Air Traffic Basics Block 1

Front 1

FSS position that initiates required Search and Rescue situations

Back 1

Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator

Front 2

HIWAS provided by what position

Back 2

FSS Broadcast

Front 3

HIWAS

Back 3

Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service

Front 4

Pilot briefings provided by what air traffic facilities

Back 4

FSS Flight Service Stations

Front 5

Purpose

Back 5

The primary purpose of the ATC system is to prevent a collision between aircraft operating in the system and to provide a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic, and to provide support for National Security and Homeland Defense.

Front 6

ATC exceptions to "first come, first served"

Back 6

• Aircraft in distress
• Civilian air ambulance flights (also military air evac flights and scheduled air carrier/air taxi flights when requested)
• Search and Rescue aircraft
• Presidential aircraft
• Flight Check aircraft
• special military and civilian operations
• Diverted flights

Front 7

ATC is provided on a _________.

Back 7

first come, first served basis

Front 8

ATC's first priority

Back 8

given to separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts

Front 9

Established by the federal government and designated in miles, altitudes (feet), and minutes

Back 9

separation standards

Front 10

the separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC

Back 10

Positive Control

Front 11

VNR

Back 11

VFR Not Recommended

Front 12

IFR

Back 12

Instrument Flight Rules < 1,003

Front 13

VFR

Back 13

Visual Flight Rules 1,003 & up

Front 14

TMIs

Back 14

Traffic Management Initiatives

Front 15

How many ATO service areas are there

Back 15

three

Front 16

Three ATO service areas

Back 16

Western, Central, Eastern

Front 17

The ATO is managed by a (an) _____.

Back 17

COO Chief Operating Officer

Front 18

The ATO is responsible for ____.

Back 18

ensuring the safety, efficiency, and security of air traffic operations across the entire NAS.

Front 19

When did the FAA receive the name Federal Aviation Administration an the DOT begin full operations?

Back 19

April 1, 1967

Front 20

When did Congress authorize the creation of a cabinet department named the DOT

Back 20

1966

Front 21

The primary NAVAIDs for the nations airways

Back 21

VORs and VORTACs

Front 22

Class A airspace consists of FL ___-FL___.

Back 22

180-600

Front 23

Generally, the first contact made to an ATCT by a departing IFR aircraft is the ____ position.

Back 23

Clearance Delivery

Front 24

From what facility would you receive landing clearance

Back 24

ATCT

Front 25

Two types of facilities referred to as Terminal

Back 25

ATCT and TRACON

Front 26

The most restrictive method of traffic management and override all other traffic management programs.

Back 26

Ground Stops

Front 27

TMIs and TM programs do or do not override existing procedures

Back 27

do not

Front 28

A TM process administered by ATCSCC whereby aircraft are held on the ground in order to manage capacity and demand at a specific location.

Back 28

Ground Delay Program

Front 29

Assigns fix crossing times to aircraft destined to the same airport.

Back 29

Arrival Sequencing Program

Front 30

Monitors and manages the flow of air traffic throughout the NAS.

Back 30

the ATCSCC

Front 31

Assigns departure times that will facilitate integration into the en route traffic stream.

Back 31

Enroute Sequencing Program

Front 32

Assigns a departure time to achieve a constant flow of aircraft departing several airports that will fly over a common point.

Back 32

Departure Sequencing Program

Front 33

Include but are not limited to altitude, miles-in-trail, or airborne holding.

Back 33

TMIs Travel Management Initiatives

Front 34

Techniques used to manage demand with capacity in the NAS.

Back 34

TMIs Travel Management Initiatives

Front 35

Monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives.

Back 35

TMUs Traffic Management Units

Front 36

The mission of the Traffic Management system is ____.

Back 36

to balance air traffic demand with system capacity to ensure the maximum efficient utilization of the NAS.

Front 37

The segment of flight between departure and destination terminal areas

Back 37

The en route phase of flight

Front 38

TRACONs are divided into ___.

