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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
1. (801) If a radar echo returns after 310 microseconds, how far away is the target? |
25 miles |
310 ÷ 12.4 microseconds |
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2. (801) In which radar system does the transmitter produce a signal that regularly changes over a known range of frequencies? |
Frequency-modulation |
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3. (801) In a pulse-modulation radar system, the transmitter DOES NOT interfere with the receiver. This is possible because the transmitter ______. |
is turned off after each pulse |
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4. (801) Which radar system is based on the Doppler principle? |
Frequency-shift |
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5. (802) In a pulse-modulation radar system, a high pluse repetition frequency radar limits range by ____. |
shortening listening time |
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6. (802) Which component in a pulse-modulation radar set supplies the voltages that operate the other radar components? |
Power supply |
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7. (802) Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system controls the operation of the entire radar set? |
Synchronizer |
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8. (802) Where does the radar transmitter in a pulse-modulation radar system send a small amount of energy for use as a time reference? |
Receiver |
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9. (802) The minimum range of a pulse-modulation radar system is determined by the pulse __. |
duration |
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10. (802) As the pulse duration of a radar system increases, what will happen to the systems minimum and maximum range? |
Minimum range will increase, maximum range will increase. |
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12. (803) In a frequency-shift radar system, the Doppler principle makes it possible to instantaneously sense and measure ___. |
groundspeed and drift angle |
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13. (803) In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a transmitter/receiver (T/R) and an aircraft when the received frequency is lower than the transmitted frequency? |
The aircraft is flying away from the T/R. |
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14. (804) If the operating frequency is 100 megahertz (MHz) with a wavelength of 3 meters, then the frequency determining wall of the waveguide would be __. |
2.1 meters |
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11. (802) The maximum range of a pulse-modulation radar system primarily depends on what? |
Power output |
I skipped it lol
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15. (804) The function of a dummy load in search and weather radar is to ___. |
simulate a resistive load |
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16. (804) What component is used to couple radio frequency energy between the waveguide and test equipment? |
Directional coupler |
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17. (805) What is triggered when the AS–653C Radar Antenna Reflector rotates through the aircraft lubber line? |
Heading marker circuit. |
Lubber rhymes with "rubber" and rubbers go on the head.
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18. (805) Which component in the AN/APN–59 Radar System furnishes both pitch and roll drive signals to the antenna stabilization motors? |
AM–853B.(electronic control amplifier) |
AM- antenna motors |
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19. (805) What component in the AN/APN–59 Radar System provides stabilized pitch and roll reference data for control of antenna orientation, despite changes in aircraft attitude? |
CN–221A (Stabilization data generator) |
CN- control of antenna |
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20. (806) What is the maximum height that the combined altitude radar altimeter subsystem computes aircraft altitude above ground level? |
50,000 feet. |
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21. (806) When power is applied to the combined altitude radar altimeter, what is shown on the digital display? |
All dashes. |
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22. (806) What is/are the function(s) of the SET knob located on the combined altitude radar altimeter indicator? |
Used as an on/off control, to set the VALI indicator, and as a test button to check the system. |
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23. (806) What is the maximum altitude that the analog pointer and dial of the combined altitude radar altimeter can display? |
5,000 feet. |
Analog
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24. (807) Which radar application is used to produce a pictorial map of the terrain? |
Ground mapping. |
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25. (807) Which radar application is used primarily as an aid to navigation? |
Search radar. |
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26. (807) Which radar application is used to fly along a preselected altitude above the ground? |
Terrain following. |
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27. (807) Which radar application sends data to compute time-to-go parameters? |
Bombing radar. |
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28. (808) What establishes the network system time for a Link–16 system? |
Network time reference. |
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29. (808) How many hops per second does a Tactical Digital Information Link (TADIL) J perform to preclude jamming by a narrow band jammer? |
77,000 per second. |
(per second)
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30. (808) When a Link–16 operator initiates the system using net number 127, then it indicates the use of a __. |
stacked net |
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31. (809) To enhance voice clarity on Tactical Digital Information Link (TADIL) J secure digitized voice channels, the operator will select which data rate? |
16 kilobits. |
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32. (810) What is the maximum number of Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) units (JU) that can participate in a Link–16 net? |
32,766 JUs. |
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33. (810) To receive a track quality value of 15, how close must the track be to the reported position? |
50 feet. |
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34. (810) Which of the following fields does the Link–16 friendly status reports contain? |
Equipment status. |
