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99 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A patient is being evaluated for undergoing a breast reconstruction procedure and indicates she still smokes. Which of the following procedures would the surgical assistant recommend? A. TRAM single flap B. Free gluteal flap C. Latissimus dorsi myocutaneous flap D. Free TRAM flap |
Free TRAM flap |
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A common autologous donor site for a free flap graft for replacing the jaw bone is the: A. Fibula B. Tibia C. Iliac D. Rib |
Fibula |
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When possible during a plastic surgery procedure, incisions should be placed: A. Over weight-bearing surfaces B. Parrallel to the long axis of the underlying muscle C. Perpendicular to the long axis of the underlying muscle D. Opposite of Langer's lines |
Perpendicular to the long axis of the underlying muscle |
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Sutures from the ear may be removed after: A. 10-14 days B. 14-18 days C. 18-22 days D. 22- 26 days |
10-14 days |
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Reasons for skin graft failure include: A. Hematoma B. Inosculation C. Graft mobility D. Imbibition |
Hematoma |
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Cleft lip repair is usually recommended at: A. 3 months B. 5 months C. 7 months D. 9 months |
3 months |
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Which of the following congenital anomalies limits the skull's volume and increases the intracranial pressure? A. Hemifacial microsomia B. Craniosynostosis C. Torticollis D. Midface Hypoplasia |
Craniosynostosis |
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Which of the following statements is correct concerning the handling of renal calculi? A. Placed in formalin as a preservative B. Analyzed for culture and sensitivity C. Always sent for frozen section D. Kept dry to avoid interference with chemical analysis
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Kept dry to avoid interference with chemical analysis |
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Which of the following types of fistulas refers to leakage of urine into the vagina? A. Utererovaginal B. Cystocele C. Vesicovaginal D. Rectovaginal |
Vesicovaginal |
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When performing a radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, which of the following is an alternative patient position that a surgeon may prefer? A. Lateral kidney B. Low lithotomy C. Semi-Fowler's D. Trendelenburg |
Low lithotomy |
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A staghorn stone is one that lodges and continues to grow in the: A. Renal calyx B. Space of Retzius C. Ureter D. Renal Hilum |
Renal calyx |
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Which of the following solutions is used during a diagnostic cystoscopy? A. Distilled water B. Glycine C. Mannitol D. Sorbitol |
Distilled water |
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Which of the following is not considered a permanent urinary diversion? A. Ileal conduit B. Ureterocystostomy C. Cutaneous ureterostomy D. Nephrostomy |
Nephrostomy |
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A radical lymphadenectomy is preformed to treat cancer of the: A. Kidney B. Stomach C. Prostate D. Testicles |
Testicles |
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A transplanted kidney is placed into the: A. Retroperitoneal space B. Flank area C. Superior bladder area D. Iliac fossa |
Iliac fossa |
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The bladder is supported by the rectovesical fascia called: A. Monroe B. Cline C. Winslow D. Denonvilliers |
Denonvilliers |
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Which of the following is the surgical treatment of vesicoureteral reflux? A. Placement of a stent B. Segmental cystectomy C. Cutaneous ureterostomy D. Ureteral reimplantation |
Ureteral reimplantation |
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What is the fornix in the kidney organ? A. Edge of the minor calyces B. Refers to the hilum of the organ C. Inner layer of the renal capsule D. Apex of the renal pyramid |
Edge of the minor calyces |
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Which of the following is not a complication of a transurethral prostatectomy? A. Extravasation of irrigation fluid B. Bladder perforation C. Urethral injury D. Rectal injury |
Rectal injury |
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The fascia surrounding the kidney is called: A. Scarpa's B. Rectus C. Gerota's D. Nephron |
Gerota's |
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The donor left kidney is preferred in order to procure additional length of the: A. Artery B. Vein C. Ureter D. Nephron |
Vein |
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Which of the following affect renal vascular resistance? A. Mannitol B. Glucose C. Dexamethasone sodium phosphate D. Thiadiazine |
Mannitol |
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A patient who had undergone a right-side herniorraphy presents 2-5 days postoperatively with swollan and tender testis. Which of the following complications is most likely occurring? A. Hernia recurrence B. Ilionguinal nerve injury C. Ischemic orchitis D. Vad deferens injury |
Ischemic orchitis |
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The kidney lift should be situated directly below which of the following when positioning a patient for a nephrectomy? A. Twelfth rib B. Iliac crest C. Lesser trochanter D. Scapula |
Iliac crest |
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Which vein, in addition to the gonadal and lumbar, should be clamped and ligated when performing a left kidney procurement? A. Adrenal B. Splenic C. Gastric D. Pancreatic |
Adrenal |
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Which of the following nerves can be injured during a lateral lower leg fasciotomy? A. Superficial peroneal B. Sciatic C. Tibial D. Pancreatic |