Back 38

sectors of airspace

Front 39

FSS position that issues airport advisories

Back 39

Inflight

Front 40

What markings closely identify the actual beginning point of the runway?

Back 40

Runway threshold markings

Front 41

How long are stripes and gaps for runway centerlines? What Color?

Back 41

120 ft in length, 80 ft gaps, white markings

Front 42

___ consist of a line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.

Back 42

Runway centerlines

Front 43

Designate a runway with a magnetic heading of 004 degrees.

Back 43

RWY 36

Front 44

How would you designate a runway with magnetic heading 185 degrees?

Back 44

RWY 18 or RWY 19

Front 45

Pavement marking color for taxiways, closed and hazardous areas, and holding positions

Back 45

Yellow

Front 46

What color are pavement markings for runways and landing airports, including heliports?

Back 46

White

Front 47

What are taxiways and apron (ramp) areas on the airport which are not under the control of the ATC?

Back 47

Non-movement areas

Front 48

an area on land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft

Back 48

airport

Front 49

Runway marking consists of 4 to 16 longitudinal white stripes of uniform dimensions arranged symmetrically on either side of the runway centerline

Back 49

Threshold

Front 50

Air traffic facility that has no direct authority over IFR or VFR traffic is the ___.

Back 50

FSS Flight Service Station

Front 51

The position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control movements to aircraft and vehicles operating on the aircraft movement area (other than active runways)

Back 51

Ground Controller

Front 52

The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include expecting handoffs

Back 52

Flight data

Front 53

Nonradar separation is used in preference to radar separation only when there is a(n) ___.

Back 53

operational advantage

Front 54

"Presidential airraft have priority over Flight Check aircraft" is an example of ___.

Back 54

operational priority

Front 55

A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated ___.

Back 55

RWY 36

Front 56

An airport with three parallel runways with a magnetic heading of 216 degrees would have runway designations of ___.

Back 56

RWY 22 L, RWY 22 C, RWY 22 R

Front 57

Large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold.

Back 57

blast pad

Front 58

What color are taxiway edge lights?

Back 58

blue

Front 59

Lighted land airports have rotating beacons that ___.

Back 59

flash white and green.

Front 60

Lighted water airports have rotating beacons that ___.

Back 60

flash white and yellow.

Front 61

Lighted heliports have rotating beacons that ___.

Back 61

flash white, yellow, and green.

Front 62

Military airports have rotating beacons that ___.

Back 62

flash two white followed by green.

Front 63

Three types of runway lights

Back 63

• Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)
  
• Runway Edge Light System
• In-Runway Lighting

Front 64

A pair of synchronized white flashing strobe lights located laterally on either side of the runway threshold facing the incoming traffic.

Back 64

REIL Runway End Identifier Lights

Front 65

Two types of in-runway lighting

Back 65

• Touchdown Zone Lighting
  
• Runway Centerline Lighting System

Front 66

What colors are the Runway Centerline Lighting System

Back 66

• White until last 3,000 feet, then
  
• White alternating with red for the next 2,000 feet
• All red the last 1,000 feet

Front 67

Two rows of lights; one on each side and parallel to the runway centerline lights.

Back 67

Touchdown Zone Lighting

Front 68

A system of lights arranged to provide visual descent guidance during the approach to a runway

Back 68

Visual Approach Slope Indicators (VASIs)

Front 69

Color of taxiway centerline lights

Back 69

green

Front 70

Marked by four white arrows and located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning

Back 70

Displaced threshold

Front 71

Runway edge marking color

Back 71

white

Front 72

Runway shoulder marking color

Back 72

yellow

Front 73

White markings approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold that are 150 feet in length and width determined by the width of the runway.

Back 73

Runway aiming point markings

Front 74

White markings that closely identify the actual beginning point of the runway threshold used for landings.

Back 74

Runway threshold markings

Front 75

Number of longitudinal stripes illustrate the runway width

4 = 60 ft

6 = 75 ft

8 = 100 ft

12= 150 ft

16= 200 ft

Back 75

Runway threshold markings

Front 76

Touchdown zone markings color

Back 76

white

Front 77

The basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing is provided by the ____.

