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441 Cards in this Set
- Front
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Carbohydrate
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organic compound containing C, H, and O. represented by the formula CnH2nOn.
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Monosaccharide
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simplest sugar. ex) glucose and fructore (both are C6H12O6). Glucose comes in alpha and beta, which differ by reversal of H and OH in the first carbon. fructose is a common sugar found in fruits
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Disaccharide
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when two monosaccharides are brough together by dehydration synthesis. ex) maltose
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Glycosidic Bond
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bond that joins two sugars via an oxygen atom. Two types: alpha and beta. Beta is above the plane of the ring and alpha is below.
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Dehydration Synthesis
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aka condensation. Reaction in which two monosaccharides are brought together releasing a water molecule (from the H of one + the OH of another one).
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Hydrolysis
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Reaction that breaks up a disaccharide into two monosaccharides. Adds a water molecule to do so (thus the prefix "hydro-")
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Starch
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polysaccharide in plants, made up of alpha glucose. Stored in plastids.
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Cellulose
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major part of plant cell walls, made up of beta-glucose.
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Glycogen
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storage form of glucose in animals and humans which is analogous to the starch in plants. Glycogen is synthesized and stored mainly in the liver and the muscles.
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Polymer
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molecule with repeating subunits of the same general type.
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Alkyl Group
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--CnH(2n+1)
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Carboxyl Group
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--COOH
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Aldehyde
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--CHO
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Keto
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aka Carbonyl. --CO
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Sulfhydryl
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(thiol). --SH
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Phenyl
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--C6H5
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Peptide Bond
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bond between two amino acids. formed when the carboxyl group of one reacts with the amino group of another.
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Four types of lipids?
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Fats, oils, phosopholipids, and steroids
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What does the typical fat consist of?
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three fatty acids + one molecule of glycerol
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Ester bond
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linkage between glycerol and fatty acids (in fat)
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Saturated fat
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one in which each fatty acid has a single covalent bond between each pair of carbon atoms
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Unsaturated fat
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One in which adjacent carbons (on some fatty acids)are joined by double bonds
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Polyunsaturated
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fatty acid with many double bonds within
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Phospholipids structure?
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Contain two fatty acid "tails" (hydrophobic)and one negatively charged phosphate "head" (hydrophilic).
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Amphipathic
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molecule with both a hydrophilic and a hydrophobic reion (such as a phospholipid)
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Structure of steroids? Examples of steroids?
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four linked carbon rings. includes cholesterol, Vitamin D, and a variety of hormones.
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Miller and Urey
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simulated the conditions of primitive earth in a laboratory
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Oparin and Haldane
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proposed that the primitive atmosphere contained the following gases: methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water
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Heterotroph hypothesis
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belief that the earliest life forms were most likely heterotrophs
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Rough ER
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the part of the ER that is studded with ribosomes. Proteins are made here and "earmarked" for export out of the cell
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smooth ER
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portion of the ER without ribosomes. Makes lipids, hormones, and steroids. Also breaks down toxic chemicals.
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Golgi Bodies
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modify, process, and sort the products from the ribosomes on the rough ER (proteins)
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Centrioles
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small, paired cylindrical structures found within microtubule organizing centers. Active during cell division; produce microtubules to pull the chromosomes apart. Present only in animal cells!!
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peroxisomes
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organelles that detox various substances, producing hydrogen peroxide as a byproduct. Also contain enzymes that break down H2O2 into oxygen adn water. In animals, they are common in the liver and kidney cells
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What are the most important fibers of the cytoskeleton?
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Microtubules and microfilaments
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Microtubules
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made up of protein tubulin, participate in cell divison and movement. Integral part of centrioles, cilia, and flagella
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Which organism is known for its flagellum?
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Euglena
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Which organism is known for its cilia?
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Paramecium
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Microfilaments
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important for movement; thin rodlike structures compoased of the protein actin. Involved in cell motility and muscle contraction.
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Osmosis
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a specialized type of diffusion taht involves the movement of a liquid (suc as water)
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Sodium Potassium Pump
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example of active transport. Ushers out sodium and brings in potassium across the cell membrane. Depends on ATP. In vertebrates, they're found in neurons and skeletal muscle fibers.
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Facilitated Diffusion
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that which relies on channel proteins embedded in the plasma membrane to transport lipid-insoluble substances to get in and out.
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3 types of endocytosis?
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Pinocytosis, phagocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis
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Pinocytosis
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when the cell ingests liquids ("cell-drinking")
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Phagocytosis
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when the cell takes in solids ("cell-eating")
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Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis
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involves cell surface receptors covered in clathrin-coated pits (protein); when a particle binds to one of these receptors, it is brought into the cell by invagination of the cell membrane.
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Bulk Flow
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one-way movement of fluids brought about pressure; ex) mov't of blood through a blood vessel or of frluids in xylem and phloem in plants
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Dialysis
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diffusion of solutes across a selectively permeable membrane; ex) cellophane bag used to separate small from large molecules
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3 types of intercellular junctions in animal cells?
