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321 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is the most common use for an enema?
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relieve constipation
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What percentage of cardiac output circulates each minute through the kidneys?
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20-25 percent
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What type of enema promotes complete evacuation of feces from the colon by stimulating peristalsis through the infusion of a large volume of solution or through local irritation of the colon's mucosa
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cleansing enema
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Which two substances are responsible for reducing urine output after surgery?
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1) increased amount of ADH (which increases water reabsorption) 2) elevated level of aldosterone (causes rention of sodium and water)
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What type of enema is hypotonic and exerts a lower osmotic pressure than the fluid in interstitial spaces?
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tap water enema
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What do anesthetics and narcotic analgesics do to urine output?
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reduce it by slowing the glomerular filtration rate
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What type of enema is the safest?
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normal saline enema
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The use of anticholinergics (atropine) or antihistamines cause what?
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urinary retention
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What type of enema exerts the same osmotic pressure as fluids in interstitial spaces surrounding the bowel?
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normal saline enema
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The glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tube, loop of Henle, distal tubule, and collecting duct make up what structure?
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the nephron
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What type of enema is a solution infused into the bowel to exert osmotic pressure that pulls fluid out of interstitial spaces?
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hypertonic solution
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What functional unit of the kidney forms the urine?
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nephron
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What type of enema irritates the intestines to stimulate persistalsis?
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soapsud enema
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The glomerular capillaries filtrate what 6 things into the Bowman's capsule?
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1) water 2) glucose 3) amino acids 4) urea 5) creatinine 6) major electrolytes
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What type of enema lubricates the rectum and colon, and allows the feces to become softer and easier to pass?
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oil retention enema
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What do not normally filter through the glomerulus?
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Large protiens and blood cells
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What type of enema provides relief from gaseous distention?
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carminative enema
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What is the presence of large proteins in the urine called and what does it indicate?
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proteinuria and is a sign of glomerular injury
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If a client has an impaction, an enema fails, and all other methods have failed, what should you do as a LAST RESORT?
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digital removal of the stool
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How many mL of filtrate does the glomerulus filter per minute?
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125 mL
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What is a WOCN?
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Wound Ostomy Continence Nurse; a nurse specifically educated to care for ostomy clients
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How much glomerular filtrate is excreted as urine?
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1%
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Do you need a doctor's order for digital removal of the stool?
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yes
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How much glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed into the plasma?
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99%
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During the first few weeks after ostomy surgery, what type of diet should the client be on?
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low-fiber diet
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What is the normal adult urine output per day?
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1500-1600 mL/day
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What is a pliable hollow tube that you insert through the client's nose into the stomach?
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nasogastric tube (NG)
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What amount of urine output indicates possible renal alterations?
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<30 mL/hr
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What 9 types of food are included in a low-fiber diet?
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1) bread 2) noodles 3) rice 4) cream cheese 5) eggs 6) strained fruit juices 7) lean meats 8) fish 9) poultry
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What hormone maintains a normal RBC volume and what organ produces it?
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erythropoietin produced by the kidneys
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What are the 5 high-fiber foods that cause problems (blockages) for clients with ostomies?
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1) stringy meats 2) mushrooms 3) popcorn 4) fruits 5) some seafood
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What hormone functions within the bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell production and maturation and prolongs the life of mature RBCs?
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erythropoietin
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Why would clients with ostomies not want to eat broccoli, cauliflower, dried beans, or brussel sprouts?
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they cause gas and odor
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If a client cannot produce sufficient amounts of erythropoietin what are they prone to?
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anemia
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What are the two types of NG tubes?
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1) fine or small-bore tubes 2) large-bore tubes
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What is renal ischemia?
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decreased blood supply
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What is the primary goal for a client with hemorroids?
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to have soft-formed, painless bowel movements
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When there is renal ischemia, what enzyme is released to increase blood volume?
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renin
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What is hyperesthesia?
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When a client is overly sensitive to tactile stimuli
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What two enzymes work as vasodialators?
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prostaglandin E2 and prostacyclin
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What are large-bore NG tubes used for?
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gastric decompression and removal of gastric secretions
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If a client does not produce sufficient amounts of Vitamin D, what are they prone to?
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develop renal bone disease from demineralization of bone cause by impaired calcium absorption
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How should you handle a client with aphasia?
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listen and wait for client, don't shout, sit/stand at same level, use simple, short questions and facial gestures to give additional clues, avoid childish phrases, rephrase if needed, speak slowly in normal tone as usual.
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Urine draining from the ureters to the bladder is sterile or unsterile?
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sterile
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What are small-bore NG tubes used for?
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medication administration and enteral feedings
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How does urine enter the bladder? (constant flow, spurts, drip, etc.)
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spurts due to peristaltic waves
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How should you handle a client with an artificial airway?
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Use pictures, objects, or word cards, offer a pad and pencil, speak with hands, your face and eyes, provide an artificial voice box (vibrator-yes, a vibrator), give enough time for client to write messages.