Back 77

Approach Light System

Front 78

Runway ___ provide alignment guidance during takeoffs and landings, and consist of a line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.

Back 78

Runway centerline markings

Front 79

Touchdown Zone Lighting and Runway Centerline Lights Systems are two examples of ____.

Back 79

In-Runway Lighting

Front 80

Threshold light colors

Back 80

Red light toward the runway to indicate the end of the runway. Green light outward from the runway to indicate landing threshold.

Front 81

Runway edge light colors

Back 81

White except yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half of the runway length, whichever is less.

Front 82

Minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL600

Back 82

5,000 ft

Front 83

Aircraft that are non RVSM must be separated by ___ ft as they climb or descend through RVSM altitudes.

Back 83

2,000

Front 84

The spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles.

Back 84

Longitudinal separation

Front 85

The spacing of aircraft to achieve their safe and orderly movement in flight and while landing and taking off

Back 85

separation

Front 86

The minimum longitudinal, lateral, or vertical distances by which aircraft are spaced through the application of air traffic control procedures

Back 86

separation minima

Front 87

All aircraft operating at or above 18,000 MSL shall have the altimeter set to ___.

Back 87

29.92

Front 88

Vertical separation above FL 410

Back 88

2,000 ft

Front 89

Separation between aircraft expressed in units of vertical distance

Back 89

Vertical separation

Front 90

Aircraft that may be assigned altitudes between FL 290 and FL 410 without RVSM equipment

Back 90

• DOD aircraft
• DOD-certified aircraft operated by NASA
• MEDEVAC
• Manufacturers aircraft being flown for certification and development
• Foreign State aircraft

Front 91

Fuel dumping separation

Back 91

1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft below, and 5 miles separation

Front 92

Lateral spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by requiring operation on different routes or in different geographical locations

Back 92

Lateral separation

Front 93

Crossing course

Back 93

45 degrees through 135 degrees

Front 94

Opposite course

Back 94

136 degrees through 180 degrees

Front 95

Same course

Back 95

Less than 45 degrees

Front 96

Standard minima separation for non-radar longitudinal separation

Back 96

10 mins or 20 miles if suing DME

Front 97

Radar separation minima when less than 40 miles from antenna

Back 97

3 miles

Front 98

Radar separation minima when 40 miles or more from antenna

Back 98

5 miles

Front 99

Radar separation required when radar data from more than one radar antenna is presented on a radar display

Back 99

5 miles separation

Front 100

En route radar separation (lateral and longitudinal) at or above FL600

Back 100

10 miles

Front 101

En route radar separation (lateral and longitudinal) below FL600

Back 101

5 miles

Front 102

At what FL can you use visual separation

Back 102

Below FL180

Front 103

What is the communication requirement for visual separation?

Back 103

Direct communication is maintained with one of the aircraft involved and there is an ability to communicate with the other.

Front 104

Type of separation applied by Tower controllers only

Back 104

Runway separation

Front 105

Standard holding fix pattern

Back 105

right turns and one minute legs (1 1/2 minute above 14,000 MSL)

Front 106

Aircraft's holding pattern airspace areas must not overlap

Back 106

each other or other airspace to be protected

Front 107

The system for disseminating aeronautical information is made up of two subsystems

Back 107

• AIS Airmen's Information System
  
• NOTAM system

Front 108

Provides information (not known sufficiently in advance to publicize by other means) concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any component the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.

Back 108

NOTAM (Notice to Airmen)

Front 109

The party who enters/submits a NOTAM to the USNS using an approved direct entry tool or interface

Back 109

Certified source

Front 110

Must ensure the origination of NOTAM Ds concerning NAVAIDs for which they are responsible

Back 110

Technical Operations

Front 111

Who can close a portion of the airport?

Back 111

airport management

Front 112

Who submits a NOTAM to the USNS using an approved direct entry tool or interface?

Back 112

certified source

Front 113

Who is responsible for reporting a condition considered hazardous to flight?

