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313 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Respiratory process:

moving air into and out of the lungs
Pulmonary ventilation
Respiratory process:

gas exchange between the lungs and blood
External respiration
Respiratory process:

transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and tissues
Transport
Respiratory process:

gas exchange between systemic blood vessels and tissues
Internal respiration
Pulmonary Blood Flow:

- From aorta, 2% of cardiac output
- Bronchial veins drain into pulmonary veins
- Do not take part in gas exchange "physiological shunt"
Bronchial arteries
Pulmonary Blood Flow:

- Bring deoxygenated blood from right ventricle
Pulmonary arteries
Functions as HME
Nose
Provides 100% humidification and warming of inspired air
nose
Filtration level of nasal hairs
Up to 6 micrometer particles
What can occur while inserting nasal tubes
bleeding due to increased vascularity
common effect of tracheostomy insertion
lung crusting and infection
Lung has _______ right lobes, ________ left lobes
3 right
2 left
negative pressure in the lungs pleural space
-5 cm H2O
If air introduced into pleural space, what occurs
negative pressure in lung removed, lung collapses (pneumothorax)
Disease that destroys elasticity of lung tissues
Emphysema
Causes decreased inward recoil, leading to barrel shaped chest
Emphysema
Alveolar capillary flow is from the ___________ end to the _____________ end
venous to arterial end
Excess PEEP can cause what to capillary flow?
Causes a choke point which can block capillary flow preventing External respiration. (no gas exchange)
Approx. distance between RBC and aveoli
0.3 - 0.7 = ~ 0.6 micrometers
What produces surfactant?
Type 2 alveolar cell
Total surface area of alveoli
~ 70 m^2
Six components of membrane
- alveolar fluid lining (contain surfactant)
- alveolar epithelium
- epithelial basement membrane
- interstitial space
- capillary basement membrane
- capillary endothelial membrane
Reduction of what indicates disrupted alveolar capillary surface?
Diffusion Capacity of lung for Carbonmonoxide (DLCO)
True / False:

DLCO is abnormal in emphysema and interstitial fibrosis with destruction of lung parenchyma
True
If breathing 500 cc
________ stays in conducting zone
________ reaches respiratory zone (alveolar sacs)
150 stays in conductive zone
350 reaches respiratory zone (alveoliar sacs)
Gas that stays in the conducting zone during respiration is called
Waste (in dead space)
Respiratory Tree:

Consists of nose, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and terminal bronchioles. Cartilage is present only in the trachea and bronchi. Brings air in and out. Warms, humidifies, filter air. Anatomic dead space. Walls of conducting airways contain smooth muscle
Conductive Zone
Respiratory Tree:

Consists of respiratory bronchioles, alveolar duct, and alveoli (300 millions in each lung). Participate in gas exchange
Respiratory Zone
Warming and moistening the air is also known as
Airconditioning
~ number of alveoli in each lung
300 million (total of 600 million in both)
Name for cilia lining trachea
Pseudo stratified columnar cilia
mucous secreting cells in trachea that have sacs
Goblet cell
Combined action of cilia and goblet cells in trachea
Mucociliary clearance
Called "house keepers" of respiratory epithelium
Cilia
What causes cough when smoker quits smoking
Cilia "waking up"
Why more foreign bodies to right lung?
Right bronchiole wider and more in-line with trachea
Often missed diagnosis when patient presents with wheezing
foreign body aspiration (asthma usually assumed)
Describe sequence of events during Inspiration (6)
1) Inspiratory muscles contract (diaphragm descends; rib cage rises)
2) Thoracic cavity volume increases
3) Lungs are stretched; intrapulmonary volume increases
4) Intrapulmonary pressure drops (to -1 cm H2O)
5) Air (gases) flows into lungs down its pressure gradient until intrapulmonary pressure is 0 (equal to atmospheric pressure)
Describe sequence of events during Expiration (5)
1) Inspiratory muscles relax (diaphragm rises; rib cage descends due to recoil of costal costal cartilages)
2) Thoracic cavity volume decreases
3) Elastic lungs recoil passively; intrapulmonary volume decreases
4) Intrapulmonary pressure rises (to +1 cm H2O)
5) Air (gases) flows out of lungs down its pressure gradient until intrapulmonary pressure is 0
Inspiratory Muscle
- Most important muscle for inspiration
- Acts like a piston; when it contracts, the abdominal contents are pushed downward, the rib are lifted upward and outward, increasing the volume of thoracic cavity
Diaphragm
What nerve innervates the diaphragm
Phrenic nerve
At what area does the phrenic nerve arise?
C3, C4, C5

