Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
423 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which functions form a maintenance group
|
Maintenance operations
Maintenance Aircraft Maintenance and QA |
|
Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
|
Maintenance Operations Center
|
|
When you are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?
|
Maintenance
|
|
what does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?
|
Specific AFSC
|
|
what will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?
|
Craftsman
|
|
What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
|
Career development course
|
|
How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?
|
48
|
|
Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series
|
91
|
|
Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to aviod potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?
|
Safety-toed boots
|
|
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
|
21-101
|
|
How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
|
10ft to the front and 5ft from the rear
|
|
When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the
|
Pilot
|
|
Foreigh object damage (FOD) is normally caused by
|
People
|
|
During flight-line and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
|
Carbon Monoxide
|
|
Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
|
Gases
|
|
Whos is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
|
Supervisor
|
|
What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?
|
Mild soap
|
|
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
|
Unauthorized entry
|
|
Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and
|
Date the waste began to accumulate
|
|
A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
|
Dilution
|
|
From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?
|
Weapons system
|
|
What system has the purpose of establishing a firm control over repair cycle assets to make sure they are repaired at base level or sent to a repair facility as fast as possible?
|
Repair Cycle Support System
|
|
Which supply document provides a means for organiziations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?
|
Daily Document Register (DO4)
|
|
Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization's
|
Mission
|
|
Which publication provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Tecnical Order (AFTO) Form 350 tag?
|
TO 00-20-2
|
|
If you are temporary duty (TDY) and both the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) are not available, what form would you use to order and engine part?
|
AF IMT 2005
|
|
If you need detailed info concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Info Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)
|
23-110
|
|
Serviceable items, when recieved from supply and ready to use, each have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form
|
1574
|
|
Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached DD Form
|
1575
|
|
Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
|
Shelf-life
|
|
When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
|
Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life
|
|
In the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents, deficiency reports (DR) are forwarded to
|
Higher Headquarters
|
|
Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?
|
Equipment authorization inventory data
|
|
To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
|
Commander
|
|
When should new equipment account custodians recieve training?
|
Before signing for the account
|
|
The first section of a TO number identifies the
|
Catagory and the aircraft misin type in the TO
|
|
In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
|
Index
|
|
Which TO describes the Air Force TO system?
|
00-5-1
|
|
Which type of techincal manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
|
Job guide
|
|
What section of the IPB contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB
|
Introduction
|
|
What TCTO category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serous injury to personnel?
|
Immediate action
|
|
What TCTO category has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals bordering the first page?
|
Urgent action
|
|
Which TO covers all info concerning the Air Force TO system?
|
00-5-1
|
|
Who originates TOs?
|
Equipment manufacturer
|
|
Who makes sure the AFTO info management tool (IMT) Form 22 is calid and warrants submission?
|
Supervisor of initiator
|
|
What are the two calssifications of failures in the reliablity centered maintenace (RCM) approach?
|
Potentail and functional
|
|
In the reliablity centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
|
On condition
|
|
Which program integrates hardware, software,maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health
|
Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D)
|
|
The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
|
early detection of performance degradtion and/or failures
|
|
Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program
|
Propulsion and nondestructive inspection
|
|
Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?
|
War fighters
|
|
What drives the creation of a centralized rotable pool (CRP)?
|
Customer wait time and transportation constraints
|
|
When a centralized repair facility (CRF) ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for entering all appropriate documentation is completed?
|
CRF Personnel
|
|
Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by
|
providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability
|
|
Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and
|
contract field teams (CFT)
|
|
A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
|
Maintain accurate and timely engine inventories
|
|
The key to making the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) work is
|
Accurate and timely data at the lowest level
|
|
You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on the following AFTO Forms
|
95
|
|
What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?
|
Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.
|
|
Which is NOT a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective
|
Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
|
|
How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?
|
2
|
|
You should wear eye protection when you work
|
With tools that may cause flying particles
|
|
What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?
|
Tool bag
|
|
Which TO covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches?
|
33K6 Series
|
|
If you must torque a sequence of 3 or more bolts,
|
use a staggered sequence
|
|
If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gauge would you use?
|
Thickness gauge
|
|
The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
|
1 inch
|
|
The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
|
Ten-thousandths of an inch
|
|
What feature is common to all dial indicators?
|
Ability to amplify movement greatly
|
|
What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?
|
Dry cleaning solvent
|
|
If the input into the Fluke 8025A meter is over the range being used, what will the digital display show?
|
OL
|
|
How many range settings can be used when measuring voltage with the Fluke 8025A?
|
4
|
|
What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?
|
32
|
|
Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by
|
the fiber optics
|
|
What are the types of views available with the rigid borescope?
|
Direct and Lateral
|
|
When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you're inspecting?
|
Distal tip light guides
|
|
Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?
