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68 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Working together in Joint Warfare constitutes _____ concept.
a. Team b. Adult c. Child d. Group |
a. Team |
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Competent joint war fighters must be skilled in thinking about all of the following EXCEPT
a. having a joint perspective. b. conducting force shaping training. c. applying strategic and operational art. d. thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities |
b. conducting force shaping training |
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Which value DOES NOT have special impact on the conduct of joint operations?
a. Integrity b. Competency. c. Physical courage. d. Excellence in all we do. |
d. Excellence in all we do. |
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Which goal is achieved as the result of effective unified action?
a. Base. b. Global. c. National. d. Developing. |
c. National |
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Which term is NOT used in reference to unified action in the military?
a. Integration. b. Coordination. c. Familiarization. d. Synchronization. |
c. Familiarization |
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The secretary of a military department operates that department under all of the following EXCEPT:
a. control. b. planning. c. authority. d. direction. |
b. planning. |
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The commanders of geographic commands are each assigned a geographic
a. deputy commander. b. assistant commander. c. area of responsibility. d. temporary duty location. |
c. area of responsibility. |
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Which of the following is NOT a functional command?
a. United States of Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM) b. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM) c. United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) d. United States Transportaion Command (USTRANSCOM)
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b. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM) |
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Unity of command means that all forces operate under ______ _______.
a. single commander. b. a joint force commander. c. the Secretary of the Army. d. the Secretary of the Air Force. |
a. single commander. |
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_______ authorizations were reduced during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 to save money?
a. Programs. b. Manpower. c. Equipment. d. Additional duties.
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b. Manpower. |
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Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 enabled reductions at base level to deliver quality service to meets ________ delivery goal?
a. Tactical b. National c. Strategic d. Operational |
c. Strategic |
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The information technology solution provided to commanders to support their personnel needs is better known as?
a. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) b. Personnel Service Delivery Model (PSDM) c. Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM) d. Automated Records Management System (ARMS) |
c. Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM) |
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Which element is NOT part of the new military Personnel Section (MPS) structure?
a. Customer support b. Career development c. Career enhancement d. Force management operations |
c. Career enhancement |
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Manpower, Personnel, and Services structures were NOT organized to _________.
a. reduce overhead. b. minimize overtime. c. achieve efficiencies. d. maximize customer service. |
b. minimize overtime. |
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During phase I of Mission Support Squadron testing (MSS), each organization was realigned and consolidated into how many flights?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 |
b. 5 |
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How many flights comprise the Force Support Squadron (FSS)?
a. two b. three c. four d. five |
d. five |
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The stadardized Force Support Squadron (FSS) structure was comprised of all the following flights EXCEPT:
a. Force management b. Force development c. Sustainment services d. Community services |
a. Force management |
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Within the Personnel Services Deliver (PSD) plan, what group of personnel absorbed some of the work formerly done in the Military Personnel Flight (MPF)?
a. Total Force contact center (TSFC) b. Air Force personnel center (AFPC) c. Commander's action group (CAG) d. Commander's support staff (CSS) |
d. Commander's support staff (CSS) |
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Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC), when personnel specialists were asked a question they could NOT answer, they contacted the _________.
a. Numbered Air Force (NAF) b. Major command (MAJCOM) c. Military personnel section chief d. Manpower and personnel flight commander |
b. Major Command (MAJCOM) |
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If you are in the rank of E-6 or Below and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel CANNOT answer,
a. a trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question. b. the person will take a message and call you back within 12 hours. c. the person will take a message and call you back within 48 hours. d. the person will locate a subject matter expert (SME) to answer your question. |
a. a trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question.
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Which group is NOT serviced by Military Personnel Section (MPS) personnelist?
a. Air Force (AF) retirees. b. AF dependents. c. AF active duty members. d. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members. |
d. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members. |
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The Military Personnel Section (MPS) was created based on ________ concept?
a. Streamlining. b. Transformation. c. Do more with less. d. Learning organization. |
d. Learning organization. |
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The difference between the new concept of the Military Personnel Section (MPS) and the old concept of the Miltary Personnel Flight (MPF) is, rather than assign specific individuals to specific tasks,
a. the base training manager will assist the personnelist. b. each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area. c. manning assistance will be requested to assist the personnelist with the task. d. each personnelist is responsible for learning manpower, personnel, and services tasks. |
b. each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area. |
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Once Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 hit the ground running, many of the daily operations of the commander's support staff (CSS) was ________.
a. dissolved. b. streamlined. c. reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron. d. reassigned to the most knowledgeable base agencies. |
c. reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron. |
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Which personnel action is NOT required to be completed by commander-appointed individuals?
a. Allocation notices. b. Decoration processing. c. Performance feedback notices. d. Enlisted/Officer performance reports. |
b. Decoration processing. |
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How many personnel activities are there?
a. Two. b. Three. c. Four. d. Five.