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What is micturition?
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urination
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How should you handle a client with a hearing impairment?
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Get the client's attention, don't startle, avoid speaking while walking away, don't eat or chew while talking.
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What is a renal calculus?
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kidney stone
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Jason has been on contact isolation for 4 days because of a GI infection. He has had few visitors and has had few opportunities to leave his room. His ambulation is also still limited. What are some ways you can reduce sensory deprivation?
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assisting Jason to a chair or bringing a flower into the room, sitting down, speaking, touching, and listening to Jason's feelings and perceptions
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Is pressure in the bladder high or low, and what does this help protect against?
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low (even when partially full) to protect against infection
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Does nasogastric tube insertion require sterile or clean technique?
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clean
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What is the smooth triangular area on the inner surface of the bladder?
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the trigone
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The home care nurse is providing instructions to a nursing assistant regarding care of an older client with visual loss. The nurse is considering normal age-related visual changes by telling the nurse assistant that clients with visual loss often do what?
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Use colored tape to distinguish settings on electrical appliances and to highlight the edge of stairs.
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Urine travels from the bladder through the ____ and pases outside of the body through the ______?
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1) urethra 2) urethral meatus
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Ms. Smith is a 71 y/o client with bilateral hearing loss but only wears a hearing aid in her left ear. What is the best way to facilitate communication?
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face the client when speaking; speak slower and in a normal volume
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The turbulent flow of urine through the urethra does what to it?
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washes it free of bacteria
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If a client has a NG tube, how often should you provide mouth care?
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Every 2 hours
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How long is the urethra in women?
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4-6.5 cm or 1.5- 2.5 inches
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The nurse is caring for an older client with glaucoma. While developing a discharge plan, how will you enable the client to function safely with existing deficits and continue a normal lifestyle?
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Work closely with the client to identify ways to modify his or her home environment, and as appropriate, refer to community-based resources.
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How long is the urethra in men?
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20 cm or 8 inches (we wish!)
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Rachel is 75 y/o and has returned to the nursing home following surgical removal of bilateral cataracts. She reports feeling a little uncertain about walking by herself. How would you assist with ambulation?
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Have the client grasp your arm just above the elbow, and walk at a comfortable pace, warning the client when you approach obstacles
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The male urethra has three sections called what?
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1) prostatic urethra 2) membranous urethra 3) penile urethra
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If a client with a NG tube complains of a sore throat, what can you do?
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give them an ice bag to apply externally to the throat
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What 4 brain structures influence bladder function?
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1) cerebral cortex 2) thalamus 3) hypothalamus 4) brain stem
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Because hearing impairment is one of the most common disabilities among children, a nursing intervention is to teach parents , schoolteachers, and children to:
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take precautions when involved in activities associated with high intensity noises.
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How many mL of urine does the bladder normally hold?
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600 mL
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To help prevent distention from a NG tube, what should you do?
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turn the client regularly (it collapses the channels of gastric secretions and promotes emptying of the stomach)
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How may mL are in the bladder when adults are able to sense the desire to urinate?
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150-200 mL
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"I have right-seded partial paralysis and reduced sensation, so I should dress the left side of my body first." -This indicates that the teaching of the nurse discharging the client was: effective or ineffective?
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ineffective
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How many mL are in the bladder when children are able to sense the desire to urinate?
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50-100 mL
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If the client is shouting but consistently smiles and nods in agreement when the nurse talks what is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
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Hearing deficit
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Strong peristaltic waves result in pain often referred to as what?
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renal colic
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What is the stool discharged from an ostomy called?
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effluent
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When a client has damage to the spinal cord above the sacral region, this causes a loss of what and what is the term for it?
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loss of voluntary control of urinate- called reflex incontinence
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"What have you tried to correct the visual difficulty" is an example of an assessment question targeted to assess what?
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Visual loss
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Conditions that affect urine volume and quality are generally categorized by origin as what? (3 things)
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1) prerenal 2) renal 3) postrenal
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What are some recommendations to give a client who is suffering from isolation and loneliness? (deprivation)
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Provide info about social groups in the area or recommend them to move closer to family and friends.
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Decreased blood flow to and through the kidney is categorized as what?
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prerenal
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To regulate colon emptying of an ostomy, what can you or the client do?
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irrigate the colostomy (ONLY colostomies can be irrigated)
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Disease conditions of the renal tissue is categorized as what?
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renal
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Obstruction in the lower urinary tract that prevents urine flow from the kidneys is categorized as what?
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postrenal
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What two diseases cause changes in nerve functions leading to possible loss of bladder tone, reduced sensation of fullness, or inability to inhibit bladder contractions?
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DM and MS
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Older men suffer from what disease that makes them prone to urinary retention and incontinence?
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Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
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Benign prostatic hyperplasia makes older men prone to what two things?
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urinary retention and incontinence
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Diseases that cause irreversible damange to kidney tissue result in what?