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Desmosomes, gap junctions, and tight junctions
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Desmosomes
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hold adjacent animal cells tightly to each other; consist of pair of discs (from plasma membrane of each adjacent cell) + intercellular protein filaments
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Gap Junctions
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protein complexes that form channels in membrans and allow communication between the cytoplasm of adjacent animal cells or transfer of sm. molecules and ions
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Tight Junctions
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tight connections between membranes of adjacent cells; seal off body cavities and prevent leaks
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Endergonic Reactions
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products have more energy than reactants; products gain energy in the form of heat; ex) when plants use CO2 and Water to form sugar
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Exergonic Reactions
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those in which products have less energy than the reactants. Ex) cellular respiration
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Enzyme-substrate complex
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when an enzyme binds substrates that are to be brought together in a reaction to its active site
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Cofactors
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inorganic elements that help catalyze reactions; usually metal ions such as Fe2+
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Coenzymes
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for example vitamins (organic); function is to accept electrons and pass them along to another substrate; ex) NAD+ and NADP+
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allosteric site
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region of the enzyme other than the active site to which a substance can bind
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Allosteric regulators
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substances that can either inhibit or activate enzymes
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Feedback inhibition
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formation of an end product inhibits an earlier reaction in the sequence; allosteric enzymes are subject to it
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Competitive Inhibition
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when a substance has a shape that fits the active site of an enzyme, it can compete with the substrate and effectively inactive the enzyme
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Noncompetitive Inhibition
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inhibitor binds with the enzyme at a site other than the active site and inactivates the enzyme by altering its shape; this prevents the enzyme from binding w/ substrate at active site
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First Law of Thermodynamics
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energy cannot be created or destroyed
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Second Law of Thermodynamics
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states that energy transfer leads to less organization (universe tends toward disorder, entropy)
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CR reaction?
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6CO2 + 6H20 + Sunlight --> glucose + 6O2
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Four stages of CR?
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Glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, Krebs Cycle, and Oxidative Phosphorylation
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Glycolysis
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splitting of glucose into 2 3-C molecules of pyruvic acid; net production of 2 moelcules of ATP; 2 NADH produced; occurs in the cytoplasm
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4 regions of mitochondria
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matrix, inner membrane, intermembrane space, outer membrane
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formation of acetyl CoA
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each pyruvic acid (3-C) is converted to an Acetyl Coenzyme A (2-C) and CO2 is released; 2 NADH and 0 ATP produced; occurs in cytoplasm
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Krebs Cycle/Citric Acid Cycle
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each of the 2 acetyl CoA moelcules enters one at a time and all carbons will ultimately be converted to CO2; occurs in the mitochondrial matrix (innermost area)
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Oxaloacetate
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4-C molecule; what each acetyl CoA combines with during the krebs cycle to form citric acid/citrate (a 6-C moelcule)
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with each turn of the krebs cycle what molecules/how many of each are produced?
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1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2CO2; (total 2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2)
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Oxidative Phosphorylation
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when electrons stored by electron carriers such as NAD+ and FAD are transferred to oxygen, resulting in ATP synthesis
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How many "loaded" electron carriers are there in oxidative phosphorylation?
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12 (10 NADH, 2 FADH2)
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Chemiosmosis
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when some of the energy released from the e- transport chain is used to pump h+ ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane to the intermembrane space; occurs through channels called ATP Synthase
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Every NADH yields how many ATP?
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3; except NADH from glycolysis produces 2 ATP
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Every FADH2 yields how many ATP?
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2
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How many total ATP are produced during oxidative phosphorylation? Where does it occur?
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32 ATP; inner mitochondrial membrane
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Net of aerobic respiration?
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36 ATP!
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under anaerobic conditions what is pyruvic acid converted to?
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either lactic acid or ethyl alcohol (ethanol) and CO2
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Lactic Acid fermentation process?
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glucose-->glycolysis-->2 pyruvic acid and NADH-->fermentation-->2 lactic acid + 2NAD+
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Ethanol fermentation process?
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glucose-->glycolysis-->2 pyruvic acid and NADH-->fermentation-->2 ethanol + CO2 + 2NAD+
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What types of organisms undergo fermentation?
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yeast cells and some bacteria make ethanol and CO2; other bacteria produce lactic acid
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Photosynthesis equation?
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6CO2 + 6H2O --> glucose + 6O2
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cuticle
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waxy covering produced by upper epidermis to protect leaf from water loss through evaporation
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palisade parenchyme
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just below upper epidermic; cells that contain lots of chloroplasts for photosynthesis
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stroma
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fluid filled region inside an individual chloroplast
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Grana
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the "stacks of coins" made up of thylakoids; contain chloropyll and enzymes for photosynthesis
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Spongy parenchyma
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irregular shaped cells just below palisade parenchyme; allow for diffusion of gases, esp. CO2, within the leaf
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Vascular bundles
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found in spongy parenchyma; include xylem and phloem for transport
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Lower epidermis
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containes stomates (allow for gas exchange and transpiration) and guard cells (control opening and closing of stomates)
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primary electron acceptor
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located in the reaction center; only molecule that is capable of transforming light energy to chemical energy
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antenna pigments
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pigments other than primary electron acceptor that "gather" light and "bounce" the energy back to the reaction center
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PSI
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the reaction center that contains chlorophyll a P680 (max. absorption at wavelength 680 nm)
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PSII
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the reaction center that contains chlorophyll a P700 (max. absorption at wavelength 700 nm)
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photophosphorylation
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when light energy is used to make ATP
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noncyclic photophosphorylation
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produces ATP using both PSI and II; P680 captures light and passes excited down e- transport chain to product ATP; P700 captures light and does the same thing to produce NADPH; a molecule of water is split by sunlight (releasing e-, hydrogen and fre O2)
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cyclic photophosphorylation
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P700 in PsI captures light and passes excited e- down transport chain to produce ATP; NADPH not produced and water not split by sunlight
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photolysis
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when P680 reaction center absorbs light, it also splits water into oxygen, hydrogen ions, and electrons; the electrons from it replace missing electrons in PSII
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Where do cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation occur?
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in the grana of chloroplsts
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are cyclic and noncylcic photophosphorylation light independent or dependent?
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dependent!
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dark reaction
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uses products of light reaction (ATP and NADPH) to make sugar; uses CO2 (thus termed carbon fication--meaning just that CO2 from the air is converted into carbs); occurs in the stroma of the leaf
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calvin cycle
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the dark reaction (light independent); CO2 enters the cycle and combines with a 5-C molecule, RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate) to make an unstable 6-C compound; the enzyme rubisco catalyzes this rxn;
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Steps in Calvin Cycle?