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a. Two |
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Which office is responsible for the personnel activities?
a. Customer support element. b. Military personnel section. c. Commanders suppport staff. d. Force management operations element. |
b. Military personnel section |
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A unit is considered a Geographically Separated Unit (GSU) if it is NOT within what driving time (one way) of its servicing Military Personnel Section (MPS)?
a. One hour. b. Two hours. c. Three hours. d. Four hours.
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a. One hour |
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Who determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the Satellite Personnel Activity (SPA)?
a. Major command commander. b. Numbered Air Force commander. c. Manpower and personnel flight commander. d. Headquarters Air Force personnel center commander. |
c. Manpower and personnel flight commander. |
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When AF population does NOT warrant a Military Personnel Secton (MPS), what authority may request to establish a SPA?
a. Major command (MAJCOM) b. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) c. Force support squadron commander (FSS/CC). d. Manpower and personnel flight commander (FSM). |
a. Major command (MAJCOM)
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The classification structure was designed to ensure the Air Force consisted of the proper number of people, with the proper level of _______ ?
a. Authority. b. Experience. c. Knowledge. d. Responsibility. |
d. Responsibility |
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The duties and responsibilities of each rank were designed to ensure that each person at each rank had the proper level _______.
a. duties. b. experience. c. knowledge. d. responsibilities. |
c. knowledge. |
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Which criteria for career progression is NOT provided by the classification system?
a. Promotion. b. Retention. c. Upgrade. d. Award. |
a. Promotion. |
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An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a _______.
a. listing of experience needed to qualify for position. b. grouping of people with precise skills and qualifications. c. listing of training classes needed to qualify for a position. d. grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications. |
d. grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications. |
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The list of duties and responisibilites for any enlisted specialty can be found in the ________.
a. Recruiter's Directory. b. Enlisted Classification Directory. c. Enlisted Force Structure Directory. d. Retraining Classification Directory.
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b. Enlisted Classification Directory. |
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Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify postions or persons NOT elsewhere identified?
a. reporting identifiers. b. special duty identifiers. c. Air Force specialty codes. d. special experience identifiers. |
a. reporting identifiers. |
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Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify experience and training NOT otherwise identified in the personnel data system?
a. Reporting. b. Special duty. c. Military status. d. Special experience. |
d. Special experience. |
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Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify manpower positions and persons performing duties NOT within a special career field?
a. reporting identifiers. b. special duty identifiers. c. Air Force specialty codes. d. special experience identifiers. |
b. special duty identifiers.
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An individual's ineligibility to retain the desired specialty code, will be characterized as ______.
a. disqualified. b. released. c. revoked. d. denied.
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a. disqualified. |
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When declared disqualified for reasons within control, prior to initiating restraining, what must commanders consider?
a. Reenlistment eligibility. b. Career intent. c. Separation. d. Manning. |
c. Separation. |
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Which of the following is NOT an example of disqualification for reasons within a member's control?
a. A medical condition. b. Loss of security clearance. c. Drug or alcohol involvement. d. Failure to progress in training. |
a. A medical condition. |
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What is NOT a specific duty of the personnelist career field?
a. performs personnel actions. b. creates, maintains and audits personnel records. c. conducts interview to determine individual interests. d. advises officers and airmen on military personnel issues and programs. |
c. conducts interview to determine individual interests. |
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Responsibilities of the personnelist does NOT include having to _________.
a. administer the ccasualty program. b. update computerized personnel data c. oversee personnel activities and functions. d. record information in unit, field, and Personnel Data System (PDS) records. |
c. oversee personnel activities and functions. |
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United States documents that contain foreign government information are marked on the ______.
a. front cover only. b. front cover or first page. c. middle of the front cover. d. front cover or back cover. |
b. front cover or first page. |
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The first marking in the subject line of an E-mail will be the overall classification of the E-mail. Which symbol is NOT used for this action?
a. (S) for secret. b. (TS) for top secret. c. (C) for confidential. d. (U) for unclassified. |
b. (TS) for top secret. |
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When classified documents are removed from secured storage, they are kept under constant surveillance, which standard form (SF) cover sheets shall be placed on all documents?
a. SF 701, SF 702, SF 703 b. SF 701, SF 703, SF 704 c. SF 702, SF 703, SF 704 d. SF 703, SF 704, SF 705 |
d. SF 703, SF 704, SF 705 |
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A one-time verbal attestation for all military and civilians with a top secret (TS) eligibility or access to a specially controlled access category or compartment is given under the authority of which office?