Superficial peroneal |
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The most reliable tendon graft for primary reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament is: A. Palmaris B. Achilles C. Patellar D. Plantaris |
Patellar |
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The type of fracture that is caused by impaction of one bone upon another is: A. Compression B. Segmental C. Spiral D. Oblique |
Compression |
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Which of the following can be a cause of locking of the knee joint? A. Tibial fracture B. Osteochondral defects C. Osteosarcoma D. Osteomalacia |
Osteochondral defects |
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Which of the following types of fractures is at the greatest risk for infection? A. Greenstick fracture B. Open fracture C. Stress fracture D. Closed fracture |
Open fracture |
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The trauma patient with a cervical spine injury at or near C3 to C5 is at great risk for: A. Respiratory difficulties B. Facial palsy C. Hearing loss D. Loss of vision |
Respiratory difficulties |
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Which of the following nerves is affected by carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Hypoglassal B. Radial C. Ulnar D. Median |
Median |
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An injury to the long thoracic nerve could cause: A. Clawhand B. Numb area on radial side on dorsum of hand C. Chronic lower back pain D. Winged scapula |
Winged scapula |
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An injury to the ulnar nerve could cause: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Paralysis C. Claw hand D. Wrist drop |
Claw hand |
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During a triple arthrodesis, the capsule of the talonavicular, calcaneocuboid and subtalar joints are circumferentially incised to: A. Allow complete removal of the bones B. Allow placement of the silastic implant C. Gain as much ankle joint mobility as possible D. Prevent valgus deformity |
Gain as much ankle joint mobility as possible |
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Which muscle is an important anatomical landmark in fractures of the forearm? A. Flexor pollicis longus muscle B. Flexor digitorum C. Pronator teres D. Supinator brevis |
Pronator teres |
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Which of the following fractures is caused by falling on the back of the hand with the wrist flexed, also called a reverse colles' fracture? A. Smith's B. Barton C. Torus D. Pott's |
Smith's |
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Which of the following carpal bones is fractured most frequently? A. Lunate B. Trapezoid C. Navicular D. Scaphoid |
Scaphoid |
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Which of the following metacarpals is most commonly fractured when associated with a "boxer's fracture?" A. Fifth B. Fourth C. Third D. Second |
Fifth |
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Which of the following disorders is characterized by compression of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendon near the radial styloid process? A. Carpal tunnel B. De Quervain's C. Dupuytren's D. Trigger finger |
De Quervain's |
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The most frequent site of cartilage tears in the knee joint is the: A. Collateral ligamentB. Cruciate ligamentC. Lateral meniscusD. Medial meniscus A. Collateral ligament B. Cruciate ligament C. Lateral meniscus D. Medial meniscus |
Medial meniscus |
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Which of the following statement concerning the Bankart procedure is correct? A. Anterior capsule is reattached to rim of the glenoid B. Glenoid is reattached to the cuff C. Lateral advancement of the subscapularis is accomplished D. Coracoid process is detached and inserted onto the neck of the glenoid cavity |
Anterior capsule is reattached to rim of the glenoid |
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Which fracture is most commonly associated with a fat embolism? A. Femur B. Pelvic C. Ulna D. Radius |
Femur |
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Which nerve is at risk for injury in a humerus shaft fracture? A. Ulnar B. Radial C. Median D. Brachial |
Radial |
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What is a Monteggia fracture? A. Distal radius plus ulna B. Spiral fracture of the femoral shaft C. Fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with radial dislocation D. Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus |
Fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with radial dislocation |
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Which of the following nerves is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Radial B. Median C. Ulnar D. Interosseous |
Median |
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Under which structure is the nerve trapped in carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Scaphoid carpal bone B. Ulna ligament C. Transverse carpal ligament D. Radius |
Transverse carpal ligament |
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Which of the following movements of the upper extremity would be most painful if tendinitis of the supraspinatus muscle is present? A. Abduction of the shoulder B. Internal rotation of the humerus C. Adduction of the shoulder D. External rotation of the humerus |
Abduction of the shoulder |
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The border of the acetabular fossa of the hip joint that is deficient forming a C-shaped fossa that creates a gap is a bridged by the: A. Inguinal ligament B. Transverse ligament C. Labrum ligament D. Pelvic ligament |
Transverse ligament |
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Which of the following is a fibrocartilage structure of the acetabular fossa that encloses the head of the femur? A. Labrum B. Joint C. Fossa D. Ligament |
Labrum |