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end-stage renal disease (ESRD)
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An increase in nitrogenous wastes in the blood, marked fluid and electrolyte abnormalities, nausea, vomiting, headache, coma, and convulsions characterize what syndrome?
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uremic syndrome
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Renal replacement therapies are used for what syndrome?
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uremic syndrome
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What are two methods are there for renal replacement?
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dialysis and organ transplantation
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What two forms of dialysis are there?
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periotoneal dialysis or hemodialysis
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What is the indirect method of cleansing the blood of waste products using osmosis and diffusion in the body?
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periotoneal dialysis
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What method removes excess fluid and waste products from the bloodstream when a sterile electrolye solution is instilled by gravity via a surgically placed catheter?
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periotoneal dialysis
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What method of renal replacement uses a machine equipped with a semipermeable filtering membrane (artifical kidney) that removes accumulated waste products and excess fluids from the blood using difussion, osmosis, and ultrafiltration?
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hemodialysis
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The kidneys primarily maintain the balance between what two things?
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retention and excretion of fluids
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The amount of urine formed at night is about ____ of the volume of urine formed during the day?
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half
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What is nocturia?
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awakening to void one or more times at night
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What is polyuria?
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an excessive output of urine
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What is oliguria?
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urine output that is decreased despite normal intake
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Oliguria often occurs when fluid losses through other means increases such as....?
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perspiration, diarrhea, or vomiting
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What is anuria and with what disease does it occur?
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when no urine is produced and with severe kidney disease
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What is diuresis?
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increased urine formation
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Alcohol inhibits the release of ____ that results in increased ______ in urine?
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1) anti-diuretic hormone 2) water loss
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How does fever affect urine output?
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volume is reduced but highly concentrated
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Fever does what to body metabolism?
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increases
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What does phenazopyridine do to urine?
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makes it bight orange to rust color
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What does amitriptyline do to urine?
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cause a green or blue discolration
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What does levodopa do to urine?
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colors it brown to black
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With urinary retention, what amount of urine is excreted once the sphincter is unable to hold the urine?
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25-60 mL
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What amount of urine is held in the bladder by someone with severe urinary retention?
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2000 to 3000 mL
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Client with urinary retention voids how many times per hour and is it is relieving?
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2-3 times per hour and no real relief of discomfort
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What is the most common health care associated infection?
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UTI
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What pathogen is responsible for causing most UTIs?
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Escherichia coli (E.coli)
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Most hospital acquired urinary infections are a result of what?
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catheterization or surgical manipulation
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What is bacteriuria?
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bacteria in the urine
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Bacteria in the blood stream is called what?
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bacteremia or urosepsis
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In what two ways do men have a lower risk of acquiring a UTI?
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1) longer urethra 2) prostrate secretions contain anti-bacterial substance
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If someone has pain or burning during urination (which is called what?) and urine flowing over inflammed tissues is sympotamic of what?
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1) dysuria 2) a lower UTI
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Why is residual urine in the bladder an ideal site for microorganism growth?
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it's more alkaline
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An irritated bladder that causes a frequent and urgent sensation of the need to void resulting in cloudy and blood-tinged urine is...?
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cystitis
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What is pyelonephritis?
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an infection that spreads to the upper urinary tract
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What percentage of adult women experience urinary incontinence?
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15-30%
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What is a nephrostomy?
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when a tube is placed directly into the renal pelvis for urinary drainage (NOT A DESSERT SUSAN)
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What is nocturnal enuresis?
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nighttime voiding without awakening
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Auscultating the kidneys can help detect the presence of what?
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renal arteries bruits
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A change in urine volume is a significant indicator of what?
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fluid alterations or kidney disease
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What three foods cause red urine?
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1) beets 2) rhubarb 3) blackberries
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If someone has discharge on their urethreal meatus what should you do?
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you should obtain a specimen of the discharge before the client voids
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High concentrations of bilirubin caused by liver dysfunction results in what?
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dark, amber urine
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How many mL of urine is a consistently high volume of urine that should be reported?
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2000-2500 mL daily
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What happens to urine when it stands in a container?
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it becomes cloudy
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What does higher concentrated urine do to the odor of the urine?
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it makes the smell stronger (EW)
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What kind of urine has an ammonia odor?
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stagnant urine
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Who has stagnant urine?
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clients who are repeatedly incontinent
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A sweet or fruity odor occurs with what?
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acetone or acetoacetic acid (byproducts of incomplete fat metabolism seen with DM or starvation)
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What are the four types of urine collecting?
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1) random 2) clean-voided or midstream 3) sterile specimen 4) timed urine specimens
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What is the weight or degree of concentration of a substance compared with an eqaul volume of water?
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specific gravity
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What collection type would you use for a routine urinalysis?
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random
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What collection type would you use for culture and sensitivity?
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clean-voided or midstream and sterile specimen
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What collection type would you use for measuring levels of adrenocortical steroids or hormones, creatinine clearance, or protein quantity tests?