|
Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle
|
|
What type of bolt should be used where shearing stress occurs?
|
Clevis
|
|
Do NOT use self-locking nuts on
|
Engine joints
|
|
Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F?
|
Nonmetallic self-locking nuts
|
|
What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads where the absence of clearance is essential?
|
Tapered
|
|
Cotter pins are used for safetying various units such as
|
castellated nuts
|
|
When lock wiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
|
8 to 10
|
|
You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
|
The color-code bands placed around the tubing or hoses
|
|
What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?
|
6
|
|
When you recieve an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable fom and then
|
Check the compressor inlet
|
|
When disassembling the oil filter, why should you always use a clean container?
|
To prevent false contaminant indications
|
|
What is used to seal male flared-type drain fittings on an engine being prepared for shipment?
|
Caps
|
|
To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
|
filler valve on the front end of the container
|
|
What color is a serviceable humidity indicator on a shipping container?
|
Blue
|
|
What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?
|
A soap-water solution
|
|
To determine whether an engine is stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the
|
top half on the right panel of the container
|
|
Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
|
Release all pressure before removing lid
|
|
How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
|
4
|
|
Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
|
Preservation run and fuel system preservation
|
|
To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with
|
Fuel
|
|
When can you consider a depreserved engine ready for service?
|
Only after a ground check run of the engine has been performed
|
|
When metal is attacked by a chemical corrosion, it will start
|
on the surface of the metal
|
|
On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to
|
prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use
|
|
Which part of the AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, may the AFTO Form 245, Industrial/Support Equipment Record (Continuation Sheet), be used for?
|
V.
|
|
An aircraft taciing at a steady speed can be used to demonstrate
|
Newton's first law of motion
|
|
Which law may you sum up with two words: action and reaction?
|
Newton's third law of motion
|
|
Which type of duct would decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of a gas as it passes through?
|
Divergent
|
|
The ability to do work is the definition of
|
Energy
|
|
What does fuel for an engine represent?
|
Potential energy
|
|
The temperature of compressed air in a jet engine must be raised to
|
increase energy
|
|
which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?
|
Combustion
|
|
Which method of producing thrust does a turboprop engine use?
|
Accelerating a large mass of air through a small velocity change
|
|
Which type of horsepower is delivered to the propeller for useful work?
|
Brake
|
|
Which type of horsepower determines the performance of the engine-propeller combination?
|
Equivalent shaft
|
|
The two fluids combined to make up common jet fuel are
|
Kerosene and gasoline
|
|
Which is not a method of heat transfer?
|
Penetration
|
|
The air temperature of a jet engine gradually rises across the compressor to the diffuser outlet as a result of
|
compression
|
|
Where is the highest point of temerature reached in an engine?
|
Combustion section
|
|
Which engine component meters fuel for combustion?
|
Fuel control
|
|
What happens to the energy that is absorbed by the turbine wheel?
|
The energy is returned to the compressor
|
|
On an average, what percent of all the energy produced by the fuel is required to maintain the engine operation cycle?
|
60
|
|
What directs the gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine?
|
Turbine stator
|
|
A jet engine derives its name from its design in that is uses
|
a gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor
|
|
Vane-type fuel pumps used in jet engines are similar to
|
sliding-vane air compressors
|
|
Which condition reduces the efficiency of a centrifugal compressor?
|
Pressure pulsations
|
|
Stationary vanes positioned between rotor discs in a compressor are used to
|
direct air and increase pressure
|
|
The jet engine compressor that is cheaper to manufacture is the
|
Centrifugal type, because of its fewer parts
|
|
The percentage of combustion efficiency of a agas turbine is usually between
|
95 and 100
|
|
What is the most probable cause of a flameout of a jet engine flying at 40,000 feet with a constant engine RPM of 50 percent?
|
The RPM is too low
|
|
carbon monoxide gas is poisonous and odorless, and has
|
no color
|
|
What is the most chemially correct ratio for burning fuel in a combustion chamber?
|
15:1
|
|
The inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber are formed by
|
interlocking stainless-steel bands
|
|
Fuel that accumulates after a failed start is
|
drained overboard by a drain system
|
|
The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be a removed in a specific order because of the
|
combustion chamber crossover tubes
|
|
What is the most common type of fuel nozzle system?
|
Pressure-automizing
|
|
What type of flame speed are swirl-type fuel nozzles normally used to provide?
|
High
|
|
What is placed in front of the rotating blades in a multiple-stage turbine engine?
|
Turbine nozzle vane assembly
|
|
The "fir tree" method of attaching turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc is perferred because
|
of the temperatue differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades.
|
|
Which method of attaching the turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc is used most frequently?
|
Series of grooves or notches broached in the rim of the turbine rotor disc.