* C3,4,5 keeps the diaphragm alive
Where can pain from the diaphragm be referred to?
Shoulder
Which muscles are not used for inspiration during normal quiet breathing?
External intercostals
scalene
sternomastoids
Inspiration is an ____________________ process
active process
Expiration is normally a _________________ process
Passive process
What are the expiratory muscles? (4)
- rectus abdominis
- internal / external oblique
- transversus abdominis
- internal intercostal
Structure perforating the diaphragm

At T8
IVC
Structure perforating the diaphragm

At T10
esophagus, vagus
Structure perforating the diaphragm

At T12
aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein
most important muscle of inspiration
diaphragm
Diaphragm accounts for ~ _______% of TV during normal quiet respiration
75%
Factors that ___________ Dead Space

a. Pulmonary vascular diseases
b. Pulmonary Embolism
c. COPD
d. ARDS
e. Pulmonary fibrosis
f. Shock
g. Old age
h. Positive pressure ventilation
Increase Dead Space
Factors that ____________ Dead Space

a. Artificial airways (due to narrow diameter)
Decrease Dead Space
Formula for Dead Space:
Vd = Vt x PaCO2 - PeCO2 / PaCO2

Vd = physiological dead space
Vt = Tidal Volume
PaCO2 = PCO2 of arterial blood
PECO2 = PCO2 of expired air
The volume of conducting airways where no gas exchange occur
Anatomical dead space (normally 150, 2 ml/kg)
volume of air that enters non-perfused or poorly perfused alveoli. Normally = zero
Alveolar dead space
volume of lung that does not participate in gas exchange
Physiological dead space
Is approximately equal to the anatomical dead space in normal lung
Physiological dead space
May be greater than the anatomical dead space in lung disease, in which there are V/Q inequalities (shunting or alveolar collapse)
Physiological Dead Space
Sum of all exhaled gas volume in 1 minute
Minute ventilation
equation for minute ventilation
MV = TV x RR = 5 L/min
Volume of inspired gases actually taking part in gas exchange in 1 minute
Alveolar ventilation
________ indicates alveolar ventilation
PCO2
Equation for alveolar ventilation
alveolar ventilation = (tidal volume-dead space) x breaths/min
Pleural pressure is negative in pleural space because lung recoils ______________ and chest wall recoils ____________
lungs recoil inward
chest wall recoils outward
At FRC the inward and outward forces are
equal
Alveolar pressure is normally ______
0 cm H2O
Alveolar pressure ________ in inspiration and
________ in expiration
decreases in inspiration
increases in expiration
Transpulmonary Pressure =
alveolar P - Pleural P
First breath of neonates generates transpulmonary pressure of _______ to _______ cm H2O
40 - 80 cm H2O
Resting Pleural Pressure:
-5 cm H2O
Inspiration Pleural Pressure:
-8 cm H2O
Resting Alveolar Pressure:
0 cm H2O
Inspiration Alveolar Pressure:
-1 cm H2O
Expiration Alveolar Pressure:
+1 cm H2O
What is used to measure pleural pressure?
Balloon catheter in the esophagus
Lung volume is the _________
FRC
What happens to the pressure gradient between the atmospheric and alveoli during inspiration?
Air flows into the lungs until the pressure gradient dissipates
During inspiration pleural pressure becomes _______________
more negative than at rest

