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109 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Q1. Which of the following terms is
interchangeable with fundamentals of leadership? 1. Total quality leadership 2. Motivational theory 3. Basic principles of leadership 4. Principles of supervision |
Basic principles of leadership
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Q2. When you realize you have made a wrong
decision, admit your mistake, accept the responsibility, and 1. criticize others for the mistake 2. don’t let subordinates know of your mistake 3. take steps to avoid repeating the error 4. do nothing else |
take steps to avoid repeating the error
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Q3. An effective leader should recognize that
people as individuals have different values and beliefs. 1. True 2. False |
True
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Q4. Which of the following traits is/are common
to all successful leaders? 1. Initiative 2. Dedication 3. Accountability 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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Q5. What level of human behavior is the most
important? 1. Esteem 2. Safety-security 3. Survival 4. Self-actualization |
Survival
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Q6. When dealing with people, you can NOT
change which of the following human traits? 1. Wants 2. Thought processes 3. Skills 4. Emotional makeup |
Emotional makeup
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Q7. Not understanding the technical language of
your rate results in which of the following problems? 1. Poor communication 2. Failure to advance in rate 3. Misinterpretation of official publications 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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Q8 When reporting status to a superior there are
four “B’s” to remember: Be on time, Be accurate, Be brief, and Be 1. gone 2. courteous 3. formal 4. forceful |
gone
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Q10 What type of feedback is given when job
performance standards are not being met? 1. Positive 2. Constructive 3. Evaluative 4. Disciplinary |
Constructive
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Q11. Which of the following is not a type of
advising and counseling session? 1. Personal 2. Career 3. Performance 4. Improvement |
Improvement
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Q12. What is one of the most important challenges
we face as petty officers when dealing with subordinates 1. Training 2. Scheduling 3. Production 4. Administration |
Training
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Q13. Which of the following is not a responsibility
of the training petty officer? 1. Develop monthly training schedules 2. Oversee preparation of training materials 3. Maintain training records 4. Assign personnel to fleet and service schools |
Assign personnel to fleet and service schools
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Q14. During a class discussion, what questioning
technique should be used? 1. Yes or no 2. Thought provoking 3. Closed ended 4. Intimidating |
Thought provoking
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Q15. After instruction, when the trainee is required
physically to repeat the steps in a procedure, what method of teaching should have been used by the instructor? 1. Telling 2. Lecturing 3. Demonstrating 4. Discussing |
Demonstrating
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Q16. Training aids should be in plain view when
classroom instruction begins. 1. True 2. False |
False
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Q9 Which of the following is not an acceptable
sign of appreciation for a job well done? 1. A simple pat on the back 2. Promising an award 3. Positive counseling sheet 4. Meritorious captain’s mast |
Meritorious captain’s mast
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Q17. After what inactive period of time must
members of the CTT repeat formal training? 1. 12 months 2. 18 months 3. 24 months 4. 30 months |
24 months
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Q18. Why should improvements under the
continuous improvement program be standardized? 1. To make the improvement available to everyone 2. To recognize the individual that came up with the improvement 3. To reduce expenditures for similar tasks 4. To maintain the improvements within the command |
To make the improvement available to everyone
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Q19. The purpose of EMI is to correct a training
deficiency and deprive normal liberty. 1. True 2. False |
False
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Q20. EMI can NOT be assigned and conducted on
the Sabbath. 1. True 2. False |
True
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Q21. Your responsibilities as a petty officer end
when you are on liberty. 1. True 2. False |
False
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Q22. When placing a person on report, you may
orally notify the COC. 1. True 2. False |
True
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Q23. Under article 31 of the UCMJ special caution
is cited for which of the following areas? 1. Preservation of the accused’s rights 2. Right to see the results of inquiry 3. Preservation of the identity of the accuser 4. Communication with the accuser |
Preservation of the accused’s rights
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Q24. What is the first step a petty officer must do
when considering a complaint of wrong? 1. Tell the commanding officer 2. Seek advice from someone in authority 3. Put in a request chit 4. Start a preliminary investigation |
Seek advice from someone in authority
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Q25. Who decides which type of court-martial to
award? 1. Accuser 2. Accused 3. Executive officer 4. Commanding officer |
Commanding officer
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Q26. Being late for a routine muster is an offense
that must be reported. 1. True 2. False |
(2) This type of behavior usually is not serious enough for placing a person on report. However, it does require some form of action by you such as counseling.