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starts w/ 6 RuBP and 6 CO2; then 12 ATP and 12 NADPH are used to convert 12 PGA to 12 PGAL (energy rich molecule); then ADP and NADP+ are released and then recycled into the thylakoid for later reuse; 2 PGAL used to make glucose and 10 are rearranged into 6 RuBP's ready for the next round of the cycle; since G3P (PGAL) is a 3-C molecule that is the 1st stable one produced, this method of producing glucose is called the C3 pathway
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Steps in C4 pathway?
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CO2 combines with PEP in mesophyll cells to form oxaloacetate (4-C molecule); oxaloacetate is converted to pyruvate and CO2, then CO2 is released for uptake into regular calvin cycle to make glucose
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What types of plants use the C4 pathway?
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plants found in hot, dry climates
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Where does the calvin cycle occur?
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in the stroma of chloroplasts
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what does CAM stand for?
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crassulacean acid metabolism
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Process of CAM photosynthesis?
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PEP carboxylase is used to fix CO2 to oxaloacetate; oxaloacetate is converted to malic acid instead of malate and sent to the cell's vacuole; during the day malic acid is converted back to oxaloacetate and CO2 is released for photosynthesis; CO2 then enters the calvin cycle
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Why do some plants utilize CAM?
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keep stomates closed during the day to reduce excessive water loss from transpiration
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photorespiration
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pathway that leads to the fixation of oxygen; RUBP carboxylase reduces CO2 concnetration to the point that it starts incorporating O2 instead; makes CO2 fixing less efficient
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PGA
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3-phosphoglycerate
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PGAL
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3-phosphoglyceraldehyde; aka G3P
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Euchromatin
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when genetic material is in a loose form in the nucleus; genes are active, or available for transcription
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Heterochromatin
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when genetic material is fully condensed into coils; genes are generally inactive
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What are the building blocks of DNA?
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nucleotides
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What are the building blocks of nucleotides?
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All have a 5-C sugar, a phosphate and a nitrogenous base (either A, G, C, or T)
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What are the 2 purines?
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A and G (double-ringed nitrogenous base)
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what are the 2 pyrimidines?
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T and C (single ringed nitrogenous base)
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Phosphodiester bonds?
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link together nucleotides
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What is on the 5' and 3' ends of DNA?
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5': phosphate group; 3' : OH group
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What link DNA strands?
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H-bonds; A-T and T-A have 2 H bonds; G-C and C-G have 3 H Bonds
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where do transcription and translation occur?
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transcription-->nucleus; translation-->cytoplasm
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rRNA
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ribosomal RNA; produced in the nucleolus; makes up part of the ribosomes
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tRNA
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shuttles amino acids to the ribosomes; reads the message carried out by the mRNA
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sense strand
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strand that serves as the template strand in transcription (DNA strand!)
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Antisense strand
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strand of DNA that lies dormant during transcription
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4 levels of protein structure?
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Primary (linear sequence of AA's); secondary (coils--alpha helix, or zigzagg--beta pleated sheets); tertiary (3-D folding pattern); quartenary (when 2 or more polypeptides get together)
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Missense Mutation
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when a codon is altered and produces a different amino acid
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Inversion
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mutation in which chromosomal regions change orientation; may be harmful
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Translocation
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when a portion of 2 different chromosomes (or a single chromosome in 2 different palces) breaks and rejoins in a way that the DNA sequence or gene is lost, repeated or interrupted
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hnRNA
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unprocessed RNA molecules that are precursors
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Helicase
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enzyme that unzips DNA
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DNA polymerase
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adds nucleotides to existing strand of DNA
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RNA primase
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catalyzes the synthesis of RNA primers
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Topoisomerase
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cuts and rejoins the DNA in replication
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Semiconservative
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the way that DNA replicates; it conserves half of the original molecule in each of the 2 new ones
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spliceosome
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RNA-protein complex that removes introns during RNA processing (between transcription and translation)
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poly A tail
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during RNA processing, the long tail of A's that is added to the 3' end
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A site/P site
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the binding sites of ribosomes; P site occupied by an initiator tRNA (methionine); A site occupied by the appropriate tRNA that corresponds to the next codon
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Methionine
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initiator codon for protein synthesis; AUG
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chaperon proteins
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aka chaperonins; help protein fold process and make the process more efficient
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RFLPs
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aka restriction fragment length polymorphisms; slight differences in DNA sequences seen when comparing restriction fragments between individuals of the same species; used in DNA fingerprinting
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Posttranslational modification usually includes what?
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change in protein structure
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Parts of the Cell cycle?
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G1, S, G2, Mitosis
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S phase
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when the cell replicates its genetic material
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G1 and G2 stages
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growth stages of cell cycle in which the cell produces all enzymes required for replication
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Prophase
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nucleolus disapprears; chromosomes thicken and become visible; centrioles move toward opposite ends of cell
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Metaphase
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chromosomes line up alone the metaphase plate
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Anaphase
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sister chromatids of each chromsoome separate at the centromere and migrate to opposite poles; chromatids are pulled apart by the microtubules
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Telophase
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nuclear membrane forms around each set of chromosomes and nucleoli reappar; cytokinesis occurs along a cleavage furrow (produced by actin microfilaments)
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Cell plate
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forms down the middle region during plant cytokinesis (they don't have a cleavage furrow!)
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prophase I
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nuclear membrane disappears, chromosomes become visible and centrioles move to opposite poles; major difference: synapsis (chromosomes line up side by side with their homologues to frm a tetrad, or bivalent); a tetrad consists of 4 chromatids; then crossing over occurs
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What is unique in prophase I?
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"pieces of chromosomes" are excahnged between the mologous partners
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Chismata
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regions that hold together homologous chromosomes
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Metaphase I
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tetrads line up at metaphase plate
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Anaphase I
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each pair of chromsomes within a tetrad separates and moves to opposite pole (separate with centromeres intact)
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Telophase I
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nuclear membrane forms around each set of chromosomesa nd then cytokinesis occurs; nucleus contained haploid number of chromosomes but each chromsoome is a duplicated one
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Meiosis II--purpose?