(-5 to -8 cm H2O)
At peak of inspiration, lung volume is FRC plus one _____
FRC plus one TV
Alveolar pressure becomes __________ during normal (passive) expiration
more positive during expiration

compressed by elastic forces of the lung. Pressure gradient reversed
During normal (passive) expiration, intrapleural pressure _________
returns to its resting value
During forced expiration, intrapleural pressure ___________
intrapleural pressure becomes positive
This positive intrapleural pressure during forced expiration makes expiration _______________
more difficult because it compresses the airways
Why are COPD patients instructed to breath with "pursed lips"?
Airway resistance is increased in COPD, breathing slowly through pursed lips to expire slowly prevents airway collapse that may occur with forced expiration
During expiration lung volume ___________
lung volume returns to FRC
As elasticity increases, compliance ________________
decreases
As Elasticity decreases, compliance ________________
increases
The lung has the most compliance _____________
The lung has the most compliance _____________
at the middle region after inspiration already started
The lung has the lowest compliance _________________
The lung has the lowest compliance _________________
At the beginning and end of inspiration
Shows "distensibility" of lungs and chest wall
Lung compliance
True or False:

Compliance is opposite to stiffness
True
Lung compliance is the slope of the _____ _____ curve
Pressure - Volume Curve
Change in volume of lung for each unit change in pressure (transpulmonary pressure)
Compliance

(ex: 200 mL/cm H2O)
True or False:

Compliance of lung-chest wall system is less than that of the lungs alone or chest wall alone ( the slop is flatter)
True
At FRC the collapsing force of the lungs and expanding force are ___________________
equal and opposite (equilibrium)
Steel has very high _________________
elasticity
In patient with ________________ lung compliance increased and the tendency of the lung to collapse is decreased
Emphysema
In patient with ___________________ the tendency of lungs to collapse is less than the tendency of the chest wall to expand
emphysema
In patient with ________________ the lung-chest wall system seeks a new, higher FRC so that the two opposing forces can be balanced
emphysema (results in barrel-shaped chest)
In patient with ________________ lung compliance is decreased and the tendency of lungs to collapse is increased
fibrosis
In patient with __________________ the tendency of the lungs to collapse is greater than the tendency of the chest wall to expand
fibrosis
Causes of _______________ Lung Compliance

High expanding pressures
Increased Pulmonary venous pressure
Fibrosis (deposition of collagen)
Lack of surfactant
Decreased Lung Compliance
Causes of ________________ Lung Compliance

Emphysema (destruction of elastic fibers)
Old Age
Increased Lung Compliance
Equation for alveoli pressure relating to radius and surface tension
P = 2T/r (Laplace's Law)
____________________ results from the attractive forces between molecules of liquid lining the alveoli
Surface Tension of alveoli
In absence of ______________ small alveoli have tendency to collapse
surfactant
Surfactant is secreted by ____________________
Type 2 alveolar cells
Surfactant is composed of _________________ (3)
- phospholipid
- proteins
- Ca++
Disrupts intermolecular forces between the molecules of liquid-act like "detergent"
Surfactant
Reduction in surface tension by surfactant does what to compliance
increases compliance
Lecithin / Sphingomyelin (L/S) ration of what in amniotic fluid indicates fetal lung maturation?
L/S ratio > 2:1
Surfactant synthesis starts at _________ wks gestation
24 wk gestation
Occurs in premature infants because of lack of surfactant. The infant shows atelectasis (lung collapse), difficulty reinflatting the lungs( as a result of decreased compliance) and hypoxemia because of  V/Q
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome
Treatment for Neonatal resp. distress syndrome?
maternal steroid before birth (speeds up surfactant formation in babies, also artificial surfactant to infants by inhalation)
causes granular "ground glass" appearance of lung parenchyma, correlating to moderate to severe retractions and oxygen dependence in premature infants
resp. distress syndrome RDS
Airflow equation
Q = delta P / R

