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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must have a 1. coarse diamond finish. 2. space for the veneer material. 3. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. 4. definite gingival finish line. |
2. space for the veneer material.
4. definite gingival finish line. |
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Which of the following principle fibre
groups of the periodontal ligament is the most numerous and provides the main support for the tooth? A. Horizontal. B. Transseptal. C. Oblique. D. Gingival. |
C. Oblique
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The local anesthetic lidocaine is an
A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid. |
A. amide.
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To ensure maximum marginal strength for
an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. approach 45 degrees. B. approach 90 degrees. C. be beveled. D. be chamfered. |
B. approach 90 degrees.
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The drug of choice for prophylactic
antibiotic therapy for dental patients with a past history of rheumatic fever and a history of penicillin sensitivity is A. methicillin. B. clindamycin. C. streptomycin. D. tetracycline. |
B. clindamycin.
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The function of the reciprocal clasp arm is
to 1. act as an indirect retainer. 2. stabilize the abutment teeth. 3. act as a direct retainer for the distal base. 4. counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm. |
2. stabilize the abutment teeth.
4. counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm. |
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The retention of an indirect, extra-coronal
restoration can be improved by 1. decreasing the taper of the preparation wall. 2. lengthening the clinical crown. 3. adding grooves. 4. an antirotation key. |
E. All of the above.
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All of the following appear as midline
structures on periapical radiographs EXCEPT A. nasopalatine/incisive canal. B. anterior nasal spine. C. nasal septum. D. zygomatic process of the maxilla. |
D. zygomatic process of the maxilla.
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Your patient is currently on warfarin.
Before a planned extraction of tooth 3.4, the patient’s coagulation mechanism should be evaluated using which test? A. Bleeding time. B. Partial thromboplastin time. C. Prothrombin time or INR. D. Von Willebrand’s Factor. |
C. Prothrombin time or INR.
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Movement of a mandibular distal
extension (Class 1) partial denture away from the denture bearing tissues when the patient opens is primarily caused by A. xerostomia. B. group function occlusion. C. non-passive retentive arms. D. overextended borders. |
D. overextended borders.
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Radiographic examination reveals early
evidence of internal resorption. The treatment of choice would be A. apical surgical intervention. B. immediate pulp extirpation. C. immediate pulpotomy. D. observation and re-evaluation in 3 - 6 months. E. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy. |
B. immediate pulp extirpation.
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Dental implants are
CONTRAINDICATED in patients who 1. are over age 80. 2. have unrepaired cleft palates. 3. are taking anticoagulants. 4. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus |
4. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
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A 4mm diameter carious pulp exposure
occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7 year old child. The tooth is vital and has no periapical involvement. The appropriate initial treatment would be to perform a/an A. pulp capping. B. pulpotomy. C. pulpectomy. D. extraction. |
B. pulpotomy.
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Appropriate management for the relief of
symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis in an immunocompromised patient may include 1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml. 2. Triamcinolone acetonide in Orabase®. 3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg. 4. Dexamethasone elixir 0.5mg/ml. |
1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml.
3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg. |
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Which of the following medications
increases a patient’s risk for intraoral candidiasis? A. Warfarine (Coumadin®). B. Cyclosporine. C. Pentobarbital. D. Ibuprofen. E. Pilocarpine. |
B. Cyclosporine.
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Localized gingival recession of a
mandibular permanent incisor in an 8 year old can be caused by A. vitamin C deficiency. B. ankyloglossia. C. localized aggressive (juvenile) periodontitis. D. traumatic occlusion. E. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. |
B. ankyloglossia.
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A lower molar requiring a crown has an
extensive MOD amalgam restoration. The crown margin should be placed A. on the existing amalgam. B. at the amalgam/tooth junction. C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin. D. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin. |
C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.
