enhance the elimination of the drug (tolerance) |
enzymes in the liver |
|
Most of the metabolites are eliminated by the ________ |
kidney |
|
True or False The pH of the urine effects excretion |
True |
|
__________ can cause cardiac arrest in parakeets due to arrhythmias |
procaine penicillin - the procaine |
|
________very toxic to Guinea pigs |
penicillin
|
|
Please memorize that a 1% solution will equal 10 mg/ml. |
1% = 10 mg / ml. |
|
For the calculation with a drip set, the formula used is: |
ml ordered / time of delivery X drip set factor = rate of flow in drops per minute |
|
Order is for 250 ml of lactated Ringers over the next 2 hours by drip set with 20 drops (gtt) / ml |
Calculation: 250 ml / 120 min X 20 = 41.7 or 42 drops per minute |
|
How much 50% dextrose is required to make a liter of 10% dextrose. |
200 cc of 50% dextrose added to 800 ml saline |
|
what is the Dose X Weight / Conc called |
Factor Label Method |
|
Which year was the established Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act created |
1938 -it states that a drug has met the standards that are recommended by members of the medicine, pharmacy, dentistry and vet medicine profession-a drug that has met these standards will have USP or NF on the label-it is the basic law governing drugs in the US |
|
Which year was the Durham Humphrey Amendment created |
1951 -it restricts the use of some drugs to have to be prescribed through a licensed practitioner-these are prescription drugs and are considered unsafe for use by the general public |
|
Which year was the New Animal Drug Amendment |
1972 -it requires manufacturers to show that a drug is safe for animals, has therapeutic efficacy and if being used in food animals, it must have methods to establish the drugs withdrawal period-the FDA requires for these drugs to show the manufacturer or distributor, the correct name of the drug and adequate directions on how to use it |
|
______________________________ is a separation of circulating blood and the brainextracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). |
The blood–brain barrier |
|
___________ often occurs in the fat, muscle and liver |
drug accumulation |
|
1000g= ______ kg |
1kg |
|
1gr= _______ g |
65mg |
|
30ml= ____ oz |
1oz |
|
240mls = ____ c |
1 cup |
|
what is the definition of pharmacology |
the study of drugs and their effects on a living organism |
|
what is a drug definition |
a chemical agent acting on living tissue |
|
what is pharmacokinetics |
the study of the metabolism, distribution and excretion of drugs |
|
who is the father of pharmacology |
Paul Ehrlich |
|
who discovered penicillin |
Alexander Flemming |
|
what does it mean by a generic or chemical name |
it is related to the chemical structure of the drug |
|
what does it mean by trade name |
the name that is given by the manufacturer |
|
what does dosage mean |
the amount of drug given per unit of body weight |
|
what does dose mean |
the amount of drug given at one time |
|
what does PDR stand for |
Physicians Desk Reference |
|
what does a package insert do |
it describes the drug and it's activites |
|
what does Rx mean |
it indicates that a drug is only available as a prescription |
|
what are some routes used for administering drugs |
-topical -oral -injectable -inhalation -rectal -intradermal -intraperitoneal (within the body cavity) |
|
how are drugs distributed through the body |
-the circulatory system carries the medication throughout the body -the medication must be absorbed into the blood stream first and then it is carried to the liver |
|
what pH should oral drugs be to be better absorbed and not be destroyed by the acid in the stomach |
drugs that are weak acids (a pH of about 6) are better absorbed than weak basesare most drugs absorbed by the stomach no, most drugs are absorbed in the duodenum |
|
what is the pH of the stomach |
1-3 pH (very acidic) |
|
what is a neutral pH |
7 |
|
what is the pH of the small intestine (the place where drug absorption oocurs) |
pH of 8 |
|
what does parenteral route mean |
-a medication that is not given orally or given other than by the GI tract |
|
what is a target organ |
the organ in which the drug will exert its main effect (but only a small fraction of the drug may react with the target organ) |
|
what drug will block the receptor site for acetylcholine |
atropine |
|
once a drug has reached its target organ, what will it do |
it will react with areas on the target organ called receptors |
|
how do drugs bind to the receptor sites |
by small electric forces |
|
what are drugs called that are tightly bound |
irreversible, they will act for a long time (ex: organophosphate) |
|
what are the drugs effects on the body functions |
it will alter existing body functions, it will not create new body functions |
|
what is an agonist drug |
a drug that mimics the natural body functions |
|
what is an antagonist drug |
a drug that inhibits a normal body function |
|
what is an example of an agonist and antagonist drug |
-epinephrine is an agonist drug that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system (it causes the pupil to dilate) -atropine is an antagonist drug that suppresses the parasympathetic nervous system (it prevents the heart rate from slowing down) |