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timed urine specimens
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What are the two invasive procedures for visualizing the urinary system?
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1) endoscopy-cystoscopy 2) arteriogram (angiography)
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What are the six noninvasive procedures for visualizing the urinary system?
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1) abdominal roentgenogram 2) CT scan 3) intravenous pyelogram 4) renal ultrasound 5) bladder ulstrasound 6) urodynamic testing
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What is ketonuria?
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when ketone bodies are present in the urine
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What 4 possibilities could cause ketonuria?
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1) dehydration 2) starvation 3) excessive aspirin use 4) DM
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A urine specimen needs to be examined within how much time from the collection?
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2 hours
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A urine sample should be refrigerated after how much time after the collection, and how long can it be refridgerated for?
|
1) 30 minutes 2) 2 hours
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Clients with alterations in urinary elimination may also suffer emotionally from what?
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body image changes
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If a CT scan with contrast, an IV pyelogram test, or an ateriogram (angiography) test is ordered, what allergy should you assess your patient for?
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Shellfish (iodine) allergy
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What test do you use to determine bladder muscle function and to evaluate the cause of urinary incontinence?
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urodynamic testing
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What test do you use to determine the size, shape, symmetry, and location of the kidneys?
|
abdominal roentgenogram
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What test do you use to obtain detailed images of structure within a selected plane of the body (to view pathological conditions such as tumors and obstructions)?
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CT scan
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What test do you use to view the collecting ducts and renal pelvis and outline the ureters, bladder, and urethra?
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intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
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Which test has a special IV injection that converts to a dye in urine?
|
intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
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Which test do you use to identify gross renal structures and structure abnormalities in the kidney using high frequency, inaudible soundwaves?
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renal ultrasound
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Which test do you use to identify structural abnormalities of the bladder or lower urinary tract?
|
bladder ultrasound
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What test do you use to estimate the volume of urine in the bladder?
|
bladder ultrasound
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Which test do you use for direct visualization, specimen collection, and/or treatment of the interior of the bladder and urethra (patient is normally under anesthesia)?
|
endoscopy-cystoscopy
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Which test do you use to visualize the renal arteries and/or their branches to detect narrowing or occlusion?
|
arteriogram (angiography)
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Which test do you use for surgery on the male prostate gland?
|
endoscopy-cystoscopy
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What would be an appropriate goal/outcome for a client experiencing urinary elimination issues? (3 things)
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1) client will void within 8 hours 2) urinary output of 300 mL or greater will occur with each voiding 3) client's bladder is not distended to palpation
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How much fluid should adults drink daily? What is usually adequate an adequate amount, other than the recommended amount of fluid intake?
|
1) 2000-25000 mL per day 2) 1200-1500 mL
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To minimize nocturia, how many hours before bedtime should the client cease fluid intake?
|
2 hours
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Is urine normally acidic or basic?
|
Acidic
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What foods will make urine more acidic, thus killing microorganisms and promoting healthy urination?
|
1) meats 2) eggs 3) whole-grain breads 4) cranberries 5) prunes
|
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How much time should you give a client to provide a urine specimen and why?
|
30 minutes because it allows for relaxation and promotion of normal voiding habits
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Caffeine and alcohol can cause what for the urinary system?
|
uncontrolled bladder contractions; they are an irritant
|
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What types of drugs increase contraction of the bladder and improve emptying? Also, what is a negative side effect of these types of drugs?
|
1) cholinergic drugs (drugs related to the neurotransmitter acetylcholine) 2) may cause diarrhea
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What are the 5 types of urinary incontinence?
|
1) functional 2) stress 3) urge 4) mixed 5) reflex
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What type of incontinence is: loss of urine caused by factors outside the urinary tract that interfere with the ability to respond in a socially appropriate way to the urge to void?
|
functional incontinence
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What type of incontinence is: involuntary leakeage of urine during increased abdominal pressure in the absence of bladder muscle contraction?
|
stress incontinence
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What type of incontinence is: involuntary passage of urine after a strong sense of urgency to void?
|
urge incontinence
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What type of incontinence is: combination of urge and stress incontinence signs and symptoms where there is involuntary leakage and passage of urine from abdominal pressure and urgency to void?
|
mixed incontinence
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What type of incontinence is: involuntary loss of urine at intervals without sensation of urge to void?
|
reflex incontinence
|
|
What are the two types of catheterization?
|
1) intermittent 2) indwelling
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What type of catheterization is it when you introduce a straight single use catheter long enough to drain the bladder (5-10 mins) and remove it as soon as the bladder is empty?
|
intermittent
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What type of catheterization is it when you introduce the catheter for a longer period of time until a client is able to void voluntarily or continuous accurate measurements are no longer necessary?
|
indwelling or Foley
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What type of intermittent catheter (single use catheter) is used on male clients who may have an enlarged prostate?
|
coude
|
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What are the two types of indwelling catheters?
|
1) short-term 2) long-term
|
|
How many times per day should a nurse provide perineal hygiene for a client with an indwelling catheter?
|
3 times per day (makes you question what we did for every patient we had at St. Joe's huh?)