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to separate the duplicated chromosomes; is virtually identical to mitosis
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Oogenesis
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production of an ovum/egg cell; produces one ovum and 3 polar bodies (cells that receive only a tiny amt of cytoplasm and eventually degenerate)
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Down's syndrome
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condtiion in which patients have 3 copies (instead of 2) of the 21st chromosome
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transposons
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DNA segments that have the ability to move around the genome
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locus
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position of a gene on a chromosome
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law of segregation
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Alternative versions of genes account for variations in inherited characteristics (alleles); For each characteristic, an organism inherits two alleles, one from each parent; The two alleles for each characteristic segregate during gamete production
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law of independent assortment
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states that the inheritance pattern of one trait will not affect the inheritance pattern of another; occurs during meiosis I
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epistasis
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when genes at one locus influence the expression of genes at another locus
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pleiotropy
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when an allele affects a number of characteristics of an organism (ex. sickle cell anemia)
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Barr body
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a condensed X chromosome that is visible; dark color (in every female cell one X chromosome is activated and the other is deactivated during embryonic development)
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3 domains?
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Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya
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6 kingdoms?
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Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
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What are 3 characteristics of archaebacteria?
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Cell wall lacks peptidoglycan, plasma membranes contain unusual fatty acids, ribosomes look more like those of eukaryotes
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Gram stain
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enabled by peptidoglycan in cell walls of some bacteria; thick peptidoglycan walled bacteria test Gram-positive; thin peptidoglycan layers test negative
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Examples of gram + and gram - bacteria?
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+:chlamydias and spirochetes; -: streptococci and staphylococci
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3 ways bacteria exchange genetic info?
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1) transformation (when bacteria picks up naked DNA from the env't)
2) conjugation (when 2 bacteria connect by way of pili and transfer gen. info) 3) transduction (intervention of a virus) |
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7 phyla of plant-like protists?
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Euglenophyta, Dinoflagellata, Chrysophyta, Chlorophyta, Phaeophyta, Rhodophyta, Bacillariophyta
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Euglenophyta
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euglenids; have flagella + eyespot (for phototaxis); live in freshwater
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Dinoflagellata
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live in marine and fresh water; have photosynthetic pigments, 2 flagella and cell walls w/ cellulose
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Chrysophyta
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golden algae; mostly unicellular but some multicellular; have tiny scales of either silica or calcium carbonate
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chlorophyta
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green algae; unicellular; most have flagella at some stage of life and store food as starch
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Phaeophyta
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brown algae; mostly multicellular, photosynthetic and posses chlrophyll a, c, and carotenoids; have biflagellated reproductive cells (both asexual zoospores and sexual gametes)
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Rhodophyta
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red algae; mostly multicellular marine seaweeds; have chlorophyll a and b + red photosynthetic pigments (phycobilins)
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bacillariophyta
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diatoms; usu. nonmotile, unicellular organisms with cell walls of silica
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5 types of animal like protists?
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zoomastigina, rhizopoda, ciliophora, sporozoa, foraminifera
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Zoomastigina
|
unicellular, use flagellum; some live in gut of termites (Trichonympha) r are parasitic and cause disease such as African sleeping sickness (Trypanosoma)
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Rhizopoda
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type of amoeba, performs phagocytosis using pseudopods
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Ciliophora
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unicellular, use cilia; ex) paramecium (has 2 nuclei, oral groove, and contractile vacuoles)
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Sporozoa
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nonmotile, parasitic spore-formers; have no flagella; amoeboid body form; include Plasmodium (causes malaria)
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Formaninifera
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unicellular; produce calcareous test (shells) w/ pores through which cytoplasmic projections extend
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What is the only type of funguslike protist?
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Myxomycota
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Myxomycota
|
slime molds w/ large multinucleated masses; stalks that grow upward and form spores or gametes; found in moist soil, decaying leaves or logs in a damp forest
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Characterists of fungi?
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no chlorophyll, heterotrophs, use hyphae for feeding (threadlike branches); reproduce either by formign spores or by budding
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6 phyla of plants?
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Bryophytes, Pterophytes, Spenophytes, Lycophytes, Coniferophyta, Anthophyta
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Bryophytes
|
primitive; lack true stems roots and leaves; use rhizoids to anchor; have flagellated sperms (within the antheridium) that swim to reach the egg in the archegonium; ex) mosses, liverworts, hornworts
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Pterophyta
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"seedless plants"; earliest vascular to colonize land; life cycle involves alt. or gen. (dominant stage = sporophyte); ex) ferns
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Spenophyta
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vascular plants w/ hollow, ribbed stems and reduced, scalelike leaves; ex) horsetails (found in wet, marshy habitats)
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Lycophyta
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club mosses; sm. plants w/ rhizomes and short, erect branches
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Coniferophyta
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woody plants that bear seeds in cones (not enclosed); have tracheids and well-developed phloem; fertilization doesn't req. water source
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Anthophyta
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"flowering plants"; have seeds enclosed within a fruit or nut; have highly specialized tissue for transport; aka angiosperms; can be monocots or dicots
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Monocots
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angiosperms w/ a single cotyledon; have flower parts in multiples of 3, vascular tissues in scattered bundles, fibrous root system, and leaves w/ parallel veins
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Dicots
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2 cotyledons; have flower parts in 4's or 5's; vascular tissue in distinct circular bundles; taproot system and leaves w/ netted veins
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Dorsal, Ventral, Anterior, Posterior
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Dorsal = top; ventral =bottom; anterior = head end; posterior = tail end
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Cephalization
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development of the brain
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Diploblastic
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2 germ layers; found in cnidarians; have endoderm and ectoderm
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Triploblastic
|
ex) tapeworms; have 3 germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm)
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Acoelmates
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animals w/o a body cavity; ex) flatworm
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Coelomates
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animals w/ body cavity derived from the mesoderm
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pseudocoelomates
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ex) nematodes; body cavity derived from the blastocoel rather than the mesoderm
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protostome development
|
spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore forms the archenteron (later becomes the mouth)
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Deuterostome development
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radial and indeterminate cleavage; blastopore becomes anus
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10 phyla of animals?