|
what is the difference between the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous system |
-sympathetic is the "fight or flight" -parasympathetic is the "rest and repair" or "wine and dine" |
|
what is the most common form of administration |
oral |
|
what is an elixir |
a solution of a drug dissolved in a sweetened alcohol base |
|
what are some factors that affect drug distribution |
-plasma binding -bioavailability -blood brain barrier -drug accumulation |
|
what is the difference between brain capillaries and the other body capillaries |
brain capillaries are less permeable (allowing things to pass through) than the other capillaries of the body |
|
what are synergistic drugs |
a combination of drugs in which this combinations effects are greater than either of the drugs if used alone |
|
what are some ways that drugs become inactivated |
-potential changes in the pH of the solution -chemical precipitates may form -contamination of the vials |
|
what are some methods that a drug is metabolized |
-biotransformation (metabolism) -conjugation |
|
what does biotransformation (metabolism) do |
it clears the drug from the blood stream and it will chemically alter the drug so then it is no longer active |
|
what are some organs that are used for metabolism |
the liver, kidney and small intestine |
|
is it safer if the therapeutic index is higher or lower |
-the higher the TI, the safer it is -the lower the TI, the less safe it is |
|
what does the LD50/ED50 stand for |
the lethal dose/ effective dose |
|
what is a drug that has a low therapeutic index |
chemotherapy drugs |
|
what are some ways to identify if a patient is having an adverse reaction |
-establish cause and effect -time relations to use of drug -improvement when drug was removed-being able to reproduce the symptoms when the drug was given again |
|
what are some types of drug reactions seen |
-dry mouth (may be seen with "chewing gum" symptoms) -drowsiness-excitement -vomiting -allergic reaction (urticaria- hives) |
|
what are some types of systems of measures |
-english system (most common used in US- yards, feet, inches) -metric (common used in scientific work- meters, grams) -apothecary (used by pharmacists for some drugs- grains, drams and ounces) |
|
what do drug standards relate to |
the laws regarding the quality, purity and uniformity of drugs |
|
who enforces the drug standards the food and drug administration (FDA) |
-it is a branch of the department of health, education and welfare (HEW) |
|
what act are controlled substances regulated by |
the controlled substance act of 1970 |
|
what type of drugs does the controlled substance act regulate |
addictive and hallucinating drugs |
|
who enforces the controlled substance act the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) |
-practitioners must be registered with the DEA to handle these drugs |
|
how many schedules are there for controlled drugs and what is there range in abuse |
-there are 5 schedules (written in roman numerals) -the schedule 1 drugs have the highest risk of abuse and has no medical purpose -the schedule 5 drugs have the least risk of abuse |
|
what are some examples of a schedule 1 drug |
-not used in any practice but is used in research only-marijuana may be used for anti-glaucoma or anti-nausea-ex: LSD, Heroine, Marijuana (THC), Mescaline |
|
what are some examples of a schedule 2 drug - |
high abuse potential-no more than a 30 day supply may be prescribed-Rx can't be phone in-ex: pentobarbital (euthanasia), Morphine, Hydromorphone, Fentanyl, codeine, PCP |
|
what are some examples of a schedule 3 drug |
less abuse potential-Rx can be phone in-ex: Hycodan, Pentothal, Ketaset, Winstrol V, Buprenex |
|
what are some examples of a schedule 4 drug |
-low abuse potential -Rx can be refilled and phone in -ex: phenobarbital, valium, torbugesic |
|
what are some examples of a schedule 5 drug |
-less abuse potential-ex: Lomotil, paregoric |
|
what is precription writing |
it is a Rx that is order by a licensed vet to a pharmacist to prepare meds (a legal document) |
|
what are some parts of a prescription |
-date written -name & address of client -Rx symbol -Name and amount of drug (amounts are in metric system) -instructions to pharmacist regarding compounding -instructions to the pharmacist regarding use by the patient (how to give it) -signature of practitioner -doctors name, clinic address and phone number -if it can be refilled -if it is a controlled 2, 3 or 4 drug, it must contain "caution, federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient to whom it was prescribed" |
|
what shouldn't be on a prescription |
the DEA number |
|
what does the Florida Statutes state about vets giving out any drugs without a written prescription |
it is grounds for discipline for a vet to fail to give an owner of a patient, before dispensing any drug, a written prescription WHEN REQUESTED |
|
what is an example of a drug that can only be available through compounding pharmacies |
apomophine |
|
what is doxorubicin (Adriamycin) |
-a chemo drug used in treating leukemia and ovarian/stomach cancers -it affects the cellular DNA-toxicity signs: cardiotoxicity and hemorrhagic cystitis |