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Q27. Chevrons on rating badges worn on the pea
coat of both male and female Sailors measure 3 1/4 inches wide. 1. True 2. False |
True. Although male and female rating badges are different sizes on other uniforms, the rating badge on the pea coat is the same size.
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Q28. While in uniform women may wear both a
necklace and a choker. 1. True 2. False |
False. While in uniform, women may use one necklace or choker, but it must not be visible.
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Q29. The purpose of quality of life programs is to
promote effective use of human resources. 1. True 2. False |
True. The various programs within this system have been designed to allow individuals a chance to develop their capabilities to the maximum.
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Q30. The Personal Excellence Program focuses
externally on our nation’s schools through what grade? 1. 12th 2. 8th 3. 6th 4. 4th |
12th. The program focuses internally on Navy personnel and, where feasible, externally on our nation’s school age population, pre-school through twelfth grade.
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Q31. The long-term goal of the Personal
Excellence Partnership Program includes an effort to promote 1. Navy values 2. self-worth 3. responsible citizenship 4. both 2 and 3 above |
both 2 and 3 above. The long-term goal of this program is to promote a sense of self-worth and to reinforce in young people the knowledge, traits, attitudes, and skills essential for responsible citizenship and effective participation in the American work force.
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Q32. FSCs are on all bases with which of the
following minimum number of active-duty personnel? 1. 100 2. 500 3. 1,000 4. 1,500 |
500. All bases with 500 or more active duty members have installation Family Service Centers. They are located throughout the United States and at many overseas locations
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Q33. FSCs offer programs for married sailors
ONLY. 1. True 2. False |
False. The program’s mission is to increase readiness and retention of service members by providing information, resources, and services that support and enrich the lives of Navy families as well as single sailors.
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Q34. Single parents in MFH may receive authority
for live-in housekeepers. 1. True 2. False |
True. Upon application to the appropriate housing office, single parents may receive authority for live-in housekeepers.
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Q35. Sexual harassment is NOT allowed in which
of the following situations? 1. On or off duty 2. On base/ship 3. Off base/ship 4. All of the above A7. |
(4) Sexual harassment is a type of sex discrimination. Like all discrimination, it is prohibited. It violates the standards of honesty, integrity, and impartiality required of all DON personnel.
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Q8. Although the common application of
fraternization applies to the officer-enlisted relationship, fraternization also includes improper relationships between officer members and between enlisted personnel. 1. True 2. False |
A8. (1) Fraternization includes improper
relationships between senior and junior officer members and between senior and junior enlisted personnel. |
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Q9. Which of the following responsibilities does a
petty officer have in the prevention of alcohol and drug abuse? 1. Inform seniors of problems regarding alcohol and drug use 2. Apply common sense 3. Educate personnel on the pitfalls of drugs and alcohol 4. All of the above |
A9. (4) As a petty officer you have a
responsibility not only to yourself but also to your shipmates and the Navy to help in the war against alcohol and drug abuse. |
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Q10. Which location offers intense and
comprehensive drug and alcohol rehabilitation for active duty members? 1. Sick bay 2. ATF 3. ARC 4. All of the above |
A10. (3) The Navy’s ARCs provide a program of
intensive and comprehensive rehabilitation. ARCs are for active duty Navy and Marine Corps personnel who are suffering from alcoholism. |
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Q11. To maintain physical readiness, a person
should exercise at least three times a week for (a) at least how many minutes total duration and (b) how many minutes of continuous aerobic activity? 1. (a) 60 (b) 40 2. (a) 50 (b) 30 3. (a) 40 (b) 20 4. (a) 30 (b) 25 |
A11. (3) All personnel are responsible for
maintaining an acceptable state of physical readiness at all times. Physical conditioning program should occur at least three times per week. The conditioning activities should be at least 40 minutes in duration of which at least 20 minutes should be continuous aerobic activity. |