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Following an injury to the lower limb, your patient's knee is elevated. His leg can easily be displaced anteriorly on a fixed thigh. This would indicate a torn: A. Posterior cruciate ligament B. Tibial (medial) collateral ligament C. Fibular (lateral) collateral ligament D. Anterior cruciate ligament |
Anterior cruciate ligament |
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Which of the following nerves is at risk for injury when a humeral shaft fracture occurs? A. Median nerve B. Radial nerve C. Ulnar nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve |
Radial nerve |
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Which of the following is not a carpal bone? A. Scaphoid bone B. Hamate bone C. Cuboid bone D. Triquetrum |
Cuboid bone |
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Which of the following is the best indicator of possible failure of a below-the-knee amputation to heal? A. Patient complains of numbness in the amputated leg B. Absence of a popliteal artery pulse when palpated C. Chronic hypotension D. Cardiac dysrhythmias |
Absence of a popliteal artery pulse when palpated |
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A laceration or avulsion of the extensor tendon at the proximal phalanx or proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint is called a: A. Mallet finger B. Drop finger C. Boutonniere deformity D. Swan-neck deformity |
Boutonniere deformity |
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The distal tibia articulates with which of the following structures? A. Femur B. Cuboid C. Talus D. Humerus |
Talus |
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The narrow rim of fibrocartilage around the edge of the glenoid cavity is: A. Articular capsule B. Bursae sac C. Glenohumeral ligament D. Glenoid labrum |
Glenoid labrum |
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The superior margin of the hip bone is called the: A. Mons pubis B. Pubic tubercle C. Iliac crest D. Greater tubercle |
Iliac crest |
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The patellar ligament is attached proximately to the patella and distally to which structure? A. Tibialis anterior B. Tibial tuberosity C. Medial malleolus D. Vastus medialis |
Tibial tuberosity |
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Which tendon is located under the clavicle and is the site of most rotator cuff repairs? A. Infraspinatus B. Supraspinatus C. Teres minor D. Subscapularis |
Supraspinatus |
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Which knee ligament prevents the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and is the usual site for knee ligament reconstruction? A. LCL B. MCL C. ACL D. PCL |
ACL |
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Which of the following nerves is most frequently injured due to a shoulder dislocation? A. Axillary B. Long thoracic C. Thoracodorsal D. Suprascapular |
Axillary |
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Which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques is used to aid in diagnosing a rotator cuff tear? A. MRI B. Plain radiographic C. Myelography D. CT |
MRI |
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Which of the following is a complication of internal K-wire fixation of a Colles' fracture? A. Bone Union B. Osteogenesis C. Nerve damage D. Osteoblast formation |
Nerve damage |
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Which of the following structures may be used for replacement of the ligament during an ACL repaired? A. Lateral collateral ligament B. Medial collateral ligament C. Quadriceps tendon D. Patellar tendon |
Patellar tendon |
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When performing a cannulated screw fixation for nondisplaced femoral neck fractures, compression of the: A. Posterior screws is completed first B. Guided pins is completed first C. Anterior screws is completed first D. K-wires is completed first |
Anterior screws is completed first |
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Which of the following lymph nodes must be removed and histologically examined when performing a segmental pulmonary resection for lung cancer? A. Cervical B. Tracheobronchial C. Lobar D. Preaortic |
Lobar |
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In severe aortic stenosis, all of the following are indications for valve replacement except: A. Palpitation B. Congestive heart failure C. Angina D. Syncope |
Palpitation |
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What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis? A. Congenital B. Trauma C. Rheumatic fever D. Bacterial endocarditis |
Rheumatic fever |
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The wound classification of a thoracotomy is: A. Clean wound B. Clean contaminated wound C. Contaminated D. Dirty or infected wound |
Clean contaminated wound |
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Plication of the inferior vena cava or insertion of an umbrella-type filter is performed to treat: A. Pulmonary embolus B. Right ventricular failure C. Femoral artery embolus D. Left atrial flutter |
Pulmonary embolus |
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The most common congenital defect of the heart is a: A. Ventricular septal defect B. Coronary artery disease C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Patent ductus arteriosus |
Ventricular septal defect |
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A needle biopsy of the lung may be accomplished with a: A. Franklin-Silverman B. Dorsey C. Tru-cut D. Chiba |
Chiba |
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Which one of the following statements about the heart is incorrect? A. Aortic valve sounds can be heard over the right second intercostal space B. Most cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus C. Blood passes through the bicuspid (mitral) valve when it flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle D. The fossa oval is the site of the former, embryonic shunt from the right atrium to the left atrium |