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porifera, cnidaria, platyhelminthes, nematoda, rotifera, mollusca, annelida, arthropoda, echinodermata, chordata
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Porifera
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sponges; sessile, 2 cell layers; radial symmetry + acoelomates
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Cnidaria
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2 cell layered body; digestive cavity surrounded by tentacles that sting; acoelomates; ex) jellyfish, hydras, sea anemones
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Platyhelminthes
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flatworms; first to have 3 cell layers and bilateral symmetry; acoelomates; can be parasitic
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Nematoda
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roundworms; soil dwellers; have pseudocoelomate bodies and complete digestive tract; some parasitic
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Rotifera
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tiny filter feeders that are pseudocoelomates w/ complex digestive system
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Mollusca
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motile organisms w/ soft bodies and hard shells; are the first protostomes and first coelomates; ex) octopuses, squids, snails, clams
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annelida
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segmented worms w/ 2 openings (mouth and anus); have fully developed digestive system, closed circulatory system, developed nervous system, and bristle appendages (setae); ex) earthworms
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arthropoda
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animals w/ segmented bodies; paired jointed legs; chitinous exoskeleton; have open circulatory system with dorsal heart (unusual); ex) insects, arachnids, crustaceans
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echinoderms
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sessile or sedentary animals with a spiny exoskeleton; first deuterostomes; ex) sea urchin
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Chordata
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animals w/ notochord, dorsal nerve cord, postanal tail, and pharyngeal gill slits (most are vertebrates but some aren't--Tunicates, acorn worms, amphioxus)
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5 subphyla of chordata?
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fish, amphibia, reptilia, aves, mammalia
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Fish
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subphylum of chordates; cold-blooded vertebrates w/ gills, scales, and 2-chambered heart
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Amphibia
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initially breathe through gills, then develop lungs; can exchange gas through their most skin; have 3-chambered heart
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Reptilia
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cold-blooded animals w/ eggs w/ chitinous covering; have 4-chambered heart, are first vertebrates to have internal fertilization
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Aves
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birds; warm-blooded, have eggs w/ shells, wings, feathers, hollow bones, and a 4-chambered heart
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Mammalia
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warm blooded animals w/ 4-chambered heart; have hair and produce milk to feed young; some have placenta, some don't (marsupials)
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Lytic cycle
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virus injects its nucleic acid into host, viral particles are assembled inside the host and then released at which point they kill the cell
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Lysogenic cycle
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cycle in which viral DNA gets copied by new viruses are not made; eventually the virus usu. undergoes the lytic cycle
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Temperate virus
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virus that can coexist with its host cell
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2 types of xylem cells?
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tracheids, vessel elements (tracheids are long and thin, vessel elements are short and thick)
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Phloem cells are made up of...?
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sive tube elements (actually carry nutrients in a plant) and companion cells (lend support to sieve tube elements)
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ex) of tracheophytes (those w/ vascular tissue)?
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ferns, trees, flowering plants
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perennial
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live year after year; ex) gynosperms spruces, hemlocks and firs
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life cycle of plants?
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alteration of generation
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steps of alteration of generations?
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gametophyte (haploid)-->zygote-->sporophyte (diploid)--> haploid spores-->gametophyte
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what stage is dominant in bryophytes?
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gametophyte
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tracheophytes--what stage is dominant?
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sporophyte
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primary growth
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increases the length of a plant, using apical meristems located in tips of roots and stems
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secondary growth
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increases the girth, or width, or a plant; carried out by lateral meristems on sides of stems and roots, which produce vascular cambium adn cork cambium
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vascular cambium
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prduces secondary xylema nd phloem, which replace primary xylem and phloem
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cork cambium
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produces tissues of outer bark
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lenticels
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allow for gas exchange through the bark
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3 regions of growing root?
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root tip, elongation region, and maturation region
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Primary growht occurs in which parts of the root?
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root tip and elongation region
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Parts of inner rot?
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epidermic, cortex (stores starch and minerals), stele (inner cylinder which contains xylems and phloems)
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Apoplast
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porous cell walls in the root cortex
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symplast
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plasmodesmata, in root cortex
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endodermal cells
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tightly packed; regulate selective passage of water and minerals into vascular tissue
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Casparian strip
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belt of fatty tissue called suberin which blocks the mov't of water and minerals between the endodermal cells; in the walls of endodermal cells
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spines
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modified leaves, in cacti; help for protection
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fleshy leaves--why are they useful?
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water storage
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4 organs of flowering plants?
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stamen, pistil, sepals, and petals
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Stamen
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male parts; consists of anther and filament (anther produces pollen); filament = thin stalk that holds up the anther
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Pistil
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includes stigma, style, and ovary; are female parts; stigma = sticky part that captures pollen; style is tubelike, connects stigma to ovary; ovary is where fertilization occurs
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ovules
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inside the ovary; contain plant's equivalent of female gametophytes
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megaspores
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female gametes of plants; undergo meiosis to produce 8 female nuclei (incl. 1 egg nucleus and 2 polar bodies)
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double fertilization
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what flowering plants do; pollen (microspores) lands on stigma and grows a pollen tube down the style; pollen grain then divides into 2 sperm nuclei (one sperm nucleus fuses with an egg nucleus to form a zygote--eventually a plant); the other sperm nucleus fuses w/ 2 polar nuclei in the ovary to form the endosperm (3n)
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double fertilization produces which two things?