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Q12. The Navy’s goal is for what percentage of
participation in stress management awareness programs? 1. 75% 2. 85% 3. 95% 4. 100% |
A12. (4) Stress is a real part of Navy life and
learning to cope effectively is essential. The goal is for 100 percent participation in stress management awareness programs. |
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Q1. Which of the following does the NEC NOT
identify? 1. Skills that are not rating-wide 2. Special knowledge and skills not provided by rate and rating 3. Special skills and knowledge required for a specific billet 4. Special skills obtained through OJT |
A1. (4) The NEC structure supplements the
enlisted rating structure. It identifies special knowledge and skills requiring specific recognition not provided by rates and rating, skills that are not rating-wide requirements and those special skills and knowledge required in a specific billet. |
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Q2. What is the main purpose of the Petty Officer
Quality Control Program? 1. To ensure that only top-performing petty officers reenlist 2. To identify career petty officers with performance or behavior deficiencies 3. To screen the service records of all petty officers 4. To recommend petty officers for collateral assignments |
A2. (2) The Petty Officer quality Control Program
is an effort by the Navy to ensure that those personnel with problems that effect the Navy adversely are counseled and given help to resolve those problems. |
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Q3. What is the maximum length of service
allowed for an applicant to the Chief Warrant Officer Program? 1. 12 years 2. 16 years 3. 20 years 4. 24 years |
A3. (4) Applicants for CWO must have completed
at least 12 years but not more than 24 years of service on 16 January of the year in which application is made. |
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Q4. The qualifications for Enlisted Surface
Warfare Specialist can be found in what publication? 1. Command instruction 2. NAVSEA instruction 3. CNO instruction 4. OPNAV instruction |
A4. (4) For details and most up-to-date eligibility
requirements for Enlisted Surface Warfare Specialist consult OPNAV 1414.1. |
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Q5. Which of the following personnel is/are
allowed to make entries in your service record? 1. Immediate supervisor 2. Yourself 3. Authorized personnel 4. Department head |
A5. (3) Service record entries are made by those
personnel who are given such authority by the commanding officer. |
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Q6. As a retired member with 30 years of service
you may be ordered to active duty by which of the following personnel? 1. Chief of Naval Operations 2. Vice President of the United States 3. Secretary of the Navy 4. Vice Chief of Naval Operations |
A6. (3) A retired member with 30 years of service
may be ordered to active duty without his or her consent only by the Secretary of the Navy. |
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Q1. What article of the Constitution provides that
the executive power shall be vested in a President of the United States? 1. V 2. II 3. III 4. IV |
A1. (2) Article II, section 1, of the Constitution
provides that executive power shall be vested in a President of the United States. |
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Q2. Which of the following is the most senior
officer in the armed forces? 1. Commandant of the Marine Corps 2. Chief of Naval Operations 3. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 4. Secretary of Defense |
A2. (3) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff,
while so serving, holds the grade of general or admiral and outranks all other officers of the armed forces. |
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Q3. Who serves as the spokesman for the
commanders of the unified combatant commands? 1. Commander of the U.S. Joint Forces Command 2. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 3. Secretary of the Army 4. Secretary of the Air Force |
A3. (2) Subject to the authority, direction, and
control of the SECDEF, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff serves as the spokesman for the commanders of the unified combatant commands especially on the operational requirements of their commands. |
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Q4. What office monitors and evaluates
congressional proceedings and actions that affect the Department of the Navy? 1. Office of Information 2. Office of the General Counsel of the Navy 3. Office of Program Appraisal 4. Office of Legislative Affairs |