|
|
The echaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the
|
Jet nozzle
|
|
The purpose of the exhaust duct is to
|
Straighten the exhause gas-flow
|
|
Which component in the augmentor creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity?
|
FLameholder
|
|
How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing?
|
3
|
|
Before inspection new jet engine bearings, you should
|
remove the preservative coating
|
|
The most commonly used bearing removal tools include
|
Arbor presses and bearing pullers.
|
|
Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of bearing parts striking together?
|
Nicks
|
|
Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of small particles of foreign material becoming lodged between the rollers?
|
Grooves
|
|
Which type of bearing defext results from inadequate lubrication?
|
Galling
|
|
Before you install separable bearings, you must ensure the
|
bearings are a matched set
|
|
Of the following, the recommended method of epanding a bearing race before installation is to use a
|
hot-oil bath
|
|
Which component reduces the engine rotor speed to the RPM required for accessories?
|
Reduction geartrain
|
|
The reduction gearbox on an F100-PW-220 engine reduces speed between the main fuel gear pump and the engine-driven main gearbos by
|
52 percent
|
|
To cause an accessory in a jet engine to operate at its most optimum speed, design engineers must
|
change the gear ratio.
|
|
On a F108 engine, which component serves as the mechanical coupling between the compressor rotor and the transfer gearbos (TGB)
|
Inlet gearbox (IGB)
|
|
On the T56 turboprop engine, there are mounting pads on the aft side of the accessory drive for the fuel control, fuel pump, and
|
external scavenge oil pump
|
|
On the T56 turboprop engine, which compressor section assebly disperses compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers?
|
Diffuser
|
|
On the T56 turboprop engine, at the aft ends, what holds the combustion chambers (liners) in place?
|
Turbine inlet vane assemblies
|
|
When the engine is running above 23 percent RPM, the propeller breakis held in the released position by
|
Reduction gearbox (RGB) system oil pressure
|
|
Torque is transferred from the power unit to the safety coupling on the reduction gearbox (RGB) by the
|
torque shaft
|
|
THe purpose of the T56 safety coupling is to
|
disconnect the power section from the RGB assembly
|
|
FOr the safety coupling to disconnect the power unit from the RGB, torque must reach between
|
-4200 and -7200 inch-pounds
|
|
The torque shaft can recouple to the RGB, if the torque decreases below approx.
|
-6000 inch-pounds
|
|
The type of bearings used to suppor the T56 compressor rotor at the front and rear include the
|
Roller bearing on the front and ball bearing on the rear.
|
|
The entire weight of the T56 turbine section is supported by the
|
combustion section outer case
|
|
After engine shutdown, fuel that accumulates in the T56 engine combustion section is
|
vented overboard by drain valves
|
|
The purpose of the turbine section is to convert
|
Energy into torque
|
|
What are used to retain the turbine buckets in the first-stage wheel of the T56-A-15 engine?
|
Cover plate seals
|
|
The AE2100D3 engine's torquemeter assembly consists of the torquemeter shaft, the reference shaft, the torquemeter housing and the
|
Anti-icing shroud
|
|
The bottom surface of the AE2100D3 air inlet housing provides the mounting pad for the
|
Power unit accessory drive (PUAD)
|
|
The AE2100D3 power unit accessory drive (PUAD) is mounted on the bottom of the
|
forward end of the compressor sir inlet housing
|
|
The AE2100D3 engine mount is divided into how many major structures?
|
Two
|
|
The T700 engine has a modular concept that allows for the replacement of entire
|
subsystems
|
|
What routes the oil and fuel through the T700 engine accessory gearbox (AGB)?
|
Internal passages
|
|
Which T700 engine section module receives the air for engine operation and seperates foreign particles from the air by using an inlet particle separator (IPS)?
|
Cold
|
|
The T700 engine A-sump output shaft assembly provides a mounting surface for the
|
No 1 and No 2 bearings
|
|
Which T700 engine module extracts most of the energy from the exhaust from the exhaust gases for output power?
|
Power turbine
|
|
The T700 power turbine drive shaft assembly is made up of a
|
drive shaft and torque sensor tube
|
|
Power to drive the AGB on the F108 engine is transmitted from the
|
accessory major module
|
|
F108 structual rigidity is obtained with a short length and by having only two main structures that are called
|
mainframes
|
|
What percentage of the total engine thrust does the secondary airflow on the F108 engine produce?
|
80
|
|
On the F108 engine, the inlet gearbox (IGB) contains a horizontal bevel gear, a radial bevel gear, and core engine thrust bearing
|
No 3 (Ball)
|
|
On the F108 engine, the purpose of the HPT nozzle asembly is to accelerate the engine from the combustion gases to drive the
|
HPT rotor
|
|
On the F108 engine, the LPT shaft assembly connects the fan shaft with the
|
LPT rotor
|
|
Which accessory is not found on the F108 AGB?