a. The Secretary of Defense. b. The Department of Defense. c. The Secretary of the Air Force. d. The Department of the Air Force. |
a. The Secretary of Defense. |
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When a person refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for access to classified information, the commander (or equivalent) or staff agency chief does all of the following EXCEPT:
a. initiates a security incident report. b. denies the individual access to classified information c. initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF). d. grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed. |
d. grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed. |
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Personnel requiring access to secure rooms containing classified information can enter ______.
a. with the apporpriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information. b. with only a secret security clearance even if the information needed is marked top secret. c. without an escort as long as he or she shows identification. d. with only a letter from his or her commander. |
a. with the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information |
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Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?
a. The material may get confiscated. b. You will bring attention to yourself. c. The foreign government may want to take it from you. d. The material may not be important enough to hand carry. |
a. The material may get confiscated. |
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When couriers are transporting laptops and disks containing classified information, they must ______.
a. travel with another authorized courier. b. inform the flight attendant of what they are carrying. c. communicate to the passengers what they are carrying. d. keep laptops and disks under constant surveillance or in secure facilities. |
d. keep laptops and disks under constant surveillance or in secure facilities. |
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When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. password protect laptops. b. completely erase laptops and disks before transporting. c. mark laptops and disks according to DOD 2500, 1-R Information Security Program d. keep laptops and disks containing classified information under constant surveillance |
b. completely erase laptops and disks before transporting. |
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As personnelist, your MAIN job is to __________.
a. complete training. b. process paperwork. c. perpare for deployments. d. provide service to customers. |
d. provide service to customers. |
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Documentation is NOT required for hand carrying classified material to activities __________.
a. within governement buildings. b. within non-duty days. c. within an installation. d. within duty days |
c. within an installation. |
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The FIRST thing you notice when meeting someone is their appearance, so it is so important to maintain a professional appearance?
a. at all times. b. when working in an office. c. only when helping customers. d. during open ranks inspection. |
a. at all times. |
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Which communication skill is considered to be the MOST neglected?
a. Hearing. b. Writing. c. Listening. d. Speaking.
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c. Listening. |
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In respect to the Privacy Act, Department of Defense (DOD) policy allows individuals to do all of the following EXCEPT?
a. correct or amend their records. b. allow individuals unwarranted access to other people's record. c. allow individuals access to a copy of all or any portion of their record. d. protect individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy. |
b. allow individuals unwarranted access to other people's record.
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Release of personal information to third parties is appropriate when the subject _________.
a. agrees in writing. b. is under investigation. c. agrees over the telephone. d. is considering civilian employment.
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a. agrees in writing. |
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What information does NOT require written consent from the subject before being released?
a. Number, name and sex of dependents. b. Civilian education degrees. c. Basic pay information. d. Marital status. |
c. Basic pay information. |
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Written consent is required for release of what information?
a. Age. b. Rank. c. Civilian salary. d. Air Force specialty code. |
a. Age. |
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When balancing the public interest against the individual's probable loss of privacy, all we considered factors to NOT consider EXCEPT:
a. date of request. b. circumstances. c. proposed use. d. purpose. |
a. date of request. |
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________ system was designed to consolidate military personnel record processing efforts?
a. Military personnel data system (MilPDS) b. Virtual military personnel system (vMPF) c. Personnel records display application (PRDA) d. Automated records management system (ARMS) |
d. Automated records management system (ARMS) |
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Which is NOT a reason for the consolidation effort of military record into a single system?
a. Reduce manpower and costs. b. Reduce customer inquires. c. Improve customer service. d. Improve efficiency. |
b. Reduce customer inquiries. |
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Within the electronic record processing system, what application is considered an electronic viewer containing role based access (RBA)?
a. Military personnel data system (MilPDS). b. Virtual military personnel system (vMPF). c. Personnel records display application (PRDA). d. Automated records management system (ARMS). |
c. Personnel records display application (PRDA). |
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Personnel records display application (PRDA) is considered an application module of what system?
a. Virtual military personnel system (vMPF). b. Military personnel data system (MilPDS). c. Virtual personnel services center (vPSC). d. Air Force portal (AFP). |
c. Virtual personnel services center (vPSC). |
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Which personnel records display application (PRDA) does NOT require the establishment and authentication of the user's identity?
a. Virtual military personnel system (vMPF). b. Air Force personnel center secure (AFPC). c. Virtual personnel services center (vPSC). d. Air Force portal (AFP). |
a. Virtual military personnel system (vMPF). |
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Role based access (RBA) provides a means to name and describe relationships between individuals and rights, which means does NOT allow a user to acquire a role of access?
a. System. b. Attached. c. Assigned. d. Associated. |
b. Attached. |
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Custodians are required to make the Officer Command Selection Record Group (OCSRGp) for most line of the Air Force (LAF) officers in the grade of captain after how many years of active commissioned service?
a. Three. b. Five. c. Seven. d. Nine.
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c. Seven. |