A4. (4) The naval officer who heads the Office of
Legislative Affairs also monitors and evaluates congressional proceedings and actions affecting the DoN. |
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Q5. The Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy is
assigned to what immediate office? 1. Chief of Naval Personnel 2. Chief of Naval Operations 3. Secretary of the Navy 4. Assistant Secretary of the Navy |
A5. (2) The MCPON’s assignment is to the
immediate office of the CNO. The MCPON serves as the senior enlisted representative of the Navy and acts as the primary enlisted adviser to the CNO. |
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Q6. The U. S. Naval Forces Central Command’s
area of responsibility includes which of the following areas? 1. Mediterranean 2. Middle East 3. Continental United States 4. South America |
A6. (2) As of June 1998, the U.S. Naval Forces
Central Command’s area of responsibility consists of the Arabian Gulf and most of the Middle East. |
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Q7. The Pacific Fleet’s area of responsibility
includes which of the following areas? 1. Southeast Asia 2. Arctic Ocean 3. U. S. west coast 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
A7. (4) The U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet covers more
than 50% of the Earth’s surface, encompassing just over 1 million square miles. Pacific Fleet ships are at sea in the Pacific, Indian, and Arctic oceans from the west cost of the United States to the Arabian Gulf. |
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Q8. What command plans the amount of
education and training needed by Navy personnel to meet manpower requirements? 1. CHNAVPERS 2. CNET 3. DIRSSP 4. COMNAVDOCCOM |
A8. (1) CHNAVPERS plans the amount of
education and training needed by Navy personnel, including that of the Naval Reserve to meet manpower requirements determined by the Chief of Naval Operations |
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Q9. What command acquires and disposes of real
estate for the Navy and manages Navy family housing? 1. COMNAVSEASYSCOM 2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM 3. COMNAVFACENGCOM 4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM |
A9. (3) COMNAVFACENGCOM acquires and
disposes of real estate for the Navy and manages Navy family housing. |
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Q10. What command is responsible for shore-based
education and training of Navy, certain Marine Corps, and other personnel? 1. CHNAVPERS 2. BUMED 3. DIRSSP 4. CNET |
A10. (4) CNET is responsible for assigned
shore-based education and training of Navy, certain Marine Corps, and other personnel. Education and training efforts support the naval shore establishment, Naval Reserve program, and interservice training programs. |
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Q11. What command enhances the war-fighting
capability of the Navy and Marines by arming our Sailors, Marines, and civilians with the knowledge they need to save lives and preserve resources? 1. COMNAVSAFECEN 2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM 3. COMNAVSPACECOM 4. ONI |
A11. (1) COMNAVSAFECEN arms our Sailors,
Marines, and civilians with the knowledge they need to save lives and preserve resources. This mission is accomplished by investigating and advocating new methods, technology, and initiatives to improve the safety process. |
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Q1. The objective of any safety program is to
improve operational readiness. 1. True 2. False |
A1. (1) True. The objective of any safety program
is to improve operational readiness by reducing personnel deaths and injuries and by decreasing material loss and damage. |
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Q2. Who is responsible for mishap prevention
training and maintaining appropriate records? 1. Executive officer 2. Command master chief 3. Division safety petty officer 4. All hands |
A2. (3) The division safety petty officer is
responsible for conducting assigned division mishap prevention training and maintaining appropriate records. |
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Q3. What is the purpose of the command safety
council? 1. Mandate safety policy 2. Enforce safety policy 3. Develop recommendations on safety policy 4. Conduct safety training |
A3. (3) On the command level, the safety council
convenes monthly to develop recommendations for policy on safety matters and to analyze progress of the overall safety program. |
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Q4. Which of the following items promotes safety
awareness? 1. Posters 2. Caution signs 3. Inspections 4. All of the above |
A4. (4) You can promote safety through the use of
posters, periodic safety patrols or inspections, and through the use of warning and caution signs. |