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If blood, pus, or sediment accumulates in a catheter tubing, what can the nurse do
|
irrigate or flush the catheter
|
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When you are removing a catheter from a client, what should you explain to the client in regards to what they will feel/experience?
|
1) they will feel a burning sensation as the catheter is being removed 2) they may experience dysuria after removal
|
|
What are two types of alternatives to urethral catheters for urinary drainage?
|
1) suprapubic catheterization 2) condom catheterization
|
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What are PFEs?
|
pelvic floor exercises (also known as Kegel exercises)
|
|
Where does digestion start and end?
|
start: mouth end: small intestine
|
|
What does masticate mean?
|
when the teeth grind together and break down food into suitable pieces for swalowing
|
|
What 3 tasks does the stomach perform?
|
1) storing swallowed food and liquid 2) mixing food, liquid, and digestive juices 3) emptying contents into the small intestine
|
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What 4 things does the stomach produce and secrete?
|
1) hydrochloric acid (HCl) 2) mucus 3) the enzyme pepsin 4) intrinsic factor
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What is the pulpy acidic fluid that passes from the stomach to the small intestine consisting of gastric juices and partially digested food?
|
chyme
|
|
What are the three sections of the small intestine?
|
1) duodenum 2) jejunum 3) ileum
|
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What are the three sections of the large intestine?
|
1) cecum 2) colon 3) rectum
|
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What are the three functions of the colon?
|
1) absorption 2) secretion 3) elimination
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Healthy adults absorb more than ____ of water and ____ of salt from the colon every ____hours.
|
1) one gallon 2) one ounce 3) 4
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Mass peristalisis moves undigested food towards the rectum. Thees mass movements occur how many times daily and when are they the strongest?
|
Occur 3 to 4 times daily and are the strongest during the hour after mealtime
|
|
What is the valsalva maneuver?
|
Voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles while maintaining forced expiration against a closed airway; "bearing down"
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|
There are 12 factors that affect bowel elimination. See how many of them you can name!
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1) age 2) diet 3) fluid intake 4) physical activity 5) psychological factors 6) personal habits 7) positioning during defecation 8) pain 9) pregnancy 10) surgery and anesthesia11) medications 12) diagnostic tests
|
|
What provides the bulk of fecal material?
|
Fiber (just don't eat too much, or you will develop a loving relationship with your toilet for the day)
|
|
What types of foods produce gas?
|
onions, cauliflower, and beans
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If a client cannot drink milk due to symptoms such as diarrhea, cramps, or flatulence then they are considered to be ______ _______. Are they allergic to milk or not?
|
lactose intolerant and they are NOT allergic to milk, they just experience uncomfortable symptoms
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Prolonged emotional stress can cause what 4 diseases of the GI tract?
|
1) ulcerative colitis 2) irritable bowel syndrome 3) gastric and duodenal ulcers 4) Crohn's disease
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What is the "normal" position for defecating?
|
squatting
|
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Any surgery that involves direct manipulation of the bowel will temporarily stop peristlasis. What is this called?
|
paralytic ileus
|
|
What are the medications called that soften the stool and promote peristalsis?
|
laxatives and cathartics
|
|
Is constipation a symptom or disease?
|
symptom
|
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What is a collection of hardened feces, wedged in he rectum that a personal cannot expel?
|
impaction
|
|
If you suspect that a client has an impaction, what should you do?
|
gently perform a digital examination of the rectum and palpate for the impacted mass
|
|
There are six things that may cause diarrhea. See if you can name them.
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1) disorders affecting absorption 2) disorders affecting digestion 3) disorders affecting secretion of the GI tract 4) antibiotic use 5) Clostridium difficile (C. diff.) 6) communicable food borne pathogens
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What is a causative agent of diarrhea that is acquired by an overgrowth of normal flora or by contact with a foreign organisms?
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Clostridium difficile (C. diff.)
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What are dilated, engorged veins in the lining of the rectum?
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hemorrhoids
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What 4 things cause hemorrhiods?
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1) increased venous pressure from straining to defecate 2) preganancy 3) heart failure 4) chronic liver disease
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Surgical openings created in the ileum or colon with the ends of the intestine brought through the abdominal wall to create a stoma are called what?
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ileostomy or colostomy
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What are the three types of colostomies?
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1) loop 2) end 3) double-barrel
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What are you going to review in Chapter 46?
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PAGE 1181- all the types of colostomies!
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What is the scale called that categorizes stool into 7 different types?
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The Bristol Stool Form Scale
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Observable peristalsis is a sign of what?
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intestinal obstruction
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Normal bowel sounds occur every __ to ___ seconds.
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5 to 15
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A change in pitch or tinkling bowel sound indicates what?