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a plant and food for the plant
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Epicotyl
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part at the tip of the plant
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Hypocotyl
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stem below the cotyledons, becomes roots of the plant
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radicle
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well defined embryonic rot
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photoperiodism
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plants flower in response to changes in amt of daylight and darkness
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3 groups of plants (based on photoperiodism)?
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Short day, long day, day neutral
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short day plants
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require long period of darkness; usu. bloom in late summer or fall when daylight is decr.
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long day plants
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require short periods of darkness; flower in late spring and summer when daylight is increasing
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day neutral plants
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don't flower in response to daylight changes at all; use other cues such as water and temperature
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phytochrome
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pigments that in short day plants, inhibits flowering but in long day plants, induces flowering
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vegetative propogation
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when flowering plants reproduce asexually; ex) tubers, runners, and bulbs
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grafting
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another way plants can reproduce asexually by cutting a stem adn attaching it to a closely related plant
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ex) of bulbs
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onions
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ex) of runners
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strawberries
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ex) of tubers
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potatoes (underground stems)
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ex) grafting
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seedless oranges
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phototropism
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movement of a plant toward light
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gravitropism
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tendency of a plant to grow away from earth
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thigmotropism
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how plants respond to touch (ex) ivy grow around a post or trellis)
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auxins
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promote palnt growth and phototropism
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gibberellins
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promote stem elongation esp. in dwarf plants
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cytokinins
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promote cell division and differentiation
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ethylene
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induces leaf abscisiona nd promotes fruit ripenning
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abscicic acid
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inhibits leaf abscissiona nd promotes bud at seed dormancy
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intracellular digestion
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digestion that occurs within food vacuoles, occurs in simple animals such as the hydra
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extracellular digestion
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digestion in a gastrovascular cavity, in more complex animals
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salivary amylase
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enzyme in saliva; begins chemical digestion of starch into maltose
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Bolus
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ball of food that has been chewed
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path of the bolus?
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mouth-->pharynx-->esophagus (through peristalsis)
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3 functions of stomach?
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stores ingested food temporarily, partially digests proteins, kills bacteria
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gastric juices
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secreted by stomach, contain digestive enzymes and HCl
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pepsin
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enzyme in gastric juice that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides; works best in acidic env't
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chyme
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partially digested food that has gone through the stomach
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where does the chyme go after it is out of the stomach?
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small intestine
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3 regions of sm. intestine?
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duodenum, jejunum, ileum
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Duodenum
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first part of small intestine; opening = the pyloric sphincter
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purpose of small intestine?
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walls secrete enzymes that break down proteins and carbohydrates
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pancreas
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secretes enzymes into the small intestine: trypsin, chymotrypsin, pancreatic lipase, and pancreatic amylase
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Trypsin and chymotrypsin
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break down proteins into dipeptides
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pancreatic lipase
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breaks down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol
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pancreatic amylase
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breaks down starch into disaccharides
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bile
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substance in small intestine that is an emulsifier (breaks up fat into smaller fat droplets so pancreatic lipase can access it)
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where is bile made and stored?
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made in the liver, stored in the gall bladder
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lacteals
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lymph vessels in each villus that absrb fatty acids
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3 hormones involved in digestive system?
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gastrin, secretin, and cholecystokinin
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gastrin
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stimulates stomach cells to produce gastric juice
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secretin
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stimulates pancreas to produce bicarbonate and digestive enzymes
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cholecystokinin
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stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and release of bile
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large intestine's job?
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reabsorb water and salts, also has harmless bacteria that break down undigested food and provide us with certain essential vitamins such as vitamin K
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spiracles
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openings to tubes called trachae (breathing tubes of insects)
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larynx
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voice box
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path of air through body?
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nose-->pharynx-->larynx-->
-->trachea-->bronchi--> bronchioles |
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epiglottis
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flap that covers the trachea and prevents food from going down the wrong pipe
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bronchioles
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smaller tubes that branch off from bronchi; each ends in a tiny air sac called an alveolus; these sacs enable the lungs to have an enormous surface area (about 100 square meters)
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what happens to oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveolus and capillaries?
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when you inhale, oxygen goes into the alveoli then diffuses into the capillaries; carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli because the capillaries have a high conc. of CO2
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gas exchange in humans occurs via what kind of diffusion?
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passive
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plasma
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fluid of blood; transports 3% of the body's total oxygen
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hemoglobin
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iron-containing protein in red blood cells; transports 97% of the oxygen in the body
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inspiration
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the process of taking in oxygen
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chemoreceptors
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control the respiratory rate; as blood pH decreases, they send nerve impulses to the diaphram and intercostal muscles to incr. respiratory rate
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diaphragm
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skeletal muscle that forms the bottom wall of chest cavity
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open circulatory system
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blood carried by open-ended blood vessels that spill blood into the body cavity
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ex) of organisms with open circulatory system?
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arthropods (blood vessels from the heart open into internal cavities called sinuses)
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closed circulatory systems
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blood flows continuously through a network of blood vessels; ex) earthworms and some molluscs, vertebrates have them
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left ventricle
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where blood leaves the heart and enters the body (through the aorta)
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systemic circulation
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when blood makes a tour of the whole body
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path of blood? (overall)
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left ventricle (through aorta)-->body-->back to right atrium through the vena cava-->right ventricle through right tricuspid valve-->toward the lungs (pulmonary circulation)-->left ventricle by way of the left bicuspid or mitral valve
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largest artery int he body?
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aorta (has the aortic semilunar valve); carries blood away from heart
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pathway of blood through the body?
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blood leaves left ventricle via the aorta-->travels through the arteries to the arterioles and eventually to the capillaries-->gas and nutrient/waste excahgne occurs between blood and tissues through capillary walls
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how does deoxygenated blood that has just circulated through the body re-enter the heart?
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reenters the heart into the right atrium via two veins known as the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava
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steps of pulmonary circulation?