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Q5. The number of tag-out logs required depends
on the size of the ship. 1. True 2. False |
A5. (1) True. The number of tag-out logs required
depends on the ship size. For instance, larger ships may require a separate log for each department while a minesweeper may only require one tag-out log for the whole ship. |
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Q6. After the tags are cleared and the record sheet
is filled out, where should you place the sheet? 1. At the front of the tag-out log 2. At the back of the tag-out log in the cleared section 3. In the index/audit record 4. In the documentation file |
A6. (2) After the tags have been cleared and the
record sheet is properly filled out for the removal of the tags, place the sheet in the back of the tag-out log in the cleared section for destruction at a later time. |
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Q7. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
passed a regulation that requires all civilian and military employees of the federal government to comply with what regulation? 1. Hazardous Material Control and Management 2. HazardMaterial and Refuse Management 3. Hazard Communication Standard 4. Hazardous and Toxic Material Disposal |
A7. (3) The Hazard Communication Standard was
passed to ensure the safety of every civilian and military employee of the federal government. |
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Q8. When personnel are working with hazardous
material, supervisors are NOT responsible for ensuring that approved personal protective clothing and equipment are maintained. 1. True 2. False |
A8. (2) False. As a supervisor you are responsible
for the welfare and safety of your personnel. When handling HAZMAT, protective clothing and equipment must be used and maintained. |
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Q9. When working with solvents, which of the
following actions should you take? 1. Make sure the space in which you are working does not have adequate ventilation 2. Remove protective clothing if it gets too hot 3. Leave spilled solvents on the deck 4. Check the labels on all containers of liquid |
A9. (4) Check the labels on all containers. In
dealing with the hazards involved in solvents, you should always follow all safety precautions that pertain to hazardous material. |
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Q10. Most cleaning compounds do NOT contain
toxic substances. 1. True 2. False |
A10. (2) False. Most solvents are toxic, and with a
few exceptions, are flammable. |
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Q11. Absorbents used in cleaning, applying, or
packing hazardous materials will be treated and disposed of using the same precautions followed for the material they absorbed. 1. True 2. False |
A11. (1) True. Absorbents used in cleaning,
applying, or packing HAZMATS should be treated using the same precautions followed for the hazardous material they absorbed. |
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Q12. MOPP procedures used to establish levels of
readiness for a chemical agent attack are flexible. 1. True 2. False |
A12. (1) True. MOPP procedures allow the CO to
adapt the requirements for protective clothing and equipment to the degree of the threat and working conditions at any given time. |
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Q13. The command decision to implement each
level of MOPP must be the result of a risk assessment. 1. True 2. False |
A13. (1) True. Risk is the assessed difference
between the threat level and the activation of appropriate levels of shipboard countermeasures |
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Q14. The risk of a CBR threat can be categorized
into how many levels of probability? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
A14. (4) There are four MOPP levels of
probability. |
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Q15. The term MOPP stands for Mission
Organization Protective Plan. 1. True 2. False |
A15. (2) False. MOPP stands for Mission Oriented
Protective Posture. |
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Q16. Readiness condition III (wartime steaming) is
set during what MOPP level? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
A16. (1) A collective activity during MOPP level 1
is to set readiness condition III. |
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Q17. Each decontamination station is divided into
how many parts? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
A17. (2) Each decontamination station is divided
into two parts: (1) a contaminated or unclean section and (2) a clean section. |
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Q18. The closure log is maintained at all times.