Q = airflow
deltaP = pressure gradient
R = airway resistance
Resistance to flow equation
R = 8nl / pie r^4
Law describing the sum of the partial pressures of all gases in a mixture equals the total barometric pressure
Dalton's Law
reflects the amount of oxygen gas dissolved in the blood. It primarily measures the effectiveness of the lungs in pulling oxygen into the blood stream from the atmosphere.
Partial Pressure of Oxygen
Following conditions associated with:
- increased oxygen levels in inhaled air
- Polycythemia
Elevated PO2 levels
Following conditions associated with:
- Decreased oxygen levels in the inhaled air
- Anemia
- Heart decompensation
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
- Restrictive pulmonary disease
- Hypoventilation
Decreased PO2 levels
Number of iron-containing heme groups per hemoglobin?
4
Iron form which binds O2
ferrous (Fe++)
Normal adult hemoglobin structure
alpha2beta2
Following relate to what?
- Is the maximum amount of O2 that can be bound to Hb in blood at 100% saturation
- Is depend on Hb conc. in blood
- Limits the amount of O2 that can be carried in blood
O2 binding capacity of blood
Following relate to what:
- Is the total amount of O2 in blood, including bound and dissolved O2
- Depends on the Hb concentration, PO2 and P50 of Hb
O2 content of blood
Equation for oxygen content
O2 content = (O2 binding capacity x %Sat.) + Dissolved O2

%Sat = % of heme groups bound to O2
Dissolved O2 = unbound O2 in blood
Normally 1g Hb can bind _________ ml O2
1.34 ml O2

normal Hb = 15g/dL
Cyanosis results when deoxygenated Hb > _________ g/dL
5 g/dL
O2 binding capacity = _________ ml O2/dL
20.1 ml O2/dL
True or False:
O2 content of arterial blood decreases as Hb falls, but O2 saturation and arterial PO2 do not
True
Oxygen delivery to tissue =
O2 delivery to tissue = cardiac output x O2 content of blood
Nitrites, benzocaine, metabolites of prilocaine can cause ________________
methemoglobinemia
Methemoglobin does not bind to O2 as readily, but has Increased affinity for ________
Increased affinity for CN-
Treatment for methemoglobinemia
IV methylene blue, converts ferric (Fe+++) to ferrous (Fe++) form
2 For Us
Ferrous (Fe++) is the good iron form
Following are causes of:
- Nitroprusside (releases CN ions)
- Bitter almond oil
- KCN
- Wild cherry syrup
Cyanide Poisoning
S/S of _____________:
- Tachycardia
- Hypotension
- Coma
- Acidosis
- Venous O2, rapid death
Cyanide Poisoning
Treatment for cyanide poisoning
sodium nitrite and amyl nitrites to oxidize Hb to metHb (inducing methemoglobinemia) which binds to cyanide, allowing cytochrome oxidase enzyme to go free and function
_______________ binds to cyanide, forming thiocyanate, which is excreted by kidneys
thiosulfate
Oxygen carried in blood in two forms
1. Bound to Hb _______% in RBCs
2. Dissolve form ________% in plasma
97% in RBC
3% in plasma
Which form of O2 produces the partial pressure in blood?
Dissolved form in plasma
Hb combines rapidly and 'reversibly' to form with O2 to form ____________________
oxyhemoglobin
________________ is the driving force for the chemical reaction
Hb + O2 <-> HbO2
O2 tension

(increased PO2 increases affinity of Hb for O2)
At PO2 of 40 mmHg, Hb is ______% saturated
75%
At PO2 of 25 mmHg, Hb is ______% saturated
50%
P50 is what
PO2 at 50% saturation
term describing change in affinity of Hb as each successive O2 molecule binds to a heme site
positive cooperativity
When the oxygen hemoglobin curve is LEFT shifted, the affinity of Hb is _______________
higher
When the oxygen hemoglobin curve is RIGHT shifted, the affinity of Hb is ________________
lower
Below PO2 of _________ free fall of saturation
60 mmHg
Conditions that shift curve to right (decrease affinity)
C
A
D
E
T
Increased:

C O2
A cidity
D PG - diphophoglycerate product of glycolysis
E xercise
T emperature
Shift the curve to right, decreases the affinity of Hb for O2 and facilitating the unloading of O2 in the tissues
Bohr Effect

Ex: During exercise, the tissues produce more CO2, which decreases tissue pH (H+) and, through the Bohr effect, stimulates O2 delivery to the exercising muscle.
Fetal hemoglobin HbF, shifts curve to the __________
left
affinity for Hb for CO is _______ x than O2
250x
Binding of CO to Hb _____________ the affinity of remaining sites for O2,
increases affinity -> causing shift of the curve to the left, decreases unloading in tissues (brain)
CO poisoning with have a ______________ PO2
normal PO2, no cyanosis
S/S of __________________:
- headache
- vertigo
- dyspnea
- confusion
- dilated pupil
- convulsion and coma
CO poisoning
Treatment for CO poisoning
100% O2 (will bump off CO from Hb)
major form of CO2 carried to lungs
HCO3-
2 small forms of CO2 carried to lungs
carbaminohemoglobin (Hb CO2)
Dissolved CO2
In RBC CO2 combines with H2O to form ___________
H2CO3
HCO3- leaves RBC in exchange for _______ and transported to lungs in the plasma
Cl- (chloride shift)
Effect describing:
Blood carries more CO2 when PO2 decreases
Blood carries less CO2 when PO2 increases
Haldane Effect
Interact with the medullary respiratory centers to smooth the respiratory pattern
Pontine respiratory centers
Contains rhythm generators whose output drives respiration
Ventral respiratory group (VRG)
Integrates peripheral sensory input and modifies rhythms generated by the VRG
Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
Higher brain centers, voluntary control over breathing
Cerebral cortex
Respiratory centers
medulla and pons
breathing receptors of pain and emotional stimuli acting through the ___________________
hypothalamus
True or False:

H+ ions in blood are able to stimulate Brain Respiratory chemoreceptor
FALSE

H+ in blood are not able to cross blood/brain barrier.
CO2 must cross barrier to form H+ in CSF
Normal healthy adult breaths via what stimulation
PCO2 drive
Sensory information is coordinated in ________________ to send signals to respiratory muscles
Brain Stem

(PCO2, lung stretch, irritants muscle spindles ,tendons and joints)
Located in the reticular formation
Medullary Respiratory Center
Called the "pacemaker" of medullary respiratory center
Dorsal Respiratory Group
Component of medullary respiratory center:
- inspiratory control
- receive inputs via vagus and glossopharyngeal nerve
- output to diaphragm via phrenic nerve
Dorsal Respiratory Group
Component of medullary respiratory center:
- expiratory control
- efferent via internal intercostal nerve
- work only during exercise, when expiration becomes an active process.
Ventral Respiratory Group
DiVe
Dorsal (inspiratory)
Ventral (expiratory)
Control of Breathing:
Located in pons
Stimulates inspiration , producing deep and prolonged inspiratory gasp (apneusis)
Apneustic Center
Control of Breathing:
- Located in upper pons
- Inhibits respiration, and therefore, inspiratory volume and respiratory rate. Adjust rate and depth of respiration
Pneumotaxic Center
Control of Breathing:
- voluntary breathing; hypoventilation or hyperventilation
Cerebral cortex
Chemoreceptor control:
- Sensitive to pH of CSF decreases
- Not sensitive to increase in H+ in blood
Central Chemoreceptors in Medulla
True or False:

Acidosis and alkalosis does not effect central chemoreceptors
True
Chemoreceptor control:
- Sensitive to decreased PO2
- Sensitive to increased PCO2
- Sensitive to decreased pH (increased H+ concentration)
Peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies
Receptors responsible for hypoxic drive to respiration
Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies
Control of Breathing:
- Afferent via vagus nerves
- when these receptors are stimulated by distention of the lungs, they produce a reflex in breathing frequency
Stretch receptors
(HERING-BREUER REFLEX)