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deoxygenated blood leaves right ventricle via pulmonary artery; pulmonary artery branches into l and r, carrying blood into the lungs; blood travels from arteries to arterioles and then eventually to the capillaries; gas exchange occurs between capillaries and alveoli; blood, once oxygenated, returns to the heart through pulmonary veins
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SA node
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"the pacemaker," AKA the sinoatrial node; where heartbeat begins, located in right atrium
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AV node
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atrioventricular node; where the heartbeat impulse spreads through both atria
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path of heartbeat impulse?
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SA node-->AV node-->bundle of His-->Purkinje fibers-->contraction
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Purkinje fibers
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last to receive action potential for heartbeat; located in the walls of both ventricles; generates a strong contraction
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systole
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part of the cycle in which contraction occurs
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diastole
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part of the heartbeat cycle in which relaxation occurs
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erythrocytes
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red blood cells; oxygen-carrying cells that contain hemoglobin
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steps in blood clotting?
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damaged cells and platelets release substances that activate clotting factors; prothrombin activator converts prothrombin (plasma protein) to thrmbin; then thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin threads which strengthen the clot
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bone marrow
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located int he center of bones; where the blood cells are made
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AB
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blood type that is the universal recipient
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O
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blood type that is the universal donor
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3 functions of lymphatic system?
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collects, filters and returns fluid to the blood by the contraction of adjacent muscles; fights infection using lymphocytes, cells found in lymph nodes; removes excess fluid from body tissue
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lymph
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clear, watery fluid formed from interstitial fluid (fluid that bathes cells); fights infection using lymphocytes; removes excess fluid from body tissue
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phagocytes
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engulf antigens
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complement proteins
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lyse the cell wall of the antigen
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antigens
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foreign molecules that can trigger an immune response
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interferons
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inhibit viral replication and activate surrounding cells that have antiviral actions
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inflammatory response
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series of events in response to antigen invasion of physical injury
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MHC markers
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major histocompatibility complex markers; distinguish between self and nonself cells
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T-lymphocytes
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recognize foreign antigen MHC markers; can become either helper or memory T cells;
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helper T cells
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activate B lymphocytes and other T cells
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memory T cells
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recognize bacteria or viruses that they have encountered before
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cytotoxic T-cells
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recognize and kill infected cells (cell-mediated response)
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where are t cells made/where do they mature?
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made in the bone marrow, but mature in the thymus
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humoral immunity/antibody-mediated immunity
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B-lymphocytes encounter antigen-presenting cells such as macrophages with foreign MHC markers and then they activate and produce clones; some become memory cells and helper t cells help out too, as well as memory T cells
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what do T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes do?
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T: actually fight infectiona nd help B-lymphocytes proliferate; B: produce antibodies
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cytotoxic T cells
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those that recognize and kill infected cells
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nephridia
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excretory organs found in earthworms
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Malpighian tubules
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excretory organs found in arthropods
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How do different organisms get rid of nitrogenous wastes?
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some keep them as ammonia (just fish); birds and reptiles convert ammonia to uric acid; most mammals convert ammonia to urea
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nephrons
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functional units of the kidney; have the bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convuoluated tubule, and collecting duct
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path of blood in a nephron?
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enters at Bowman's capsule (glomerulus, ball of capillaries, exists inside the capsule)-->filtered and goes intot he Bowman's capsule as filtrate-->proximal convoluted tubule-->loop of henle-->distal convoluted tube-->collecting duct (filtrate modified to form urine along the way)
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where does urine move after the nephron?
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moves through collecting ducts tot he ureters, then tot he bladder, finally out the urethra
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3 processes in the nephron that produce urine?
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filtration, reabsorption, and secretion
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peritubular capillaries
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network of capillaries that help with reabsorption of some materials (water, nutrients, and salts)
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2 hormones that regulate the concentration of water and salt in the kidneys?
|
vasopressin and aldosterone
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vasopressin
|
aka antidiuretic hormone/ADH; allows water to be reabsorbed from the collecting duct; helps retain water (high levels with dehydration, but low levels if you have a high fluid intake)
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aldosterone
|
regulates sodium reabsorption at the distal convoluted tubule
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subcutaneous tissue
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aka hyperdermis (innermost layer of skin); mostly consists of fats
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stratum corneum
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layer of dead cells that covers the epidermis; forms marrier against invading microorganisms
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3 layers of skin?
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epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue/hyperdermis
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nerve net
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found in simple organisms such as the hydra; a network of nerve cells in which signals travel multiple directions
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ganglia
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in more complex animals; clumps of nerve cells that are like "primitive brains"; even more complex organisms have a brain with neurons
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3 parts of a neuron?
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dendrites (branched parts), cell body, axon (stick part)
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3 types of neurons?
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sensory neurons, motor (effector) neurons, interneurons
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Sensory neurons
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receive impulses from the env't and bring them to the body
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motor neurons
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transmits impulses to muscles or glands that produce a response
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interneurons
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links between sensory and motor neurons, found in the brain or spinal cord
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what are the relative concentrations of sodium ions/potassium ions in human neurons?
|
sodium ions have a higher conc. in the extracellular fluid than the concentration of K+; inside there is more K+ than Na+
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what does the resting - potential result from?
|
sodium potassium ATPase (pump that pushes out 2 K+ ions for every 3 sodium ions, which leads to a net loss of positive charges within the cell); also leaky protein channels that allow for slow difusion of K+ out of the cell
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depolarization
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when the interior of the nerve cell switches its polarity from - to + charge; caused by the action potential
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|
what happens in an action potential?
|
cell's tiny "gates" open up; sodium ions rush in; polarity of the cell changes (axon is now + n inside and - on outside)
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repolarization
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when the cell's charge returns to its original potential
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refractory period
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period after an action potential
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what happens with channels during repolarization?