|
what is cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) |
-a chemo drug used to treat lymphoma and leukemia -it stops the cell growth by attaching to the cellular DNA -toxicity signs: nausea, vomiting, alopecia, hemorrhagic cystitis |
|
what is vincristine |
-a chemo drug used to treat lyphoma and leukemia- it affects all rapidly growing cells by inhibiting mitosis |
|
what is carboplatin |
-a chemo drug used treat lung, head and neck carcinomas -it acts on the DNA of the cancer cells-side effects: bone marrow suppression and nausea/ vomiting |
|
what are the 5-6 rights when administering medication |
-Right patient -Right dose -Right route -Right frequency -Right rate |
|
how are chemotheraphy agents eliminated in a patient |
through their urine, feces, vomit and other body fluids |
|
what is the parasympathetic NS also known as |
the nicotinic and muscarinin |
|
what is the sympathetic NS also known as |
the adrenergic |
|
where does the fibers from the sympathetic NS originate from? |
-sympathetic: thoracic and lumbar part of spinal cord -parasympathetic: sacral spinal nerves and cranial nerves |
|
what is the function of the ANS |
-maintain homeokinesis or steady state -controls the functions which are carried on below the level of consciousness |
|
how do nerve fibers get their name |
based on what type of neurochemical substance that is released by that nerve fiber at the synapse |
|
what is the cholinergic fiber and what does it do |
-it releases acetylcholine from the nerve endings called cholinergic fibers -parasympathetic fibers release acetylcholine |
|
what are adrenergic fibers and what do they do |
-release epinephrine or nor-epinephrine (sympathetic fiber) -they are called adrenergic because it is the adrenal gland that releases epinephrine |
|
what does sympatholytic mean? parasympatholytic? -para= anticholinergic |
-sym= anti adrenergic |
|
what does parasympatholytic mean? |
-para= anticholinergic |
|
what are some neurotransmitters for the parasympathetic NS |
-acetylcholine -muscarine -nicotine |
|
what are some types of receptors of the sympathetic NS |
-alpha -beta 1 -beta 2 |
|
what does the alpha receptor do |
-vasoconstriction of arterioles -myocardial excitement -splenic contraction -iris dilation |
|
what does the beta 1 receptor do |
cardioacceleration |
|
what does the beta 2 receptor do |
-vasodilatation -bronchial relaxation |
|
what is ephinephrine USP - |
adrenergics-naturally found in the body-used for: cardiac arrest, prolonged effects of local anesthetics, local hemostasis (causes vasoconstriction), anaphylactic shock, bronchodilation (asthma) |
|
what are some signs of ephinephrine USP toxicity |
-cardiac arrhythmias (disruption in hearts normal rhythm) -pulmonary edema (buildup of fluid in the air sacs) -dyspnea (difficulty breathing) -sharp rises in BP |
|
what is isoproteronol (Isuprel) |
- a adrenergic -is a beta adrenergic (cardio accelerator) -used as a heart block (elevates the HR) |
|
what is albuterol (ventolin) |
-a adrenergic -it is a beta adrenergic agonist -used as a bronchodilator -cautions: patients with cardiac arrhythmias, epilepsy, hyperthyroidism, and hypertension-side effects; tachycardia, hypertension and agitiation |
|
what is phenylpropanolamine (PPA) or (Proin) |
-a adrenergic-it is an alpha adrenergic stimulant -used for urinary incontinence (urethral sphincter hypotonus) -side effects: anorexia, restlessness, irritability, tachycardia, cardiac arrythmias and hypertension |
|
what are some anti adrenergics |
-acepromazine and other phenothiazine tranquilizers -anti adrenergics are also called sympatholytics |
|
what do anti adrenergics do |
(acepromazine and other phenothiazine tranqs) -not a controlled drug -an alpha blocking agent -protects the heart against epinephrine induced arrhythmias |
|
if acepromazine (an anti adrenergic) was used as a preanesthetic, what are some side effects seen |
-hypothermia -possibly lowering seizure threshold -penile paralysis -prolapse of the third eyelid -hypotension(patients BP should be monitored if under anesthesia and has received Ace) |
|
what are some side effects of propanolol (Inderal) |
-bradycardia -hypotension -bronchoconstriction -collapse |
|
what is Pilocarpine (Isopto-Carpine) |
-a cholinergic-stimulates the receptor site for acetylcholine -used for treatment in glaucome for the miosis (pupil constricting) -it is also used to promote tear secretion |
|
what is metoclopramide (Reglan) |
-a cholinergic -stimulates acetylcholine -it is a gastric motility drug and acts as an anti-emetic (inhibits the CRTZ located in the medulla) -it should not be used in patients with: GI obstructions/ perforation, GI hemorrhage, seizure disorders |
|
what is neostigmine and physostigmine |
-cholinergics that stimulate -used to treat atropine intoxications and can be used as a neuromuscular blocking agent (gallamine) |
|
what does acetylcholinesterase do |
it stops the action of acetylcholine |
|
what are some signs of acetylcholine receptor stimulation |
-salivation -vomiting -diarrhea -urination -miosis -bradycardia -skeletal muscle spasms |
|
what is organophosphate insecticides |
-a cholinergic that indirectly stimulates -it is an IRREVERSIBLE cholinesterase inhibitor -used as a nerve gas in WW2 |