|
Augmentor pump
|
|
Which turbine stages on an F100-PW-220 engine drive the front compressor?
|
Third and fourth
|
|
What is one advantage of a modular engine?
|
Entire engins are not withheld from service
|
|
External flanges on the F100 engine are referred to by
|
letter designations.
|
|
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the leading edge vanes are hollow
|
so that anti-icing air can flow through them
|
|
The F100-PW-220 core module remote splitter, which divides airflow from the front compressor into fan airflow and primary airflow, is contained in the
|
compressor intermediate case
|
|
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the No 2 bearing package is housed in the
|
Compressor intermediate case
|
|
On an F100-PW-220 engine, which stages of compressor stator vanes are variable?
|
Fourth and fifth
|
|
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the front compressor drive turbine shaft is connected to the front compressor rotor by
|
The turbine drive shaft coupling
|
|
Which component on an F100-PW-220 engine sends a signal to drive the primary actuator flexible shaft?
|
Convergent exhaust nozzle control (CENC)
|
|
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the gearbox module is driven by the rear compressor through
|
A gearbox drive shaft
|
|
How many stages arein the inlet fan module of the F119-PW-100 engine?
|
Three
|
|
Where is No 2 bearing located in the F119-PW-100 engine?
|
Intermediate case
|
|
What stage of compressor air provides anti-icing to the inlet guide vanes of the F119-PW-100 engine?
|
9th
|
|
Where is the total temperature sensor (Tt2) located on a F119-PW-100 engine?
|
inside the fan inlet guide vane case at the 5:30 position.
|
|
Which is not a part of the core module of a F119-PW-100 engine?
|
Low pressure compressor.
|
|
How many stages are in the HPC of a F119-PW-100 engine?
|
6
|
|
How many fuel nozzles are mounted on the diffuser case of the F119-PW-100 engine?
|
24
|
|
What drives the inlet fan module (IFM) in the F119-PW-100 engine?
|
LPT module
|
|
On the F119-PW-100 engine, which of the following is not attached to the gearbox assembly?
|
Augmentor fuel control
|
|
How many fuel nozzles are in the augmento assembly of the F119-PW-100 engine?
|
16
|
|
What is the composition of JP-8 fuel?
|
Gasoline and kerosene
|
|
At room temp, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline?
|
Four
|
|
Jet aircraft operation at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system's susceptiblity to an icing condition, further aggravated by the
|
higher viscosity of jet fuels
|
|
The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of
|
Flameout
|
|
The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
|
heat the fuel and cool the oil.
|
|
During a visual inspection, how can you tell the filter is clogged?
|
A differential pressure indicator is actuated
|
|
On a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of the engine?
|
Controlling turbine inlet temperature
|
|
During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of
|
burner pressure
|
|
What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?
|
Electrohydomechanical
|
|
Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?
|
Unified
|
|
Calibration and adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be
|
safety sealed and lockwired
|
|
When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine?
|
DEEC
|
|
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by
|
Fuel
|
|
ON an F100- PW-220 engine, how many modes is the MFC capable of operating in?
|
Two
|
|
Which F100-PW-220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?
|
P&D valve
|
|
Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW-220 engine?
|
13th
|
|
Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW-220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the
|
MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles
|
|
ON the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly?
|
2 gear; 1 boost
|
|
On a T56 engine, what controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve?
|
Compressor inlet pressure
|
|
Which T56 engine component receives 120% of the engine fuel requirement?
|
TD valve
|
|
In addition to the visual inspection, what other type of inspection does the T56 engine fuel nozzle require?
|
Spray pattern
|
|
In what position must the TD valve switches be placed in order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative?
|
NULL
|
|
On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual *** signal from the thermocouples?
|
TD amplifier
|
|
Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?
|
TD valve.
|
|
On the T56 engine, the manifold pressure switch opens to deenergize the fuel enrichment relay when fuel pressure, in psi, in the manifold reaches
|
50 psi
|
|
When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass?
|
20%
|
|
The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever which component has been replaced?
|
Power section
|
|
When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?
|
Rotogear
|
|
Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and a rotor within a housing?
|
Gerotor
|
|
Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?
|
Continuity
|
|
Which type of oil cooler operates on the same prinviple as a radiator in an automobile?
|
Air
|
|
What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?
|
Labyrinth
|
|
Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their
|
soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily
|
|
When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by
|
spring pressure
|
|
The F100-PW-100 engine oil pressure varies with rear compressor rotor speeds (N2), engine inlet oil temerature, and
|
Oil nozzle condition
|
|
In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?
|
Deaerator
|
|
Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?
|
Dry sump
|
|
Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?
|
Hot tank
|
|
On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the
|
Gearbox
|
|
If the red button on an F100-PW-220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the
|
design pressure differential has been exceeded.