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The most common cause of long-term post
operative sensitivity following the placement of posterior composite resin restorations is A. hyperocclusion. B. microleakage. C. acidic primers. D. residual caries. |
B. microleakage.
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A rubber dam should be used in
A. pulp capping procedures. B. amalgam placement. C. composite placement. D. removing carious dentin from deep lesions. E. all of the above. |
E. all of the above.
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The local anesthetic lidocaine is an
A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid |
A. amide.
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The electric pulp tester might be of some
value in determining whether 1. the pulp is hyperemic or hyperplastic. 2. there is a partial necrosis of the pulp. 3. there is a partial or total pulpitis. 4. the pulp is vital or nonvital. |
4. the pulp is vital or nonvital.
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In composite resin restorations, glass
ionomer cements can be used as a base because they are A. sedative to a hyperemic pulp. B. neutral in colour. C. biocompatible. D. compatible with the expansion of composite resins. |
C. biocompatible.
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For an acid-etched Class III composite
resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to 1. eliminate the need for internal retention. 2. improve convenience form. 3. aid in finishing. 4. increase the surface area for etching. |
4. increase the surface area for etching.
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For a cast gold restoration, a gingival
bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. protects the enamel. 2. increases retention. 3. improves marginal adaptation. 4. increases the thickness of gold. |
1. protects the enamel.
3. improves marginal adaptation |
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An altered cast impression technique for
free-end extension mandibular partial denture cases is done primarily to 1. capture soft tissue in a supporting form. 2. capture the retromylohyoid area. 3. prevent displacement of the retromolar pad. 4. allow jaw relation records to be made simultaneously with impression making. |
E. All of the above.
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In low copper (e.g. Cu = 4% by weight in
the alloy powder) dental amalgam restorations, the most susceptible phases to corrosion are A. copper tin. B. silver mercury. C. tin mercury. D. silver tin. |
C. tin mercury.
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The most practical method to significantly
reduce the setting time of stone and plaster is to use A. warm mixing water. B. a calcium sulfate dihydrate nucleating agent. C. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent. D. a longer mixing time. |
A. warm mixing water.
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The periodontal probe should be inserted
into the sulcus A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth. B. parallel to the root surface. C. with a firm pushing motion. D. with a firm lateral motion. |
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
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The most likely indication of a poor
periodontal prognosis for a furcation involved tooth is the presence of A. wide root separation. B. narrow root separation. C. a bifurcation ridge. D. a cemento-enamel projection. |
B. narrow root separation.
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In a post-endodontic restoration, the
function of the post is to insure A. distribution of forces along the long axis. B. resistance of the tooth to fracture. C. sealing of the root canal. D. retention of the definitive restoration. |
D. retention of the definitive restoration.
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A patient with a pre-existing MOD
amalgam restoration has just had endodontic therapy completed on tooth 4.6 but cannot afford a laboratory fabricated final restoration. Interim restorative management of 4.6 with the best prognosis is to A. restore with a MOD amalgam. B. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion and restore with a MOD amalgam. C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps and restore with a MOD amalgam. D. restore with a bonded MOD composite resin. |
C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps
and restore with a MOD amalgam. |
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Which of the following types of bone
contain the insertions of the periodontal ligament fibres? A. Woven. B. Bundle. C. Lamellar. D. Cortical. |
B. Bundle.
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During periodontal disease activity, the
loss of clinical attachment A. precedes alveolar bone loss. B. follows alveolar bone loss. C. is concomitant with alveolar bone loss. |
A. precedes alveolar bone loss
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Overhanging margins of restorations at the
gingival margin contribute to gingivitis in all cases EXCEPT A. retain dental plaque. B. retain food debris. C. cause irritation. D. create excessive pressure. |
D. create excessive pressure.
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Unbagged sterilized instruments
A. can be stored for up to 24 hours if placed in an airtight container after sterilization. B. can be stored for up to 7 days if placed in sterile bags after sterilization. C. can be stored for up to 1 year if wrapped after sterilization. D. must not be stored after sterilization. |
A. can be stored for up to 24 hours if
placed in an airtight container after sterilization. |
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The single most important measure to
reduce the risk of transmitting organisms to patients is A. use of personal protective barriers: masks, eyewear, outerwear and gloves. B. sterilization of instruments and disinfection of the operatory. C. handwashing. D. introduction of single use instruments and disposables. |