|
what are som types of organophosphates |
-Malathion -Diazanon -Chlopyriphos -Ronnel -Paramite -Proban -ProSpot |
|
what are some toxicity signs of the insecticdes |
-muscle twitching -walking w/ stiff gait-ataxia -vomiting/ diarrhea -seizures-death |
|
what are some treatments for organophosphate and carbamate toxicity |
-atropine -protopam -AVOID USING; morphine and acepromazine |
|
what is the metric used for atropine mg or grains- |
1 grain= 60 mg |
|
what is glycopyrrolate (Robinul- V) |
-a anticholinergic -it has a longer duration than atropine -it wont drive the heart rate up as much as atropine will -it is sometimes used for preanesthetic anticholinergic to prevent the heart rate from dropping to much while under anesthesia |
|
what is Etodolac (EtoGesic) |
-an NSAID-recommended for pain and inflammation managment -it is an antiinflammatory, antipyretic and analgesic-inhibits COX 2 and spares COX 1 |
|
what is Meloxicam (Metacam) |
-an NSAID-similar to carprofen and etodolac -can come as a flavored liquid-inhibits COX 2 and spares COX 1what is ketoprofen (Ketofen) -an NSAID-inhibits COX 2 and COX 1 -has been associated w/ platelet adhesion decrease and increased bleeding times |
|
what is Fericoxib (Previcox) |
-an NSAID that is approved for dogs only -inhibits COX 2 and spares COX1 -used for dogs over 7 pounds -should not be used with other NSAIDS or steriodswhat is Daracoxib (Daramaxx) -an NSAID that is approved for dogs only -used for inflammation due to arthritis and post operative pain-inhibits COX 2 and spares COX 1-side effects: GI irritation, renal insufficiency-avoid taking with other NSAIDS or steriods |
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what is morphine |
-an analgesic -a schedule 2, narcotic drug -a CNS depressant-can cause exittment in horses and cats -metabolized by the liver |
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what is butorphanol (Torbutrol, Torbugesic) |
-an analgesic -derived from opium -schedule 4 druga good cough suppressant and can cause mild sedation |
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what is hydromorphone (Dilaudid) |
-an analgesic-similar to oxymorphone -similar effects as morphine-used as a sedative, analgesic and preanesthetic -more potent than morphine -has fewer GI side effects due to less stimulation of the vagus nerve -side effects: CNS depression, resp. depression, bradycardia |
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what is the Fentanyl Patch |
-an analgesic-used for longer term pain control -allows for a transdermal administration -a synthetic opiod that is 100 times more potent than morphine -provides about 72 hours of pain control-a schedule 2 drug |
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what is hydrocodone (Hycodan) |
-an analgesic-a narcotic antitussive (cough supressant) -good at controlling cough -a schedule 3 drug-side effetcs: sedation, vomiting, constipation and can cause excitement in cats |
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what is tramadol |
-an analgesic -an opioid like drug -useful as a pain control -can be used as a cough suppressant (antitussive) -may cause sedation |
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what is a narcotic reversing agent - |
Nalorphine (Nalline) and Naloxone (Narcan)-nalorphine is best to reverse morphine and naloxone is best to reverse oxymorpone-it acts by displacing the morphine and oxy from the receptor site |
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what does an anticonvulsant do |
stops/ prevents convulsions, seizures and epilepsy |
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what causes convulsions |
an abnormal foci or area of the brain emits rapid bursts of electrical activity leading to seizures |
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what is ictus mean |
relates to seizure activity |
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what are some signs that a patient is about to have a seizure |
-personality changes -dizziness, salivation -sudden bladder or colonic contractions -loss of consciousness -sustained muscle contractions |
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what are some cause of seizures |
-congenital -infection (distemper) -trauma-hypoxia (airway restirction) -metabolic (hypoglycemia) -neoplastic (menigioma) |
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what is phenbarbital |
-derived from pyrimidine -an anti seizure medication -side effects: polyuria, polydipsia, plyphagia and drowsiness |
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what is primidone |
-derived from pyrimidine -converts to phenobarbital in the liver -anti seizure med -side effetcs: can cause elevations of liver enzymes (cause liver damage) |
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what is Diazepam (Valium) |
-a skeletal muscle relaxant -helps stop active seizures |
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what is Pentobarbital |
-treats epilepsy (epilepticus) -longer acting then Valium -depresses the respiratory and CNS -schedule 2 drug |
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what is Potassium Bromide |