Back 113

all air traffic employees

Front 114

Who is the authority charged with monitoring the USNS?

Back 114

United States NOTAMs Office (USNOF)

Front 115

A NOTAM given distant dissemination beyond the area of responsibility of the Flight Service Station that is stored and available until cancelled.

Back 115

NOTAM (D)

Front 116

NOTAM issued when flight information is normally regulatory in nature

Back 116

FDC NOTAMS

Front 117

NOTAM issued to highlight or point out another NOTAM

Back 117

Pointer NOTAMS

Front 118

What keyword would be used in a NOTAM D detailing the outage of a VORTAC?

Back 118

NAV, Techops would report.

Front 119

T OR F NOTAM Ds are issued when the information requires local dissemination.

Back 119

False, wide dissemination

Front 120

Who issues pointer NOTAMS and why?

Back 120

Issued by a FSS to highlight or point out another NOTAM

Front 121

Four types of NOTAMS

Back 121

• NOTAM Ds
  
• Pointer
• Military
• FDC

Front 122

In what environment do controllers need to visualize the airspace under their control and rely on pilot reports to determine the position of aircraft and to identify areas of adverse weather?

Back 122

Nonradar environment

Front 123

A radio detection device which provides information on range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects

Back 123

Radar

Front 124

A radar system in which a minute portion of a radio pulse transmitted from a site is reflected by an object and then received back at the site for processing and display at an air traffic control facility.

Back 124

Primary radar

Front 125

Primary radar reflected energy is called ___.

Back 125

"Echo" or "target"

Front 126

Which radar requires no equipment in the aircraft?

Back 126

Primary

Front 127

Four major components of a primary radar system

Back 127

• Transmitter
• Antenna
• Receiver
• (Radar) Display

Front 128

Area directly above the antenna

Back 128

blind spot or cone of silence

Front 129

An electronic device which will permit radar scope presentations only from targets which are in motion

Back 129

MTI Moving Target Indicator

Front 130

A pattern produced on the radar scope by ground returns which may degrade other radar returns in the affected area

Back 130

Ground Clutter

Front 131

The normal radar transmission that will cause an echo from anything that has mass

Back 131

Linear Polarization LP

Front 132

An electromagnetic wave for which the electronic and/or magnetic field vector at a point describes a circle. Reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation.

Back 132

Circular Polarization CP

Front 133

Temperature inversion

Back 133

warmer air trapped on top of cooler air

Front 134

Targets that lack validity or authenticity often produced as a result of temperature inversion or Anomalous Propagation.

Back 134

False targets

Front 135

Anomalous Propagation caused by

Back 135

density or moisture

Front 136

The disruption of the radar display or radio reception by means of electronic or mechanical interference.

Back 136

Jamming

Front 137

Appearance of clutter on the radar display achieved by dropping large amounts of shredded foil called chaff.

Back 137

Passive radar jamming

Front 138

Electronically disrupting the radar operating frequency which results in a clutter pattern similar to radar interference.

Back 138

Active radar jamming

Front 139

Focuses, broadcasts, and collects reflected radio energy

Back 139

Antenna

Front 140

Depicts the position and movement of objects that reflect radio energy

Back 140

Radar display

Front 141

Reduced or eliminated echoes from precipitation

Back 141

Circular polarization

Front 142

Radar indications of aircraft or objects that do not exist

Back 142

False targets

Front 143

Appearance of clutter on the radar display caused by moisture in the air bending the radar beam

Back 143

Anomalous Propagation

Front 144

Occurs when warmer air is trapped on top of cooler air.

Back 144

temperature inversion

Front 145

Appearance of clutter on the radar display that results from two radar systems operating on similar frequencies

Back 145

electronic radar interference

Front 146

Amplifies and converts reflected radio energy into video

Back 146

Receiver

Front 147

Secondary radar system components

Back 147

• Interrogator
• Transponder
• Antenna
• Radar Display
• Decoder

Front 148

Possible false target causes on secondary radar system

Back 148

• Transponder operating near obstructions
• Ring around

Front 149

Advantages of secondary radar

Back 149

• Less vulnerable to blind spots
• Longer range than primary radar
• Radar responses not degraded by weather or ground clutter

Front 150

Disadvantages of secondary radar

Back 150

• Only displays aircraft with transponders
• Does not provide weather information

Front 151

Which component of the secondary radar system is located in the aircraft?