C. handwashing.
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The combination (Kelley’s) syndrome
refers to the destructive changes associated with the long term wear of a mandibular distal extension removable partial denture opposing a complete upper denture. Which of the following clinical findings is NOT normally characteristic of this syndrome? A. Reduction in morphologic face height. B. Advanced anterior maxillary ridge resorption. C. Down growth of the maxillary tuberosities. D. Advanced alveolar bone resorption under the posterior partial denture base areas. |
A. Reduction in morphologic face
height. |
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On a semi-adjustable articulator, the
incisal guide table represents A. a reference point for the establishment of occlusal vertical dimension. B. the anterior equivalent of condylar guidance. C. a mechanical equivalent of the horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. D. the mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Wilson. |
C. a mechanical equivalent of the
horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. |
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A carious lesion on tooth 1.6 appears close
to the pulp on the bitewing radiograph. A diagnosis of irreversible pulpitis can be made based on A. proximity of the radiolucency to the pulp. B. a lower electric pulp test reading compared to the control. C. the symptoms reported by the patient. |
C. the symptoms reported by the
patient. |
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The characteristics of "group~function"
occlusion are: A. The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion. B. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. C. Only the canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion. D. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion. |
B. The teeth on the working side make
contact in lateral excursion. |
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The line drawn through the occlusal rests
of two principal abutments is A. survey line. B. terminal line. C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. D. line of greatest torque. |
C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line.
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During routine examination, it is noted
that a premolar is erupting ectopically 3.5mm to lingual while the primary predecessor is still firmly in place. The most appropriate management is to A. allow the primary tooth to exfoliate naturally. B. luxate the primary tooth to facilitate its exfoliation. C. remove the primary tooth and allow the permanent successor to erupt. D. extract the ectopically erupting premolar. |
C. remove the primary tooth and allow
the permanent successor to erupt. |
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Each of the following can cause maxillary
midline diastema EXCEPT A. a mesiodens. B. congenitally missing lateral incisors. C. a tongue thrust habit. D. a thumb-sucking habit. E. absence of primate spaces. |
E. absence of primate spaces.
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When prescribing antibiotics for an
orofacial infection in a healthy elderly patient, the usual adult dose and duration of the prescription should be written using the following guidelines. The dose is A. decreased by one half, duration unchanged. B. decreased by one third, duration unchanged. C. unchanged, duration unchanged. D. increased by one third, duration unchanged. E. unchanged, duration extended by one half. |
E. unchanged, duration extended by one
half. |
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A pontic should
A. exert no pressure on the ridge. B. be contoured by scraping the master cast. C. have a large surface area in contact with the ridge. D. contact nonkeratinized tissue. |
A. exert no pressure on the ridge.
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Glass ionomer cement is superior to zinc
phosphate cement because it has A. lower solubility in oral fluids. B. fluoride release. C. higher compressive strength. D. lower film thickness. |
B. fluoride release.
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Which line angle is NOT present in a
Class V amalgam cavity preparation? A. Mesioaxial. B. Axiopulpal. C. Gingivoaxial. D. Distoaxial. E. Occlusoaxial. |
B. Axiopulpal
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A drug inhibiting ATP release at a site of
injury could be a potential analgesic because ATP A. inhibits nociceptors. B. activates nociceptors. C. causes vasoconstriction. D. prevents vasoconstriction. |
B. activates nociceptors
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The primary stimulus for growth of the
mandible is 1. genetic. 2. epigenetic. 3. functional. 4. environmental. |
1. genetic.
3. functional. |
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Saliva is most effective in minimizing an
acid challenge by its A. lubrication function. B. antimicrobial effect. C. buffering action. D. fluoride concentration. |
C. buffering action.
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