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70 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
a. Air Combat Command (ACC).
b. Air Training Command (ATC).
c. Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight
(MTF) training course?
Maintenance Orientation
a. Any 7-level course.
b. Weight and Balance.
c. Maintenance Orientation.
d. General Technical Order System.
How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review
and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
Semi-annually
a. Annually.
b. Semi-annually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.
In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by
the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
MSgt
a. TSgt.
b. MSgt.
c. SMSgt.
d. CMSgt.
Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
a. access to Distance Learning courseware.
b. access to special certification roster criteria listings.
c. visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages”
board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update
information?
Application Problems
a. Open suspenses.
b. System upgrades.
c. Application problems.
d. Changes to your user roles.
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow,
and maintenance qualification training?
II
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that
complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and
training detachment (TD) courses?
Maintenance Qualification
a. Maintenance qualification.
b. Maintenance refresher.
c. On-the-job.
d. Ancillary.
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT)
briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
Monthly
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or
incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many
days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
30
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor
before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
Unit Training Manager
a. Operations officer.
b. Group commander.
c. Unit training manager.
d. Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.
Manpower authorizations are
Funded
a. funded.
b. unfunded.
c. unvalidated.
d. both funded and unfunded.
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
Monthly
a. weekly.
b. monthly.
c. quarterly.
d. semiannually.
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting
maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
12 hours
a. 12 hours.
b. 13 hours.
c. 14 hours.
d. 15 hours.
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour
shift up to
16 hours
a. 14 hours.
b. 15 hours.
c. 16 hours.
d. 18 hours.
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply
interface and resolving supply support problems?
Maintenance Supply Liason
a. Maintenance supply liaison.
b. Maintenance supply support.
c. Maintenance operations center.
d. Maintenance data system analysis.
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)
a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS).
b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
c. Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).
d. Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).
Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
a. Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
b. Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
c. Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the
host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
30
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an
asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
XB3
a. XF3.
b. XD2.
c. XD1.
d. XB3.
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
30
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and
re-mark with a new expiration date?
II
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to
meet local manufacture requirements?
Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)
a. MXG Commander.
b. MXG Superintendent.
c. MXG Deputy Commander.
d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering
data?
Engineering Data Service Center
a. Audio Visual Center.
b. Engineering Data Service Center.
c. AF Primary Standards Laboratory.
d. Communication and Information System.
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
Cloudy Water
a. Oil sheen on standing water.
b. Stressed vegetation.
c. Stains on ground.
d. Cloudy water.
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to
notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
Section Supervisor
a. Operations officer.
b. Section supervisor.
c. Squadron commander.
d. Squadron safety monitor.
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
b. DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.
c. DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.
d. DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Squadron Commander
a. Section supervisor.
b. Squadron Commander.
c. Flight Commander/Chief.
d. Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as
a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
IIB
a. I.
b. III.
c. IIB.
d. IIA.
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss
a. AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.
b. AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.
c. DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.
d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable
authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
a. Flight Service Center (FSC).
b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
c. Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
d. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose
recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
Mission Support Group (MSG) Commander
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander.
c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
d. Maintenance Group (MXG) commander.
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a
combination of two or more precious metals?
C
a. A.
b. C.
c. G.
d. P.
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed
during the day?
D04, Daily Document Register
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an
urgency of need (UND) code of A?
D18, Priority Monitor Report
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and
bench stock supply support?
M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security
cages and alarmed rooms?
Host Installation Commander
a. Aircraft commander.
b. Host installation commander.
c. Operations Group Commander.
d. Mission Support Group commander.
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or
confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished
every
3 hours
a. hour.
b. 2 hours.
c. 3 hours.
d. 4 hours.
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional
check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
a. Flight commander/Chief.
b. Maintenance Group commander.
c. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
d. MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts
request?
Customer
a. Customer.
b. Maintenance Supply support.
c. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and
pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
AR or BR
a. 1A or JA.
b. AR or BR.
c. AA or AM.
d. BM or CM.
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must
Maintenance coordinate with?
LRS Material Management Element
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center.
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance.
c. MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis.
d. LRS material management element.
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter
supply point monitor?
Semiannually
a. Annually.
b. Semiannually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB),
supply personnel notify the
Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
a. Operations Officer.
b. Aircraft Section flight chief.
c. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
d. Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated
scheduler.
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report
is submitted?
Supply Discrepancy Report
a. Deficiency Report (DR).
b. Supply Discrepancy Report.
c. Maintenance cross-tell report.
d. Product Quality Deficiency Report.
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the
submitting organization or group?
Originating Point
a. Originator.
b. Action Point.
c. Screening Point.
d. Originating Point.
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting
organization?
Action Point
a. Originator.
b. Action Point.
c. Screening Point.
d. Originating Point.
Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to
the Screening Point within
24 hours
a. 8 hours.
b. 16 hours.
c. 24 hours.
d. 32 hours.
Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office
(TODO) duty?
Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
a. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
b. Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.
c. Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.
d. Resolving TO availability problems.
What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing
maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and
management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation
a. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
b. Maintenance Operations Center.
c. Maintenance Management Analysis.
d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG)
section?
Quality Assurance
a. Quality Assurance.
b. Engine Management.
c. Maintenance Operations Center.
d. Maintenance Data System Analysis.
Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
Standard
a. Urgent.
b. Routine.
c. Standard.
d. Emergency.
Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
A4U
a. A4MT.
b. A4YE.
c. A4U.
d. A4BM.
Who designates cannibalization authorities?
Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander
a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.
c. MXG Vice Commander.
d. MXG Superintendent.
If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to
notify
Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D)
a. Quality Assurance.
b. Programs and Resources Flight.
c. Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).
d. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
Weapons Loading Operations
a. Weapons loading operations.
b. Radiographic inspections.
c. Fuel system repair.
d. Aircraft on jacks.
Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
aircraft status changes
a. air aborts.
b. late takeoffs.
c. ground aborts.
d. aircraft status changes.
Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
Applicable Impoundment Authority
a. Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.
b. MXG Impoundment Release Authority.
c. Applicable Impoundment Authority.
d. Applicable Squadron commander.
Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for
control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance
industrial areas?
Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
a. Wing Commander (WG/CC).
b. Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV).
c. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).
d. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to
identify tools and equipment?
9
a. 8.
b. 9.
c. 10.
d. 11.
The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
Quality Assurance Section
a. Maintenance Flight.
b. Quality Assurance section.
c. Engine Management section.
d. Maintenance Operations Center.
The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager
within how many hours of a FOD incident?
24
a. 8.
b. 12.
c. 24.
d. 48.
Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not
considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?
Explosive Munitions
a. Bolt.
b. Panel.
c. Safety pin.
d. Explosive munitions.
A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting
a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.
b. AFI 10–2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.
c. AFI 91–224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.
d. AFI 91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports.
Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance
recovery operation?
AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management
a. AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.
b. AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
c. AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.
d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the
required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)
a. Wing Inspector General.
b. MAJCOM Inspector General.
c. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
d. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation
Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance
(QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
30
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is
an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
Personnel Evaluation
a. Quality Verification Inspection.
b. Management Inspection.
c. Personnel Evaluation.
d. Special Inspection.
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is
performed after a technician completes a task?
Quality Verification Inspection
a. Special Inspection.
b. Personnel Evaluation.
c. Management Inspection.
d. Quality Verification Inspection.
In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s
interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
Lead Command
a. Air Force Mobility Command.
b. Quality Assurance.
c. Inspector General.
d. Lead command.