-used when patient's not responding to phenobarbital -it hyperpolarize the neuronal membrane and stabilizes them agianst epileptic foci activity -anti conculsantwhat is levetiracetam (Keppra) -antiseizure med-commonly used in cats |
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Antiemetics have the effect of preventing: |
Vomiting |
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A medication that can be used to induce vomiting in the cat is: |
xylazine |
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A medication that is used in the treatment of gastric ulcers and adheres to the damaged mucosa to provide a protective barrier is: |
sucralfate |
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An anti-emetic medication that will also enhance gastric motility and should be avoided if a gastric foriegn body is suspected is: |
metaclopramide |
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A gastrointestinal medication that should not be used concurrently with phenothiazine drugs or narcotics because will increase the possibility of side effects is: |
metaclopramide |
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as a gastrointestinal medication, famotidine is considered |
H2 antagonist |
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Maropitant (Cerenia) acts as an anti-emetic by: |
acting on the vomiting center of the brain |
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Deficiencies in the fat soluble vitamins due to interference of absorption may be seen with the prolonged use of: |
petrolatum-type-cathartics |
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The medication that is used to treat stomach ulcers by enhancing the natural gastromucosal defense mechanisms is: |
misoprostil |
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An emetic that may be administered by the conjunctival sac of the eye is: |
apomorphine |
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Confinement is mandatory after treatment for which of the following parasitisms as severe pulmonary symptoms relating to thromboembolism may result after exertion. |
heartworms |
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As wormers, the benzamidazoles are considered braod spectrum in activity |
TRUE |
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Considering the medications listed below, a benzimidizole worming agent is: |
thiabendazole |
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Which of the following is a topical agent that is used in the prevention of heartworm disease and in the control of fleas, ear mites, sarcoptic mange, canine tick infestation, and feline intestinal hookworm and roundworm infections. |
selamectin |
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These topical insecticides, whose natural compound originates from the extract of a flower, come in a variety of formulations and are known for their quick "knock down" effects. |
pyrethrins |
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Which antiparasitic agent is toxic at higher doses, sometimes producing fatalities, to some collies and members of the collie-mix breeds? |
ivermectin |
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The oral and injectable insect development inhibitor that controls flea populations by breaking the life cycle at the egg stage is: |
lufenuron |
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Which of the following worming agents is the most effective against liver flukes? |
albendazole |
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Heartworm prevention in the dog is a primary indication for the use of: |
milbemycin |
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It is recommended by the manufacturer that imidacloprid not be applied more than once every |
7 days |
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The macrocyclic lactones that are useful in the prevention of heartworm disease are derived from a: |
bacteria |
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The antibiotic that can cause a rare butpotentially fatal blood disease in humans that has resulted in avoidance ofdirect human contact is: |
chloramphenicol |
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The antibiotic agent that should not be administered toyoung animals as it may cause tooth discoloration is: |
tetracycline |
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Whenadministering ___________ capsules orally, follow with water or food to lessenthe possibility of esophageal strictures. |
doxycycline |
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The antibiotic agent that is useful in the treatment ofgiardia infections is: |
metranidazole |
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The antibiotic that may be avoided in Dobermans andRotweilers due to the occurrence of polyarthritis is: |
trimethoprin-sulfa |
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The cephalosporin antibiotic that is not given orally andused IM or IV for more serious infections is: |
cefazolin |
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Thetype of antibiotics that have been associated with kidney damage throughcrystal formation are: |
sulfonamides |