|
|
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use
|
secondary fan airflow as a coolant
|
|
On an F100-PW-220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?
|
Filter assembly bypass valve
|
|
The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for approximately how long during negative G conditions?
|
Minimum of 10 seconds.
|
|
Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine PTO?
|
5
|
|
What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?
|
GMAD
|
|
The ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below
|
4 US gallons
|
|
The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is
|
corrosiveness
|
|
The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is
|
improved safety
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?
|
Project monitor.
|
|
What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
|
Wear metals
|
|
Before taking an oil sample from a drain, drain enough fluid into a container in order to
|
drain off water and sludge
|
|
Under what condition would you not receive and OAP laboratory sample report?
|
The results are normal.
|
|
The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in that the SEM/EDX
|
particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.
|
|
WHat is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes through a magnetic field?
|
Electromagnetic induction
|
|
On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device?
|
Brushes
|
|
Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current?
|
Commutator
|
|
What provides the PTO shaft that is used to drive the CSD?
|
Enging adapter
|
|
The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to
|
Calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station
|
|
What is the primary input power to the main ignition system?
|
28 VDC
|
|
Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20000 volts?
|
Transformer
|
|
On early ignition systems, the high-energy capacitor-type ignition system does not include a
|
Centrifugal switch
|
|
On early ignition systems, what is the purpose of compositors in an ignition system?
|
Step up voltage high enough to break down the air gap of the igniter plug
|
|
The T56 engine speed-sensitive control, measured in RPM, lets electrical current flow to the fuel and ignition system at
|
16% RPM
|
|
On the T56 engine, at what percent of engine RPM is the ignition system turned off?
|
65%
|
|
How many independent circuits are within an F100-PW-100 engine ignition system?
|
Three
|
|
From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power?
|
Engine-mounted alternator stator
|
|
What is the output VAC of the AE2100D3 alternator stator?
|
20 to 40 VAC
|
|
What component monitors the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?
|
NIU
|
|
How many sparks per second can the AE2100D3 ignition exciters produce?
|
4 to 7
|
|
The two air source requirements for a pneumatic starter to operate properly are sufficient
|
Volume and pressure
|
|
The OSG on the cartridge-pneumatic starter consists of a body containing
|
two pinned flyweights and a piston
|
|
WHich item initaly rotates the JFS?
|
Hydraulic motor
|
|
Which type of combustion chamber does the JFS use?
|
Annular
|
|
What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?
|
Turbine plenum
|
|
Which item on the JFS provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer assembly?
|
Turbine plenum
|
|
On the F15 secondary power system CGB, how are the isolation decouplers extended?
|
Hydraulically
|
|
Oil is supplied to the F15 JFS through the
|
CGB oil system
|
|
Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-0critical areas is taken from which engine area?
|
Compressor
|
|
On an F108 engine, which manifold is anti-ice ducted from?
|
Pneumatic
|
|
On an F108-CF-100 engine anti-ice system, what is the purpose of the air injector on the air regulator?
|
Control air temperature and pressure
|
|
On an F110-GE-129 engine, the anti-iciing system prevents detrimental formation and accumulation of ice on front frame struts, forward centerbody, and
|
fan inlet guide vane flaps
|
|
On an F110-GE-129 engine, compressor bleed air is used for anti-icing, customer bleed, and
|
low-pressure turbine cooling functions
|
|
What law does the C-D supersonic inlet use to slow down the airflow?
|
Bernoulli's law
|
|
The compressor bleed system reduces the probability of compressor stall in a dual-rotor engine by
|
reducing the amount of air available for the N2 compressor
|
|
Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go?
|
Into the gas stream to exit the engine
|
|
On an F108-CF-100 engine, the variable bleed valves bleed air from the
|
N1 compressor
|
|
On an F108-CF-100 engine, the direction of the variable bleed valve rotation is conrolled by the
|
fuel gear motor.
|
|
On an F110-GE-129 engine, which component supplies fuel pressure to operate the IGV actuator?
|
Main engine control
|
|
An F110-GE-129 engine contains how many stages of VSV?
|
Three
|
|
What is the purpose of jet engine thrust reversers?
|
DIrect engine thrust in the opposite direction
|
|
On the F117-PW-100 engine, what component controls hydraulic power for actuating both the fan and core thrust reversers?
|
Control valve
|
|
The F117-PW-100 fan thrust reverser door upper right and left sensors send a signal to which channel or channels of the EEC?
|
A channel
|
|
The core reverser lock proximity sensors are mounted on the
|
actuator
|
|
How many linear hydraulic actuators are used to deploy and stow the fan thrust on the F117-PW-100 engine?
|
4
|
|
What is the basic function of an augmentor (afterburner) when it is not operating?