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distention
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Absent bowel sounds or hypoactive sounds indicate what?
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paralytic ileus
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High pitched and hyperactive bowel sounds indicate what?
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small intestine obstruction and inflammatory disorders
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How much of the formed stool should you acquire when collecting a specimen?
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1 inch
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How much of liquid diarrhea stool should you acquire when collecting a specimen?
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15-30 mL
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Tests for measuring the output of fecal fat requires how many days of collection of the stool?
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3 to 5
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What tests require the stool to be warm?
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Measurement for ova and parasites
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What test measures microscopic amounts of blood in feces?
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fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) or guaiac test
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What is the fecal occult blood test or guaiac test useful for screening for?
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colon cancer
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What are the three types of fecal occult blood testing?
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1) guaiac fecal occult blood test 2) immunochemical fecal occult blood test 3) stool deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
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Clients who are receiving anticoagulants, who have a bleeding disorder, or a GI disorder known to cause bleeding need a regular screening for what?
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fecal occult blood
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What is DeBello?
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a bitch (wonder if this will be on the test?)
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What are the 6 training specific therapies?
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1. Biofeedback 2. Therapeutic touch 3. Chiropractic therapy 4. Traditional Chinese medicine 5. Acupuncture 6. Herbal therapies
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What are 3 nursing-accessible therapies
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1. Relaxation therapy 2. Meditation and breathing 3. Imagery
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What is Ginkgo Bilboa used for? (8)
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Cerebral insufficiency, Alzheimer's, Intermittent claudication, Tinnitis, Relieves tension anxiety and elevates mood, Antioxidant
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What bad effects does Ginkgo Bilboa have on the body? (6)
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Increased vascular flow, Inhibits platelet activity, GI complaints, bruising and spontaneous bleeding, can increase insulin levels
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When should you not use Ginkgo Bilboa? (5)
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Before surgery, with menstrual flooding, with blood thinners and aspirin, with bleeding problems
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What is St. John's Wort used for? (6)
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Anti-depressant, muscle aches, nerve pain, nerve regeneration, herpes outbreaks, bruising
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What side effects does St. John's Wort cause?
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Sunburn, possible rash from sun exposure
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What is a bad thing about St. John's Wort?
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It can interfere with effectiveness of other medications (ex: mood altering drugs)
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What is Garlic used for? (7)
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Lowers cholesterol, anti-thrombotic, lower BP, anti-microbial agent, strengthen heart muscle, reduce platelet clumping/clotting, stabilize blood sugar
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What are contraindications for Garlic? (3)
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Odor, gas, potential decreased platelet aggregation
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What is Echinacea used for?
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Prevention and treatment of colds and flu, upper respiratory infections, UTI
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How long should one use Echinacea for?
|
Stimulating does is short term (3-4 days)
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What is Goldenseal used for? (5)
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Colds, flu, bacterial diarrhea, intestinal parasites, ocular trachoma infections
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What herb is over/misused by the general public?
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Goldenseal (in toothpaste, lip balm, herbal mixtures)
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What is Saw Palmetto used for?
|
BPH
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What herb is used for hot flashes and night sweats?
|
Black Cohosh
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What happens if one overdoses on Black cohosh?
|
Nausea, dizziness, nervous system disturbance, may cause miscarriage
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What is Ginger used for? (3)
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Nausea, colds and flus
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What is Milk Thistle used for? (4)
|
Liver and gallbladder conditions, antioxidant, promotes hepatic cell growth
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|
Ch. 49: What are the five senses?
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Auditory, visual, tactile, olfactory and gustatory (taste)
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What is Stereognosis?
|
A sense that allows a person to recognize an object's size, shape, and texture
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As a nurse caring for a client with sensory alterations, what will you recognize first? What else will you help them accomplish?
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First, you need to recognize the risk for developing sensory problems, such as isolation. You will help them find alternative ways to function safely within their environment. (sorry so long...)
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What three components compose a sensory experience?
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Reception, perception, and reaction.
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How does a reception begin?
|
With a nerve cell (called a receptor) being stimulated by one type of stimulus (light, touch, sound)
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What side of the brain does a impulse travel to if it's felt on the right side?
|
the left side of the brain.
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When does perception take place?
|
When the person becomes conscious of the stimuli an receives it.
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What two things are included during perception?
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Integration and interpretation of the stimuli.
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If a person is bombarded with sensory information, how does the person react?
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Taking in the most meaningful or significant stimuli and discarding or storing others
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What one stimuli is unable to be adapted? (In other words, what is one stimuli that is cannot go unnoticed?)
|
pain
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What will happen if an individual attempts to react to every stimulus within the environment OR if there is too little, meaningless stimuli?
|
Sensory alterations will occur (overload Or deprivation)
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|
What is a sensory deficit? Give some examples :)
|
Impaired sensory reception or perception or both. (blind, loss of taste, smell, touch, deafness)
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How does someone with a sensory deficit recover?
|
Over time they learn to rely on unaffected senses more acutely.