|
sodium channels close and potassium channels open (restores cell's negative charge)
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axon bulb
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end of the axon
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neurotransmitter
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chemical that diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the dendrites of the next neuron
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synapse
|
space between 2 neurons
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acetylcholine
|
neurotransmitter than can stimulate muscles to contract or inhibit postsynaptic potential
|
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acetylcholinesterase
|
enzyme that breaks down excess acetycholine in the synaptic cleft
|
|
norepinephrine
|
peptide neurotransmitter that is released between neurons within the CNS
|
|
GABA
|
secreted in the CNS, acts as an inhibitor
|
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Scwann cells
|
supporting cells that wrap around the axon of a neuron; produces the myelin sheath which insulates the axon
|
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notes of Ranvier
|
spaces between myelin sheaths
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|
what do myelin sheaths do?
|
provide insulation and speed up the propagation of an impulse
|
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saltatory conduction
|
form of conduction in which an impulse can jump from node to node
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|
autonomic/somatic nervous sytems
|
divisions of the peripheral nervous system; somatic = voluntary activities; autonomic = involuntary activities
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|
what are the 2 divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
|
parasmpathetic and sympathetic (parasympathetic = brings body back down to homeostasis after flight or fight response brough about by the sympathetic)
|
|
cerebrum
|
controls all voluntary activities, largest part of human brain
|
|
cerebellum
|
coordinates muscle activity and refinement of mov't
|
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hypothalamus
|
regulates homeostasis and secretes hormones; regulates pituitary gland
|
|
medulla
|
controls involuntary actions
|
|
PONS
|
Connects parts of the brain with one another and contains respiratory center
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|
midbrain
|
center for visual and auditory reflexes
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thalamus
|
main sensry relay center for conducting info between the spinal cord adn cerebrum
|
|
corpus callosum
|
thick band of nerve fibers of the white matter than enable the right and left side of the cerebral hemisphere to communicate
|
|
difference between cartilage and bone?
|
cartilage lacks nerves and blood vessels; bone is a connective tissue that contains nerves and blood vessels
|
|
2 substances that make up bond?
|
collagen and calcium salts
|
|
ligaments
|
tough connective tissues that attach bone to bone
|
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tendons
|
connective tissues that connect bone to muscle
|
|
skeletal muscles
|
control voluntary movements; have striations (stripes); are multinucleated and made up of muscle bundles which subdividie into muscle fascicles (within each are units called muscle fiber cells which contain myofibrils which are subdivided into sarcomeres)
|
|
sarcomere
|
functional unit in a muscle cell; inside has 2 protein filaments (actin = thin; myosin = thick)
|
|
how is ATP utilized in muscle contraction?
|
ATP bound to the myosin head of actin filaments is split and ADP and P are released; myosin now crooked binds to the exposed site on the actin molecules and cross bridges form (the complex eventually binds ATP and myosin releases actin)
|
|
cardiac muscle
|
controls involuntary action; held together by special junctions called intercalated discs
|
|
which of the 3 types of muscle are straited?
|
skeletal and cardiac
|
|
which of the 3 types of muscle are multinucleated?
|
skeletal
|
|
rank the 3 types of muscle in order from speed of contraction?
|
skeltal = fastest; cardiac = intermediate; smooth = slowest
|
|
negative feedback system
|
in the endocrine system; when there is excess of a hormone the endocrine gland will temporarily shut down production
|
|
GH
|
gorwth hormone; secreted by anterior pituitary
|
|
ACTH
|
adrenocorticotropic hormone; stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids; secreted by anterior pituitary
|
|
TSH
|
stimulates thyroid to secrete thyroxin; secreted by anterior pituitary
|
|
FSH
|
stimulates follicle to gorw in females; spermatogenesis in males; secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
|
|
LH
|
causes release of ovum, testosterone production in males; secreted by ant. pit. gland
|
|
prolactin
|
stimulates mammary glands to produce milk; secreted by ant. pit. gland
|
|
2 hormones secreted by posterior pituitary?
|
antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin); oxytocin (stimulates contraction of uterus and ducts of mammary glands)
|
|
pneumonic for hormones of pituitary gland?
|
GATOR PIT and FLAP (gat = anterior ones, or = poterior ones); flap = all anterior (deal with reproductive system)
|
|
which 2 hormones does the pancreas secrete?
|
glucagon and insulin (both produced in clusters of cells called Islet of Langerhans)
|
|
glucagon
|
stimulates liver to convert glycogen into glucose and to release that glucose intot he blood
|
|
insulin
|
lowers blood sugar level, esp. effective on muscle and liver cells
|
|
thyroxine
|
hormone that contains Iodine and is responsible for regulating the metabolic rate of body tissues
|
|
what secretes calcitonin?
|
the thyroid
|
|
allopatric speciation
|
when one population becomes separated fromt he rest of the species by a geographical barrier so they can't interbreed
|
|
sympatric speciation
|
when new species form w/o any geographic barrier
|
|
hardy-weinberg law
|
states that even w/ all the shuffling of genes that goes on, the relative frequencies of genotypes in a pop. still prevail over time
|
|
hardy weinberg equation?
|
p^2 + 2PQ + q^2 = 1
|
|
ocnditions for hardy-weinberg equlibrium?
|
large pop.; no mutations; no immigration or emigration; random mating; no natural selection
|
|
imprinting
|
occurs during critical period (brief time early in an organisms life), occurs in different forms (sexual, parent, and song)
|
|
classical conditioning
|
when organisms become accustomed to something due to repeated instances of an event; aka associate learning
|
|
operant conditioning
|
trial-and-error learning; an animal learns to peform an act to receive an award; studied by scientist Skinner
|
|
habituation
|
when an animal learns not to respond to a stimulus
|
|
agnostic behavior
|
aggressive behavior toward another animal due to competittion for food/other resources
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r strategists
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organisms that produce lots of offspring to ensure survival; ex) weeds, bacteria and dandelions
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k strategists
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best suited for survival in stable envt's; tend to be large animals such as elephants with long lifespans; produce few offspring and usu. don't have to contend with competition from otehr organisms
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