Back 151

Transponder

Front 152

JO 7110.10

Back 152

Flight Services

Front 153

JO 7110.65

Back 153

Air Traffic Control

Front 154

JO 7210.3

Back 154

Facility Operation and administration

Front 155

JO 7340.2

Back 155

Contractions

Front 156

JO 7350.9

Back 156

Location Identifiers

Front 157

AIM

Back 157

Aeronautical Information Manual

Front 158

Need Not or May

Back 158

Optional

Front 159

Must or Shall

Back 159

Mandatory

Front 160

Should

Back 160

Recommended

Front 161

Will

Back 161

Futurity, not a requirement for application of a procedure.

Front 162

LOAs

Back 162

Interfacility

Front 163

SOPs

Back 163

Intrafacility

Front 164

The review and approval authority for LOAs is _____ but may be delegated to ____.

Back 164

• Service Area Office
  
• Air Traffic Representative ATREP, AIr Traffic Manager or Designee, Region Air Defense Liaison Officer RADLO

Front 165

One purpose of ___ is to specify jurisdictional boundaries for each position/sector.

Back 165

SOPs

Front 166

When one aircraft is 40 miles from the antenna and one aircraft is less than 40 miles from the antenna, what is the minimum separation?

Back 166

5 miles

Front 167

Primary radar display depicts the ___ and ___ of objects

Back 167

Position and movement

Front 168

Minimum degree of divergence assigned for departure

Back 168

45 degrees

Front 169

Which type of separation in the en route environment would allow you to place two aircraft with the least distance between aircraft

Back 169

vertical

Front 170

Holding an aircraft is used for

Back 170

• traffic en route
• arrival delays
• weather at destination
• flow control
• spacing

Front 171

Responsible for ensuring that aircraft are separated from other aircraft, ground vehicles, and obstructions while taxiing.

Back 171

Ground control

Front 172

Responsible for separating and providing safety alerts to aircraft in the airspace surrounding the airport and aircraft on the active runways.

Back 172

Local control

Front 173

What two positions exchange information for the safe and efficient use of runways and movement areas?

Back 173

Local control and ground control

Front 174

The controller position that works to ensure that the overall operation is at its greatest capacity while maintaining safety standards.

Back 174

Tower coordinator

Front 175

Where no TRACON exists, the ____ provides approach control services.

Back 175

ARTCC

Front 176

An ATC facility that uses radar and nonradar capabilities to provide control services to aircraft arriving, departing, and transiting airspace in a terminal area.

Back 176

TRACON

Front 177

A row of in-pavement yellow lights across a taxiway (some locations may use a pair of elevated flashing lights on either side of the taxiway.

Back 177

Runway guard lights

Front 178

Measures designed to adjust the flow of traffic into a given airspace, along a given route, or bound for a given airport, so as to ensure the most effective utilization of airspace.

Back 178

Flow control

Front 179

Airmen's information is disseminated by the following methods:

Back 179

• Aeronautical charts
• Flight Information Publications in book form, known as "FLIP"

Front 180

Permanent directives and stay in effect until cancelled

Back 180

Orders

Front 181

Temporary directives and expire one year from their effective date or have a cancellation date before one year.

Back 181

Notices

Front 182

Add, delete, or modify information or instructions in orders.

Back 182

Changes

Front 183

Issued by organizations other than the originator of the basic directive to provide additional internal guidance or instructions pertaining to the basic directive.

Back 183

Supplements

Front 184

The airport rotating beacon is turned on at night under what circumstances?

Back 184

At night or during restricted weather conditions. Operation of the rotating beacon during the day indicates that the surface visibility is less than 3 statute miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 ft.