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35. (810) What does the relative navigation (RELNAV) function of the Link–16 system determine? |
Distance. |
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36. (811) The elapsed time indicator of the receiver/transmitter (R/T) indicates time power has been ___. |
applied to the R/T |
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37. (811) Which subassembly is a part of the control monitor set (CMS)? |
SDU load control unit. |
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38. (811) When transmitting in the high power mode, what is the power output of the high power amplifier of the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) system? |
1050 watts |
(high power mode)
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39. (812) What power source is used to provide emergency back-up power to the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) terminal to maintain critical data? |
Nickel-cadmium batteries |
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40. (812) What is the range of signals that the Low Pass Filters pass? |
960 – 1215 MHz |
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41. (813) What is the operating band used by Joint Tactical Information Distribution System |
L-Band. |
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42. (813) How many bits of data can be transmitted in a given time slot of a Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) system? |
930 bits. |
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43. (813) Which time slot structure would you utilize if you wanted to reduce the silent period and eliminate redundant information every two pulses in the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)? |
Packed–4 structure |
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44. (814) When can the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) synchronization process be initiated? |
Every 12 seconds when a Net Entry message is transmitted. |
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45. (814) In coarse synchronization, how many receivers are used by the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) receiver/transmitter? |
8. |
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46. (814) What are the two processes in which Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) fine synchronization are accomplished? |
Passive and active. |
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47. (815) Which component of the Tactical Information Gateway (TIG) system enables beyond line-of-sight (BLOS) coverage? |
Satellite communication/global positioning system antenna. |
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48. (816) To prevent interference and possible terminal shutdowns, what systems does the Tactical Information Gateway (TIG) system monitor? |
IFF, ETCAS, and TACAN. |
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49. (817) The serial transmission bit rate for the Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus is |
1 megabit per second. |
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50. (817) What is the structure of a Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data word? |
20 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 16 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit.
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51. (817) In the Military-Standard (MIL-STD)1553 data bus system, if the bus controller (BC) does not require the data for processing, then what type of command is being used? |
RT to RT |
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52. (817) Which of these is not a function of the Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus mode codes? |
Executing a bus controller (BC) broadcast command. |
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53. (817) Which Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus version does not provide definitions for mode codes? |
MIL-STD 1553A |
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54. (817) If a bus controller (BC) sends a command for all remote terminals (RT) to listen to data from another RT, then what type of command is being sent on the Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus? |
Broadcast command. |
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55. (818) What is the primary unit of any computer information system? |
Central processing unit. |
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56. (818) The basic element in a computer microchip is __. |
silicon |
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57. (818) Chips with circuits that can do the work of all the different parts of a computer are called what? |
Microprocessors. |
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58. (818) If the computer is receiving a binary code digit of 1, then that represents a what? |
Pulse. |
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59. (818) What part of a computer acts like a sophisticated switchboard operator? |
Control unit. |
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60. (819) The primary computer memory that usually cannot be erased is called? |
Read only memory (ROM). |
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61. (819) Random access memory (RAM) is used to __. |
store information being calculated by the computer. |
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62. (820) What keeps the computer monitor’s electron beams from spilling over into the wrong phosphors and improperly mixing colors? |
Shadow mask. |
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63. (820) The resolution of a computer monitor is expressed in the number of pixels that make up the image. The sharper the image, the ___. |
higher the resolution |
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64. (820) A video graphics array (VGA) computer monitor has how many pixels per horizontal line? |
640. |
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65. (821) The main function of switches within a network is to ___. |
enable several users to send information over a network |
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66. (822) The technique where blocks of data can be segmented into numerous blocks so sequential blocks can be written is __. |
data striping |
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67. (822) Which redundant array of independent disks (RAID) parity is distributed across all drives and eliminates a bottleneck? |
RAID–5. |
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68. (823) If you are checking for absolute power, then the power meter can be switched to displays in either watts or __. |
dBm |
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69. (823) What power meter control compensates for a slight sensitivity associated with a particular type of power sensor? |
CAL ADJ. |