|
Act as the basic engine tailpipe
|
|
What is used to open and close flap-type and iris-type variable-exhaust nozzle systems?
|
Air pressure for both types
|
|
What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and combustion?
|
Fuel/oil cooler
|
|
What are the two main types of augmentor (Afterburner) ignition systems?
|
Torch igniter and pilot burner ring
|
|
The F100 engine augmento's primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from the
|
Convergent exhaust nozzle control
|
|
The F100 engine augmento's exhaust nozzle is variable to control engine
|
Thrust and fan stall margin
|
|
Which 54H60-117 propeller subassembly transmits engine torque to the propeller blades?
|
Barrel
|
|
Which 54H60-117 propeller subassembly carries high centrifugal loads created by the propeller blades?
|
Barrel
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which component delivers the actual propeller blade angle from the blade to the control assembly?
|
Beta feedback shaft
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which pitchlock component mechanically holds the stationary and rotating pitchlock ratchets apart during reversing and unfeathering operations?
|
Pitchlock control cam
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, what component is installed on the blade before the blade butt is formed during manufacture?
|
Beveled thrust washer
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which dome assembly part allows the rotating cam to turn while the stationary can remains in a fixed position?
|
Ball bearings
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which dome assembly component limits cam travel and prevents the propeller from exceeding feather and reverse blade angles?
|
Stop ring
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, what function is a task of the low pitch stop assembly?
|
Prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle is positioned in the alpha range
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which component's purpose is to provide elevtrical circuits between the brush block assembly and the deicing elements of the blade assemblies?
|
Deiver contact ring holder
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, during NORMAL propeller operation, the output of which pumps is used?
|
Main pressure and main scavenge
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which pumps are used during propeller static operation?
|
Auxiliary pressure and auxiliary scavenge
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which cam disarms the NTS system linkage when the throrrle is positioned in the beta range?
|
Manual feather
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which cam schedules a desired blade angle in the beta range?
|
Beta set
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which valve connects the main, standby, and auxiliary pressure pumps output to the increase pitch lines duing negative torque conditions?
|
Feather
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which valve assists the feather solenoid valve with hydraulic positioning of the feather and pilot valves?
|
Feather actuating
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, what switch, located in the valve housing, is opened by a cam from 81º to 85º propeller blade angle?
|
PCBS
|
|
The 54H60-117 propeller governor speeder spring tension positions the pilot valve to maintain what percent rpm in the beta range?
|
109% to 113%
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, if the main filter becomes clogged, which valve opens to assure continued flow?
|
Bypass
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, when the backup valve is opened, the hydraulic pressure routed to the governor pilot valve is used for which operation?
|
Reverse
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which pressure pump is used to feather or unfeather the propeller during static propeller operation?
|
Auxiliary
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, which type of valve opens to allow the output of the standby pump to combine with the output of the main pump?
|
Check
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, when standby pump output is not required, where is it routed?
|
Pressurized sump
|
|
What type of force used during pitchlock of the 54H60-117 propeller prevents the blades from decreasing pitch?
|
Centrifugal twisting moment
|
|
The purpose of the 54H60-117 propeller pitchlock assembly is to prevent
|
Engine overspeed due to a loss of hydraulic pressure
|
|
What prevents engagement of the stationary and rotating ratchets on the 54H60-117 propeller when blade angles are below 25º and above 55º?
|
The pitchlock control cam
|
|
What will keep the rotating and stationary ratchets disengaged on the 54H60-117 propeller when the blade angles are between 25º and 55º?
|
Increase- or decrease pitch pressure.
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, what forces the stop leavers on the low pitch stop to move outward?
|
Movable wedge
|
|
When pressure builds to between 240 and 280 psi on the 54H60-117 propeller, which valve is unseated and allows the stop levers to retract?
|
Servo
|
|
What is coordinated by the throttle in the controllable pitch range?
|
Propeller blade pitch and engine fuel flow
|
|
Constant speed can only ovvur when the throttle is positioned from
|
FLT IDLE to TAKE OFF
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, what is the beta range indication display on the coordinator?
|
0º to 34º
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, during beta range operation, what moves the pilot valve?
|
Cams and mechanical linkage
|
|
In the beta range of the 54H60-117 propeller, which cam increases the speeder spring tension?
|
Speed set
|
|
During beta range operation on the 54H60-117 propeller, which cams rotation moves the mechanical linkage to center the governor pilot valve?
|
Beta follow-up
|
|
During alpha range operation on the 54H60-117 propeller, which cam changes speeder spring tension so the governor pilot valve can maintain 100 % engine speed?
|
Speed set
|
|
During an overspeed condition in the alpha range on the 54H60-117 propeller, the flyweights move the governor pilot valve to meter hydraulic fluid, which will
|
Increase blade angle
|
|
Once an overspeed 54H60-117 propeller condition is corrected and the pilot valve is returned to the venter position, what is the result?