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The antibiotic that has been associated with the developmentof keratoconjunctivits sicca is: |
trimethoprim/sulfa |
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Considering the antibiotics list below, the agent that wouldlikely have the greatest effectiveness against pseudomonas infections is: |
enrofloxacin |
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The antibiotic that has been associated with abnormalcartilage formation during the rapid growth phase of puppies is: |
enrofloxacin |
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All microorganisms are harmful or disease producing (pathogenic. |
FALSE |
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Bacteria are classified as either gram positive or gram negative based on their ability to absorb gentian violet dye into their cell walls |
TRUE |
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The group of antibiotics that is considered bacteristatic is the |
tetracyclines |
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In general, when antibiotics are prescribed, the minimum number of days for duration of treatment is: |
5 days |
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Infections originating in hospitals or clinics are termed: |
nosicomial |
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Low or sub-therapeutic doses of antibiotics is likely to lead to: |
resistance of bacteria to the antibiotic |
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An antibiotic that is potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic is: |
gentamicin |
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The form of penicillin that is the longest acting is: |
benzathine penicillin |
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The mechanism of action relating to bacteria that makes penicillins effective antibiotics is: |
blocking the bacterial cell wall synthesis |
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The form of penicillin that is the most resistant to hydrolysis by stomach acid making this form of penicillin the most readily absorbed when given orally is: |
amoxicillin |
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A clinical use of diethylstilbesterol therapy in the dog is: |
urinary incontinence |
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The area of the body that produces thyroid stimulating hormone is the |
anterior pituitary gland |
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a controlled substance is |
Winstrol V |
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The type of medication that can be used in cattle to regulate the heat cycle to allow breeding times and subsequent calving times to be planned is: |
Prostaglandins |
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The medication that is noted for having a protein anabolic effect is: |
stanazolol |
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When treating canine patients for hypothyroidism, the medication is likely to be administered ________ each day. |
2 times a day |
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The type of insulin that is administered IV in emergency situations such as ketoacidosis is: |
regular insulin |
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Bone marrow suppression is a possible side effect that may be seen if a patient is given large doses of: |
diethylstibesterol (DES) |
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Hyperthyroidism occurs most commonly in the: |
cat |
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In cases of accidental overdose of NPH Insulin, the medication indicated is: |
50% dextrose |
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Cyclosporin is best categorized as a/an: |
immunosuppressant |
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A cell that is associated with the release of histamine is the |
mast cell |
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A hormone that is indicated for use in the treatment of dystocia is: |
oxytocin |
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diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of |
antidiuretic hormone |
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Oxytocin is a hormone that can cause: |
milk let-down |
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Cushing's Disease is related to: |
an excess of cortisone |
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A glucocorticoid that is produced in a form that is not water soluble to have the effect of greatly increasing the duration of action is: |
triamcinolone acetonide (vetalog) |
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Cortrysin is most closely related to: |
adrenal cortical stimulating hormone |
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When prednisone or prednisolone tablets are used for the long term treatment of allergy conditions, the typical frequency of use is: |
every other day |
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The area of the body that produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)is the: |
anterior pituitary gland |