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What is sensory deprivation?
|
when a person doesn't experience adequate quality or quantity of stimulation.
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What are three types of sensory deprivation?
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reduced sensory input (hearing loss), elimination of patterns or meanings from input, or restrictive environments (such as bed rest).
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When does sensory overload occur?
|
When there is too much stimuli (internal or exteranl) for one to manage. This "inability to disregard stimuli" varies from person to person
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What are some symptoms of sensory overload?
|
the client's thoughts race, attention scatters, anxiety and restlessness occur. They act bewildered, disoriented, have difficulty concentrating, muscle tension and ineffective coping. Overall, they no longer perceive the environment in a way that makes sense.
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When does sensory alterations occur?
|
When stimuli is different from one is used to
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What are nursing interventions for sensory overload?
|
Prevent sensory alterations, promote sleep, establish a routine for care, speak calmly and slowly with simple explanations, and eliminate personal stimuli.
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Why are senses needed?
|
survival, growth, pleasure, meaning to events, ability to function in the environment
|
|
What is a symptom of sensory deprivation?
|
Expressive AND receptive aphasia, drowsiness, dec attention span, impaired memory, confusion, depression, apathy, boredom see box 49-2 for more...
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|
Which age groups are at high risk for visual and auditory impairments?
|
infants and children
|
|
What are common visual deficits in older adults (40-50 y/o)?
|
Presbyopia (gradual decline in the ability to focus on close objects-reading glasses are needed), reduced viual fields, increase glare sensitivity, impaired night vision, reduced depth perception and color discrimination.
|
|
When does hearing changes usually begin?
|
Age 30
|
|
When does gustatory and olfactory changes begin?
|
Age 50
|
|
When do proprioceptive changes occur? (what are they?)
|
Proprioceptive changes are difficulty with balance, spatial orientation, and coordination. They usually occur after age 60.
|
|
What is a negative result from repetitive wrist or finger movements?
|
Carpal tunnel syndrome, which alters tactile sensation and is one of the most common work-related injuries.
|
|
What's the difference between complementary and alternative therapies?
|
Comp are used in addition to allopathic treatment and alternative are used to replace allopathic treatment
|
|
What are 9 complementary therapies?
|
therapeutic touch, imagery, relaxation, exercise, reflexology, art, music, dance, biofeedback
|
|
What are 5 alternative therapies?
|
chiropractic, feldenkrais, chinese medicine, ayurvedic medicine, CAM
|
|
What are some symptoms of a cataract?
|
cloudy or opaque areas in part of the lens or the entire lens. causes blurred or glared vision
|
|
What types of conditions are difficult to treat leading those diagnosed to seek alternative methods?
|
1. arthritis 2. chronic back pain 3. gastrointestinal problems 4. allergies 5. headache 6. insomnia
|
|
What is ayurvedic medicine?
|
Traditional hindu medicine, uses herbs, purgative, and rubbing oils to treat disease.
|
|
What is a priority nursing diagnosis for the client with altered sensory perception?
|
Fall risk!
|
|
What is feldenkrais method?
|
Based on establishment of good self image through awareness and correction of body movements. Awareness of the way people learn to move, behave, and interact.
|
|
What's traditional Chinese medicine?
|
Includes acupuncture, herbal medicines, massage, acupressure, moxibustion (heat for burnin herbs), and Qigong (balancing energy).
|
|
What effects can relaxation therapy have on the body/mind? (10)
|
Lower HR, lower BP, decrease muscle tension, improve well-being, reduce distress, reduce pain, reduce tension headaches, facilitate burn care, improve cognition, and help client deal with PTSD.
|
|
What are 10 indications for meditation?
|
Anxiety, chronic bereavement, chronic fatigue, chronic pain, drug abuse, HTN, irritability, low self-esteem, depression, sleep disorders
|
|
What are 10 clinical applications of imagery?
|
Control/relieve pain, calmness, asthma, HTN, functional urinary disorders, menstrual/PMS, GI disorders, IBS, ulcerative colitis, rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
When planning for a client suffering from a sensory deficit, what would you want the client to do?
|
To demonstrate understanding by a verbal, written, or signed response, to remain free from injury, and increase and maintain personal interactions.
|
|
What the fuck is biofeedback and what does it do for the pt?
|
1. Uses electronic or electro-mechanical instruments to measure, process, and provide information to persons about their neuromuscular and ANS activity. 2. helps the pt control physiological functions that are most difficult to control (like pulse and BP)
|
|
When planning for a client suffering from a sensory overload what would you want the client to do?
|
To demonstrate relaxed body movements and facial expressions, to remain free from injury
|
|
What are some interventions for sensory deprivation?
|
Prevent sensory alterations, teach self stimulation methods (reading/singing), provide stimulations, provide reality orientation, and utilize interpreters for communication barriers.
|
|
What are some interventions for sensory deficit?