|
System is back on-speed
|
|
During an underspeed condition on the 54H60-117 propeller, what moves the pilot valve?
|
Speeder spring
|
|
When feathering the 54H60-117 propeller, what acts on the mechanical linkage to open the feather actuating valve?
|
Manual feather cam.
|
|
During 54H60-117 propeller feathering operation, the feather valve is positioned to meter hydraulic flud to the
|
Foward end of the dome piston
|
|
Which valve is a backup in case the feather valve fails during feathering operation on the 54H60-117 propeller?
|
Pilot
|
|
During the 54H60-117 propeller feathering operation, which valve acts as a backup for the feather actuating valve?
|
Feather solenoid
|
|
During the 54H60-117 propeller feathering operation, which valve blocks off the standby pump output and causes hydraulic pressure to increase?
|
Feather actuating
|
|
During feather operation on the 54H60-117 propeller, what range in pounds per square inch (PSI) of fluid pressure opens the pressure cutout switch contacts?
|
600 to 800
|
|
Which component on the 54H60-117 propeller is the primary electrical ground for energizing the feather override holding coil?
|
Pressure cutout switch
|
|
When attempting to unfeather the 54H60-117 propeller in flight, where must the throttle be positioned?
|
Above FLT IDLE
|
|
Which two cams on the alpha shaft control the 54H60-117 propeller unfeathering operation?
|
Manual feather and beta set
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, what is the minimum psi required to release the feather latches and allow the piston to move forward?
|
200
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller, after the NTS system actuator rod positions the mechanical linkage in the valve housing when a negative torque condition occurs, what component is shifted?
|
Feather actuating valve
|
|
Besides maintaining the optimum blade phase angle relationship between all propellers, synchrophasing also
|
Keeps the propellers rotating at the same speed
|
|
Which switch has a spring-loaded guard to hold it in the NORMAL position?
|
Propeller governor control
|
|
What RPM in the alpha range are the fuel governing check switches used to reset the propeller governor?
|
106%
|
|
On the 54H60-117 propeller speed bias motor, what results when the control winding voltage is different from the reference-winding voltage?
|
Speed bias motor rotates, and increases or decreases blade angle
|
|
The master synchrophaser board located in the synchrophaser unit contains a master channel and a slave channel used by propellers
|
No.2 and No.3
|
|
How much change in RPM does the compensating network in the synchrophaser unit allow the speed bias motor to correct?
|
2%
|
|
In the mechanical governing mode, what causes the pilot valve to move and set the 54H60-117 propeller speed?
|
Speeder spring or flyweights
|
|
Which propeller governing modes add more functionality to basic mechanical governing mode?
|
Normal and synchrophasing
|
|
For the 54H60-117 propeller to operate in the normal governing mode, the propeller governor control switch must be placed in the normal position and the throttle must be
|
at or above FLT IDLE and the synchrophase master switch in t he OFF position
|
|
When an increase in rpm occurs duing engine speed stabilization, how is an overspeed condition prevented?
|
Decrease speeder spring tension and position the pilot valve to increase blade angle
|
|
How many slave channels are contained on the master synchrophaser board in the synchrophaser unit?
|
One
|
|
If the slave propeller blades are in the correct phase angle position during the synchrophasing governing mode, the resultant phase error voltage is
|
0
|
|
In the event the R391 Dowty propeller lost hydraulic pressure, the counterweights installed at the root of each propeller blade would drive the propeller blades toward what position?
|
Feather
|
|
Which R391 Dowty propeller component routes engine oil to and from the cylinder and piston?
|
Beta tube
|
|
What R391 Dowty propeller assembly part provides and aerodynamic faring over the aft section of the hub?
|
Backplate
|
|
The pneumatic air bled from the small gas turbine engine cannot be used to
|
inflate aircraft tires
|
|
When used for ground operation, the SGT engine can be installed on
|
a four-wheel trailer
|
|
The "C" in the engine number GTCP 165 indicates that the engine
|
Provides compressed air
|
|
The impeller wheel and two turbine wheels in the turbine section of the GTCP 165 engine are connected by
|
Couplings on a common shaft
|
|
On a GTCP 165 engine, the accessory drive section aft housing contains the
|
Compressor front shaft bearing
|
|
On a GTCP 165 engine, which signals are used by the fuel control unit to control engine operation?
|
Engine speed and pneumatic thermostat (Load control) air pressure
|
|
On the GTCP 165 engine shutdown, what valve closes to ensure fuel-flow is terminated?
|
Fuel shutoff solenoid
|
|
What type of sump design is the oil system on a GTCP 165 engine?
|
Wet
|
|
On a GTCP 165 engine, which component shuts the engine down if the oil pressure drops below the safe minimum operating limit?