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70. (823) When calibrating the power sensor you adjust the CAL ADJ control so that the digital readout indicates __. |
1.000 mW |
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71. (823) Before turning on the power meter, you must make sure it is ___. |
set to match the line voltage you’re using |
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72. (824) Horizontal deflection on the cathode-ray tube (CRT) on the time domain reflectometer (TDR) equates to what? |
Distance. |
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73. (824) A time domain reflectometer (TDR) display that starts in the upper left corner of the screen, drops down at mid screen, and departs in the lower right screen indicates a what |
A short. |
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74. (825) The radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) is used to diagnose cable faults through voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)/return loss measurements and ___. |
distance-to-fault measurements |
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75. (825) Which key of a radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) would you use to access the alpha portion of the alphanumeric key? |
SELECT. |
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76. (825) What measurements are performed with the radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) when a fault is suspected in a RF transmission path because of unacceptable insertion loss? |
Distance-to-fault measurements. |
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77. (825) Before power is connected to the radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) you must ensure the ON/POWER/OFF switch is in the OFF position and a suitable grounding strap is connected between the grounding lug on the right side of RFTLTS unit 1 and the __. |
aircraft |
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78. (825) Which unit of the radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) is the accessory kit? |
2 |
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79. (826) To avoid measurement errors due to electromagnetic forces, the Model 4328A Milliohmmeter utilizes a what? |
0.1- kilohertz (kHz) signal. |
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80. (826) The Model 4328A Milliohmmeter can maintain continuous battery operation for up to a total of __. |
8 hours |
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81. (826) To set the Model 4328A Milliohmeter to mechanical zero, you must rotate the ___. |
METER adjust screw with the meter turned OFF |
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82. (826) When using the 1 and 3 milliohm (mΩ) range on the Model 4328A Millohmmeter, the probes and cables should be perpendicular from the conductor face or place how far away from the conducting surface? |
10 centimeters (cm) |
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83. (827) If 2 pounds of force is applied to the handle end of a 5-inch wrench, how much torque has been developed at the bolt end of the wrench? |
10-inch-pounds. |
F x D = T |
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84. (827) Which torque wrench uses micrometer-like markings and a rotating adjustment sleeve to set torque values? |
Type III. |
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85. (827) The purpose of a balanced torquing sequence is to ___. |
prevent warping in the assembly |
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86. (827) If you are going to torque a self –locking nut to 50–70 inch-pounds and the tech order states that the prevailing torque is at 30 inch-pounds, then the desired torque reading should ___. |
be compensated to read 80–100 inch-pounds |
If the prevailing torque is more than one-third of the recommended torque, add it to the recommended torque and tighten the nut to this new torque value.
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87. (827) If you are going to torque a bolt to 60 inch-pounds and your wrench is 12 inches but you need to use an 8 inch extension, then what should your torque wrench be set at to compensate for the extension and reach the correct torque? |
36 inch-pounds. |
S = (L / L+A) x T
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88. (827) Before using a dropped torque wrench, you must? |
Have it recalibrated. |
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89. (828) The keyboard assembly of the SBA–100F bus analyzer consists of a ___. |
standard QWERTY format and a 18 key HEX format |
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90. (829) Sealants keep out water, fumes and the atmosphere to protect the airframe against what? |
Corrosion. |
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91. (829) The main purpose of a waveguide gasket is to prevent leakage of what? |
Energy. |
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92. (830) The gain of which APX–64 Transponder Receiver/Transmitter module is increased when the confidence test is performed? |
Intermediate frequency (IF) amplifier. |
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93. (830) The operating modes of the TS–1843A Transponder test set are what? |
TEST and MONITOR. |
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94. (830) How many C-size batteries are required to replace the battery stick in the transponder TS–3977 test set? |
6. |
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95. (830) When you press the TEST SEQ button on the transponder TS–3977 test set, the display will be visible for a maximum of __. |
3 seconds |
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96. (830) When the TS–3977 test set battery voltage is low, ___. |
six of the decimal points are flashing on and off |
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97. (831) Which Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) checks should not be performed when using the ARM–184 flightline test set connected as a radiating transponder? |
Transmitter power and receiver sensitivity. |
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98. (831) If you turn the BEARING CW/CCW switch on the ARM–184 flightline test set, then the indicator should increase or decrease at an angular rate of what? |
5° per second. |
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99. (832) If the ARM–186 Very-High Frequency Omnirange/Instrument Landing System (VOR/ILS) ramp test set AMBER power indicator is on, how much operation time remains on the battery charge? |
0 to 1 hour. |
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100. (832) The ARM–186 Very-High Frequency Omnirange/Instrument Landing System (VOR/ILS) test set provides radio frequency (RF) attenuation for signals over a 110-dB (decibels) range in what increments? |
1 dB. |
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