(located on bronchial walls)
Control of Breathing:
- Engorgement of pulmonary capillaries in LVH, stimulates these receptors, which then cause rapid, shallow breathing dyspnea
J (juxtacapillary) receptors
Stimuli that increase breathing for which receptor:
decreased pH
increased PCO2
Central Chemoreceptor (medulla)
Stimuli that increase breathing for which receptor:
decreased PO2 (<60 mmHg)
increased PCO2
decreased pH
Peripheral Chemoreceptor (carotid and aortic bodies)
Abnormal Respiratory Pattern:
- Hypersensitivity of resp center to CO2
- Period of waxing and waning of tidal volumes separated by periods of apnea
- Drug overdose, CHF, hypoxia
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration
The association of sleep apnea with extreme obesity is referred to as _______________________
Pickwickian Syndrome
(Obesity-hypoventilation syndrome)
Clinical signs of what condition?
- Partial airway obstruction causes snoring
- Hypoxia-- decreased PO2
- Rarely hypercapnia
- Polycythemia
- Poor sleep at night
- Daytime sleepiness
Pickwickian Syndrome
Treatment of Pickwickian Syndrome
Oropharyngeal appliances
Positive pressure nasal mask
Surgery
Area of the lung:

Lowest Blood flow
Apex
Area of the lung:

Lower ventilation
Apex
Area of the lung:

Higher V/Q
Apex
Area of the lung:

Highest regional arterial PO2
Apex
Area of the lung:

Lower regional arterial PCO2
Apex
Area of the lung:

Highest Blood Flow
Base
Area of the lung:

Higher Ventilation
Base
Area of the lung:

Lower V/Q
Base
Area of the lung:

Lowest regional arterial PO2
Base
Area of the lung:

Higher regional arterial PCO2
Base
V/Q = ?

airway obstruction (shunt).
V/Q = 0
V/Q = ?

blood flow obstruction
infinity
In an airway obstruction (shunt), does 100% oxygen improve PO2?
No
In a blood flow obstruction, does 100% oxygen improve PO2?
Yes (assuming <100% dead space)
If the frequency , TV and CO are normal , the V/Q is approximately ___________
0.8
(Normal V = 4L/min and normal Q=5L/min)
(apex > 1.0, base < 0.8)
Outward Forces Causing Fluid movement:
Capillary pressure ________ mmHg
Interstitial osmotic pressure __________ mmHg
Negative interstitial pressure __________ mmHg
Capillary pressure 7 mmHg
Interstitial osmotic pressure 14 mmHg
Negative interstitial fluid pressure 8 mmHg
Inward Forces Causing Fluid movement:
Plasma protein osmotic pressure ________ mmHg
Plasma protein osmotic pressure 28 mmHg
Mean Filtration Pressure _________ mmHg
1 mmHg
pO2 of:

Dry Inspired Air
160
pO2 of:

Humidified Tracheal Air
150
(addition of H2O decreases PO2)
pO2 of:

Alveolar Air
100
(O2 has diffused from alveolar air into pulmonary capillary blood, decreasing the PO2 of alveolar air)
pO2 of:

Arterial Blood
100*
(Blood has equilibrated with alveolar air, is "arterialized")
pO2 of:

Venous Blood
40
(O2 has diffused from arterial blood into tissue, decreasing the PO2 of venous blood)
PCO2 of:

Dry inspired air
0
PCO2 of:

Humidified Tracheal Air
0
PCO2 of:

Alveolar Air
40
(CO2 has been added from pulmonary blood into alveolar air)
PCO2 of:

Arterial Blood
40
(Blood has equilibrated with alveolar air)
PCO2 of:

Venous Blood
46
(CO2 has diffused from the tissue into venous blood, increasing the PCO2 of venous blood)
Lack of normal surfactant, as occurs in infants with respiratory distress syndrome, results in:
A. Increase lung compliance
B. Stabilization of alveolar volume
C. Increases retractive forces of the lungs
D. Decrease filtration forces in the pulmonary capillaries
C, increases retractive forces of the lungs
During inspiration, as the diaphragm contracts, the pressure in the interpleural space becomes
A. Equal to zero
B. More positive
C. More negative
D. Equal to pressure in alveoli
E. Equal to pressure in atmosphere
C, more negative
The volume/amount of gas in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration is referred as
A. Residual Volume
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Functional residual capacity
D. Inspiratory reserve volume
E. Total lung capacity
C, Functional Residual Capacity
The vital capacity is the sum of the
A. RV, TV,ERV
B. RV,TV,IRV
C. ERV,IRV,TV
D. RV,ERV,IRV
C, ERV, IRV, TV
Intravenous lactic acid increases ventilation. The receptor responsible for this effect are located in the_________
A. Medulla Oblongata
B. Carotid bodies
C. Aortic baroreceptor
D. Lung parenchyma
B. Carotid Bodies
Primary stimulus for carotid bodies is
A. H+
B. Low concentration of O2
C. High concentration of CO2
D. HCO3-
B. Low concentration of O2
Indications for ___________________
- apnea, inadequate ventilation
- severe hypoxemia despite O2 supplementation
- airway protection - in coma
Mechanical Ventilation
Precautions with what?
- pt with PO2 <= 55mmHg
- Hypoxic drive suppression
- oxygen toxicity
- parenchymal damage
Supplemental O2
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

O2 consumption
increased
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

CO2 production
increased
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

Ventilation rate
increased
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

Arterial PO2 and PCO2
no change, B2 effect
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

Arterial pH
No change in moderate, ex decreased in strenuous
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

Venous PCO2
increased
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

Pulmonary blood flow
increased
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

V/Q ratio
more evenly distributed
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

Blood flow to skeletal muscle
Increased, B2 effect, vasodilation
Respiratory Responses to Exercise:

HR, SV, CO
Increased B1 effect
Adaptation to High Altitude:

Alveolar PO2
Decreased
Adaptation to High Altitude:

Arterial PO2
Decreased
Adaptation to High Altitude:

Ventilation rate
Increased
Adaptation to High Altitude:

Arterial pH
Increased (kidney resolves initial low pH)
Adaptation to High Altitude:

Hb concentration
Increased
Adaptation to High Altitude:

2,3 DPG
Increased (catabolic effect to right shift)
Adaptation to High Altitude:

Hb-O2 curve
Shift to right, decreased affinity, increased P50
Adaptation to High Altitude:

Pulmonary vascular resistance
Increased (Hypoxic Vasoconstriction)
During Forced Exhalation, the intrapleural space pressure increases from -8 to _________
+30
True or False:
Forced exhalation collapses airway and increases resistance
True
Following are released by what during asthma episode:
- Heparin
- Histamine
- SRSA (slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis)
- ECF (eiosinophilic chemotaxic factor)
- Bradykinin
Mast cells
Exposure to antigen -> formation of ______
IgE
40@40 = emergency
hyperventilation with high or even normal PCO2 is respiratory emergency
Reversible airway obstruction by contraction of smooth muscle of bronchioles
Asthma
Seen by airway wall thickening from inflammatory cell infiltration, airway edema, increased mucus secretion, subepithelial fibrosis and increased smooth muscle mass
Also may be loss in linkage between the airway wall and the surrounding tethering elements of the alveoli
Airway remodeling
Symptoms of asthma:
- wheezing
- cough
- dyspnea
- chest discomfort
Destruction of alveolar walls and abnormal enlargement of air spaces distal to terminal bronchiole
Chronic Pulmonary Emphysema
Causes of _________________:
- SMOKING
- chronic infection
- chronic obstruction
- decrease diffusion capacity -> CO2 retention
- V/Q mismatch -> hypoxia and hypercapnia
- Pulmonary hypertension -> RHF "cor pulmonale"
Chronic Pulmonary Emphysema
With COPD, lung-hyperinflation and Cor Pulmonale, heart may be what shape?
teardrop-shaped
Pathogenesis of What:
Upon long-term exposure to cigarette smoke, inflammatory cells are recruited to the lung; they release proteinases in excess of inhibitors, and if repair is abnormal, this leads to airspace destruction and enlargement or emphysema.
Emphysema
___________________:
have mild hypoxemia and because they maintain alveolar ventilation, normocapnia (normal PCO2)
"Pink Puffers" (primarily emphysema)
__________________:
have severe hypoxemia with cyanosis and because they do not maintain alveolar ventilation, hypercapnia ( PCO2). The have right ventricular failure (right heart has to work harder against scarred lung) and systemic edema
"Blue Bloaters" (primarily bronchitis)
Term for fibrotic lung condition:
- Rales
- cough
- infiltration and fatal fibrosis
Bleomycin Lung
________________________
MCC:
- pneumococci (G+ Diplococci in pairs)
Pneumonia
Filling of alveoli with fluid and cellular debris
Consolidation
_______________________:
- droplet infection
- obligate aerobes
- commonly in lung apex
Tuberculosis
______________________:
- Due to an inactivating mutation in the BMPR2 gene (normally functions to inhibit vascular smooth muscle proliferation)
- Poor prognosis
Primary Pulmonary Hypertension
________________________:
- Due to COPD (destruction of lung parenchyma)
- Mitral stenosis ( resistance   pressure)
- Recurrent thromboemboli ( cross-sectional area of pulmonary vascular bed)
- Autoimmune disease (e.g. systemic sclerosis ; inflammation  intimal fibrosis  medial hypertrophy )
- Left-to-right shunt ( shear stress  endothelial injury )
- Sleep apnea or living at high altitude (hypoxic vasoconstriction)
Secondary Pulmonary Hypertension
Progression of ____________________:
Severe respiratory distress  cyanosis and RVH  DEATH from decompensated cor pulmonale
Secondary Pulmonary Hypertension
5 Causes of Hypoxia?
1. Decreased CO
2. Hypoxemia (decreased PaO2 -> decreased %Sat)
3. Anemia
4. CO poisoning
5. Cyanide poisoning
Causes of ___________________:
- Salicylate toxicity
- Sepsis
- Excess mech. ventilation
- hyperventilation (blowing off too much CO2)
Respiratory Alkalosis
Symptoms of ____________________:
- Lightheadedness
- Circumoral numbness
- Paresthesias
- Tetanus (ionized calcium --alkalosis--> bound form)
Respiratory Alkalosis
Most PE's originate from _________
DVT in leg
Non-thrombotic pulmonary emboli (3)
- Septic-> endocarditis in IV drug abusers, infected catheters
- Fat (long bone fractures)
- Amniotic fluid (during child birth)
Pathological consequence of _____________________:
- increased pulmonary vascular resistance
- increased pulmonary artery pressure
- increased RV afterload
PE
S/S of ______________________:
- Dyspnea
- Pleuritic chest pain
- SOB
- Signs of RV overload (loud P2, RV heave)
- Look for signs of DVT
- Homan
- warmth, swelling
- 50% have no symptoms
PE
ABG with __________________:
- Resp. alkalosis
- Decreased PCO2 - pt hyperventilating
- Hypoxemia
- Increased O2 A-a gradient
PE
Found with ________________:
- Pulmonary artery end diastolic pressure > pulmonary artery occlusive pressure
PE
Gold standard for _________________:

Pulmonary angiography
PE
PE Anticoagulation: (3)
1. Heparin (PTT) 1.5-2.5 x normal = 30 sec
2. Warfarin, coumadin (PT) (12 sec)
3. Thrombolytic therapy - streptokinase, tPA (high risk, only with life threatening PE)
Asthma pathway
Exposure -> formation of IgE -> IgE attaches to mast cells -> re-exposure to the antigen -> Mast cells release
- Heparin
- Histamine
- ECF
- SRSA
- Bradykinin