|
First, determine ability to compensate, provide care to facilitate sense, provide glasses, hearing aids, etc., utilize all health care team members to assist with sensory deficit (RD-gustatory loss).
|
|
What are 5 clinical applications are biofeedback?
|
Treats migraines, pain, stroke, GI and urinary tract disorders
|
|
What is a stupid training specific therapy in which professionals scan the body of the pt, diagnose areas of accumulated tension, and then attempt to redirect these energies to bring the person back into energy balance?
|
Therapeutic touch
|
|
What are 8 clinical applications of chiropractic theraphy?
|
vertebral subluxation (majorest one), other musculoskeletal abnormalities, headaches, dysmenorrhea, BP, vertigo, tinnitus, visual disorders
|
|
What are 8 clinical applications of therapeutic touch?
|
increased Hb, reduces anxiety, reduces headache pain, improves mood, trauma recovery, dementia, cope with stress, reduces chemical dependency in pregos
|
|
What are 9 physiological indicators of energy imbalance that clients "perceive"?
|
congestion, pressure, warmth, coolness, blockage, pulling or drawing, or static or tingling
|
|
What is the purpose of acupuncture?
|
Modify perception of pain, normalize physiological functions, or treat or prevent disease... by unblocking the obstruction of energy and reestablishing the flow of qi through meridians and activating the body's self-healing mechanism.
|
|
What are the 18 problems can be treated with acupuncture?
|
COMMON.. 1. low back pain 2. myofascial pain 3. simple and migraine headaches 4. sciatica 5. shoulder pain 6. tennis elbow 7. osteoarthritis 8. whiplash 9. musculoskeletal sprains ...LESS COMMON... 10. sinusitis 11.GI disorders 12. perimenstrual symptoms 13. neurological disorders 14. chronic pulmonary diseases 15. HTN 16. smoking 17. addictions 18. depression
|
|
What's the goal of chiropractic theraphy?
|
To access the human beings innate healing potential by promoting natural diet, regular exercise, and by providing relief of symptomatic discomfort as well as functional improvement through spinal manipulation
|
|
What's good for shoulder pain?
|
If you lick my butthole -Brennan Huff
|
|
What's the most important concept of Chinese medicine?
|
Yin and yang (disease occurs with imbalance of the two)
|
|
What are the two primary areas assessed in Chinese medicine?
|
tongue and pulses
|
|
If you wet the bed, or pee all over yourself, what is it called?
|
EMBARASSING (Thank you Shelby)
|
|
What are six examples of diagnoses related to clients with bowel elimination problems?
|
1) bowel incontinence 2) constipation 3) risk for constipation 4) perceived constipation 5) diarrhea 6) toileting self-care defiicit
|
|
What would white or clay bowel color indicate?
|
absence of bile
|
|
What would black or tarry (melena) bowel color indicate?
|
iron ingestion or upper GI bleeding
|
|
What would red bowel color indicate?
|
lower GI bleeding or hemorroids
|
|
What would pale color bowel with fat indicate?
|
malabsorption of fat
|
|
What would translucent, mucusy bowel color indiate?
|
spastic constipation, colitis, or excessive straining
|
|
What would a bloody, mucusy bowel color indicate?
|
blood in feces, inflammation, or infection
|
|
How many times a day does an infant usually have a bowel movement?
|
4-6 times per day
|
|
How many times per day does an adult have a bowel movement or how many times per week does an adult have a bowel movement?
|
Per day: ONCE Per Week: 2-3
|
|
How many grams of bowel does an adult eliminate per day?
|
150 g
|
|
What does the shape of your bowel resemble in regards to your anatomical shape?
|
The shape of your bowel resembles the diameter of your rectum (ew but interesting...now you can inspect your bowel to know the size of your rectum...GROSS)
|
|
What are some goals/outcomes related to client with bowel elimination problems? (5)
|
1) client sets regular defecation habits 2) client is able to list proper fluid and food intake needed to achieve bowel elimination 3) client implements a regular exercise program 4) client reports daily passage of soft, formed brown stool 5) client does not report any discomfort associated with defecation
|
|
When positioning a patient on a bedpan, what are the two things you should never do?
|
1) Never try to lift the client onto the bedpan 2) Never leave the bed flat with the client on the bedpan (unless activity restrictions demand it)
|
|
What is the difference between laxatives and cathartics (although the terms are normally used interchangeably)?
|
cathartics have a stronger effect on the intestines
|
|
What are the five types of laxative and cathartics?
|
1) bulk forming 2) emollient or wetting 3) saline 4) stimulate 5) lubricants
|
|
What is Imodium used for?
|
to relieve diarrhea
|
|
What are the most effective antidiarrheal agents and why should they be used with caution?
|
1) opiates 2) they are habit forming (addicting)
|
|
What is the instillation of a solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon?
|
enema
|
|
What is the primary reason for administering an enema?
|
to promote defecation and stimulate peristalsis
|