Blood passes through the bicuspid (mitral) valve when it flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle |
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Cardioplegia induces cardiac: A. Dysrhythmia B. Output C. Arrhythmia D. Arrest |
Arrest |
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When the myocardium weekends and enlarges, losing the ability to pump blood into the systemic circulation, the resulting condition is called: A. Pericarditis B. Congestive pulmonary disease C. Heart failure D. Angina pectoralis |
Heart failure |
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Insufficient blood flow to the heart muscle may lead to: A. Ventricular septal defect B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Transit ischemia attack D. Myocardial infarction |
Myocardial infarction |
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Which vessels are typically utilized for a coronary artery bypass? A. Pulmonary vein and external mammary vein B. Portal vein and hepatic artery C. Saphenous vein and internal mammary artery D. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein |
Saphenous vein and internal mammary artery |
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When performing a high ligation and stripping of the greater saphenous vein, which of the following arteries is located at the saphenofemoral junction and should be kept from injury? A. Superficial external pudendal B. Posteromedial C. Popliteal D. Lateral femoral |
Superficial external pudendal |
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In which procedure would a Fogarty catheter be utilized? A. Thoracoscopy B. Endarterectomy C. Vein stripping D. Embolectomy |
Embolectomy |
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What is the purpose for the surgical creation of an arteriovenous fistula? A. Hemodialysis B. Insertion of a Greenfield filter C. Peritoneal dialysis D. Placement of a Javid shunt |
Hemodialysis |
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When performing an Open AAA, which artery or arteries across clamped prior to cross clamping the aorta? A. Splenic B. Inferior mesenteric C. Renal D. Iliac |
Iliac |
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Which of the following cranial nerves is at risk for injury during a carotid endarterectomy? A. Olfactory B. Trochlear C. Abducens D. Hypoglossal |
Hypoglossal |
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During a vascular procedure, monitoring activated clotting time intraoperatively provides useful data for judging the need for reversal or addition of: A. Digitoxin B. Papaverine C. Heparin D. Vasopressin |
Heparin |
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Deep vein thrombosis occurs most commonly in the: A. Right iliac vein B. Lumbar vein C. Femoral vein D. Left iliac vein |
Left iliac vein |
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Which of the following may be requested during emergency femoral embolectomy? A. Arteriograms B. Protamine sulfate C. Use of thrombolytic Agents D. Doppler angiography |
Arteriograms |
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Which of the following is applied topically to arteries for prevention of vasoconstriction? A. Papaverine B. Epinephrine C. Pitocin D. Heparin |
Papaverine |
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During a carotid endarterectomy, which of the following arteries is initially incised? A. Common carotid B. Internal carotid C. Subclavian D. Occipital |
Common carotid |
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Which of the following is not a layer of an artery? A. Tunica Media B. Tunica intima C. Tunica adventitia D. Tunica muscularis |
Tunica muscularis |
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Meningiomas are benign tumors that originate in the: A. Midbrain B. Dura C. Pituitary gland D. Spinal cord |
Dura |
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A potential complication that can occur when the patient is undergoing and occipital craniotomy while in Fowler's position is: A. Hypotension B. Air embolism C. Arterial ischemia D. Corneal abrasion |
Hypotension |
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Incomplete closure of paired vertebral arches that can be treated surgically is known as: A. Spina bifida B. Pectus excavatum C. Spastic palsy D. Encephalocele |
Spina bifida |
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Which of the following could occur when a posterior fossa craniotomy is performed with a patient in sitting position? A. Collapse of the femoral vein B. Pressure sores on the patient's back C. Fibrinolysis D. Venous air embolism |
Venous air embolism |
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Which of the following arteries could be injured if the screw for the anterior cervical discectomy are placed laterally rather than straight or at a medial angle? A. Subclavian B. Internal thoracic C. Ascending cervical D. Vertebral |
Vertebral |
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To prevent the plates, screws and rods from breaking when forming a spinal fusion, bone graft is needed to fuse to: A. Bone B. Tendon C. Ligaments D. Muscle |
Bone |
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Which of the following hemostatic agents is most frequently used during a spinal fusion? A. Gelfoam B. Thrombin C. Heparin D. Vancomycin |
Thrombin |
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The center structure of the intervertebral disc, which may herniate into the spinal nerve, is the: A. Annulus fibrous B. Nucleus pulposus C. Spinous process D. Superior demifacet |
Nucleus pulposus |
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A ventriculoperitoneal shunt is used to: A. Treat hydrocephalus B. Treat esophageal varices C. Access vessels for dialysis D. Provide access site for total peritoneal nutrition |
Treat hydrocephalus |
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Which of the following is usually caused by an injury to the middle meningeal artery? A. Epidural hematoma B. Intracerebral hematoma C. Subdural hematoma D. Cerebral aneurysm |
Epidural hematoma |