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The effects on the blood cells that would be noted after the use of cortisone in a canine patient is: |
eosinopenia |
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As a medication, diphenhydramine is classified as a/an: |
antihistamine |
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A common side effect seen in patients receiving enalapril (Enacard) is |
hypotension |
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A group of cardiac medications that has heart block as a potential side effect is: |
cardiac clycosides |
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A medication that is used in the emergency treatment of ventricular tachycardia is: |
lidocaine |
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A medication that is a hypersomotic diuretic is: |
mannitol |
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When Lasix is used as a diuretic, an electrolyte that should be monitored for depletion is: |
potassium |
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A calcium channel blocker that has found usefulness in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is: |
diltiazem |
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In the clinical setting, a conductance disorder of the heart is referred to as a(n): |
cardiac arrhythmia |
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A drug used in horses and large dogs to treat supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias is: |
quinidine |
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When canine patients are medicated with diuretics, a side effect may be the increased elimination of: |
potassium |
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It is important to be cautious of giving IV injection of vitamins a a bolus as this increases the risk of: |
anaphylactic reactions |
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In small animal practice, central nervous system stimulants are likely to be used to produce: |
respiratory stimulantion |
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The drug that is noted for producing long acting bronchodilating effects is: |
theophylline |
|
The fentanyl patch is a controlled substance that is a Schedule: |
II |
|
A medication that is noted for producing cough suppressing effects is: |
butorphanol |
|
The anticonvulsant drug that is usually available in grains is: |
phenobarbital |
|
The analgesic effect of opioids is due to the: |
interaction with receptors such as kappa and mu in the brain and spinal cord |
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The NSAID group of medications will produce anti-inflammatory effects by: |
inhibition of prostaglandin systhesis |
|
The medication that has a mechanism of action that inhibits cyclooxygenase II to counteract inflammation while producing minimal, but some, effects on the stomach and kidney is: |
carprofen |
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An antipyretic medication would have the action of relieving: |
fever |
|
The most likely clinically important side effect of NSAIDs is: |
gastrointestinal ulceration |
|
A major side effect of the use of phenobarbital as an anticonvulsant is dose dependent: |
respiratory depression |
|
A side effect that may be seen with oral phenobarbital administration for treatment of epilepsy is: |
polydipsia |
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The drug that is noted to be an alpha blocker is |
acepromazine |
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The division of the nervous system that alpha, beta-1 and beta-2 receptors are specifically associated with is the: |
sympathetic |
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The types of drugs that may result in an increase in intra-ocular pressure and are contraindicated in certain types of glaucoma are the: |
anticholinergics |
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Considering the autonomic nervous system, stimulation of receptors that will result in powerful vasoconstriction are termed: |
alpha |
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The drug that would be classified as a cholinergic agent due to its stimulating effect on the parasympathetic nervous system is: |
neostigmine |
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A neurotramsmitter for the sympathetic nervous system is: |
epinephrine |
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The two classifications of medications that have similar effect on the eye in that they cause dilation of the pupil are the: |
anticholinergics and sympathomimetics |
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The common signs of organophosphate overdose such as miosis and breathing difficulties are due the organophosphate agent affecting: |
anticholinesterase |
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All of the following are anticholinergic drugs EXCEPT: |
dexamethasaone |
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A medication that may be used to produce local hemostasis as an aid in controlling capillary bleeding in highly vascular tissue is: |
epinephrine |
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Alpha receptor stimulation would likely result in: |
splenic contraction |