|
Oil pressure switch
|
|
On a GTCP 165 engine oil system, air that leaks past various oil seals exits through the
|
Vent system
|
|
During a normal start on a GTCP 165 engine, the igniter plug continues firing until engine rotation in rpm reaches
|
95%
|
|
During normal GTCP 165 engine shutdown, what circuit trips to stop the engine?
|
110% circuit
|
|
The modulating and shutoff valve on a GTCP 165 engine will be fully open at what percent rpm?
|
90
|
|
On a GTCP 165 engine, air for the load control system is extracted from the
|
Turbine plenum
|
|
DUring load control system operation on a GTCP 165 engine, the pneumatic thermostat is used to
|
Prevent engine exhaust over-temperature
|
|
After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, where should you begin troubleshooting?
|
Observe gauge indications
|
|
If you encounter engine toruble where more than one unit is at fault, you would first
|
Examine the unit that requires the least amount of time to replace
|
|
Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance TO contain info on troubleshooting. This info is presented in the form of
|
Troubleshooting charts
|
|
To become an expert troubleshooter, you must
|
Understand the function of each unit within each system
|
|
What system is used on most modern jet engines to gather and record engine data?
|
Engine monitoring system (EMS)
|
|
The F100-PW-220 engine monitoring system component that acquires fault data from the DEEC and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence is the
|
Engine diagnostic unit (EDU)
|
|
Which component in the F100-PW-220 engine monitoring system transfers info from the EDU to the GSU?
|
Data collection unit (DCU)
|
|
If theres a problem in the F100-PW-220 aircraft engine, the DEEC
|
Accommodates the fault and sends the fault code to the EDU
|
|
To be considered effective tools for aviators, aircraft instruments must be light weight, easy to read, and
|
Small in size
|
|
An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide
|
The meanings of the instrument readings
|
|
Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of
|
Transmitter and indicator
|
|
Which jet engine temperature is not measured?
|
Combustion inlet
|
|
A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and
|
Resistor
|
|
Which metals are used in the thermocouples of the EGT indicating system?
|
Alumel and chromel
|
|
The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow
|
Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator
|
|
The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using a water wheel concept is the fuel
|
Flow transmitter
|
|
Two units that work together to indicate the oil system is operating correctly are the oil pressure
|
Transmitter and indicator
|
|
An oil pressure transmitter contains a mechanical section and
|
A synchronous unit
|
|
The oil pressure indicator recieves an electrical signal from the
|
Transmitter
|
|
The two primary units of the tachometer indicating system are the tchometer generator and tachometer
|
Indicator
|
|
The tachometer indicator is
|
An electric magnetic-drag-type instrument
|
|
The tachometer generator is proportional to the
|
Engine speed
|
|
On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into an electrical signal by a
|
Transducer
|
|
During an operational check of the fire warning system, you press
|
Only the TEST switch
|
|
What is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?
|
Total (t) pressure (P) at station 2 (2)
|
|
The pressures used in the operation of the engine pressure ratio (EPR) system are the
|
Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure
|
|
Inlet pressure (Pt2) is transmitted from its sensing point
|
Through tubing
|
|
While testing an engine on an engine test cell, a breather pressure gauge displaying excessively high breather pressure is usually an indication of
|
Damage to engine bearing oil seals
|
|
The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an engine oil pressure line to indicate oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or
|
Aircraft transmitter
|
|
The test cell EGT selector allows selection of
|
Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs
|
|
The test cell fuel-flow indicator automatically controls the solenoid valves in the fuel module in order to divert fuel flow through the
|
FLow turbines
|
|
When properly adjusted, the accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator in RMP will be within
|
2 RPM
|
|
The test cell integrated circuit (IC) temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit, with a range of
|
-50 to +1600º
|
|
What type of vibration causes unneccessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?
|
Externally excited
|
|
What kind of engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?
|
Transient
|
|
During vibration analysis, frequenxy is usually measured in
|
Cycles per second
|
|
During vibration analysis, amplitude is measured in mils. One mil is equal to
|
0.001 inch.
|
|
The two types of transducers used to measure vibration are
|
Piezoelectric accelerometer and velocity
|
|
WHich type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?
|
Piezoelectric accelerometer
|
|
To find the instructions for installing vibration pickups at the test cell, you should check the
|
Intermediate maintenance manual
|
|
When you are using a vibration analyzer, you will be notified when a present signal has been exceeded by
|
Flashing channel indicator light emitting diode (LED)
|
|
The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer is used to
|
Allow selection of the necessary filter
|
|
What are used to support the fan and low-pressure turbine?
|
Bearings
|
|
What procedure is used to ensure the fan and low-pressure turbine are correctly balanced?
|
Fan rotor trim balance
|