1. True 2. False |
A18. (1) True. The closure log is maintained at all
times, whether the ship is in port or under way. |
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Q19. DCPOs are responsible for maintaining
damage control fittings and equipment. 1. True 2. False |
A19. (1) True. DCPOs are charged with ensuring
that the material condition of spaces assigned to them is maintained according to the command’s damage control, fire fighting, and defense procedures. |
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Q1. How many digits in the NSN designate the
FSC? 1. 2 2. 4 3. 9 4. 13 |
A1. (2) The first 4 digits of the NSN make up the
FSC. In 5330 00 010 4960 the first 2 digits of the FSC are called the FSC group, and the last 2 digits are called the class. |
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Q2. What is the most common number used to
identify material? 1. Navy item control number 2. Local item control number 3. National stock number 4. NATO stock number |
A2. (3) All material purchased and maintained by
the federal government is maintained by national stock number. |
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Q3. Is the cognizance symbol a part of the
national stock number? 1. Yes 2. No |
A3. (No) Although NOT part of the stock number,
the cognizance symbol may be prefixed to the stock number in some supply publications. However, the cog symbol is not prefixed to the stock number on supply documents, forms, and records. |
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Q4. Which of the following items would require a
SMIC? 1. Office supplies 2. Firefighting equipment parts 3. Parts designed for nuclear plants 4. Aircraft engine parts |
A4. (3) Items specially designed, manufactured,
and tested for use in nuclear reactor plants, which require special handling, machining, and so forth before being installed and used require a SMIC. |
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Q5. The COSAL is both a technical and supply
document. 1. True 2. False |
A5. (1) Its technical nomenclature operating
characteristics, technical manuals, and so forth are described. It is a supply document in that the COSAL provides a complete list of parts required to operate and maintain the equipment. |
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Q6. Cryptographic, or cryptologic items are listed
in the ML-N. 1. True 2. False |
A6. (2) The ML-N omits cryptographic and
cryptologic items which are listed in security classified catalogs produced by the respective DoD agencies. |
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Q7. MILSTRIP is used for which of the following
transactions? 1. Requisitioning material 2. Issuing material 3. Cancellation of material requests 4. All of the above |
A7. (4) As the name implies, MILSTRIP is used
for all transactions from requisitioning of material to issuing the material. |
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Q8. Which of the following forms is/are used to
order material? 1. DD Form 1348 2. DD Form 1348-6 3. DD Form 1149 4. All of the above |
A8. (4) All of the listed documents are MILSTRIP
requisitioning documents used to order material. |
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Q9. If the NSN is not available for a repair part,
what form should you use to requisition the part? 1. NAVSUP Form 1250-1 2. DD Form 1348 3. DD Form 1348-6 4. DD Form 1149 |
A9. (3) The bottom section of the DD Form
1348-6 permits the inclusion of all available technical or descriptive data. This data will assist the supply source in the identification and procurement of the requisitioned item. |
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Q10. The priority designator is determined by
using the table of priority designators. 1. True 2. False |
A10. (2) The priority designator is determined by
using the table of priority designators. |
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Q11. What is the lowest two-digit priority
designator? 1. 01 2. 11 3. 13 4. 15 |
A11. (4) The priority designator is based on a scale
of 01 to 15 with 01 being the highest and 15 being the lowest priority. |
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Q12. Cannibalizing inoperative equipment is an
authorized practice to obtain replacement parts. 1. True 2. False |
A12. (2) Do not cannibalize components you might
use sometime in the future. |
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Q1. What is the minimum number of paragraphs
for a unit of information in naval correspondence? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
A1. (1) No rule exists about the number of
paragraphs one unit of information should contain. No matter how many paragraphs you write, be sure to follow the rules for organization and continuity. |
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Q2. The CO, OIC, or person acting in either
position is not required to personally sign which of the following documents? 1. Those which establish policy 2. Those which change policy 3. Ship’s deck log 4. Special liberty chit |
A2. (4) The CO, OIC, or person acting in either
position must sign the following documents: those which establish policy, those which center on changes to the command’s mission, and those required by law for regulation such as the ship’s deck log. |
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Q3. When is the POOW the primary enlisted
assistant to the OOD? 1. At sea 2. In port 3. On watch on the bridge 4. On watch in battle conditions |
A3. (2) The POOW is the primary enlisted
assistant to the OOD when the ship is in port. The POOW assists the OOD in carrying out the ship’s daily routine and ensuring the security and safety of the ship. |
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Q4. At times deck logs may be used in which
of the following legal actions? 1. Naval courts 2. Admiralty proceedings 3. Civilian courts 4. All of the above |
A4. (4) A ship’s deck log has both historical
importance and legal standing. It may be used at times in naval, admiralty, and civil courts. In an incident involving the ship, the log may be the only available evidence upon which to base a legal decision. |
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Q5. The overall responsibility for the deck log
belongs to the 1. OOD 2. JOOD 3. POOW 4. CDO |
A5. (1) The overall responsibility for the deck log
belongs to the OOD. OODs must sign the deck log at the end of the watch to show relief of the watch and validity of entries. |
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Q6. In the case of a bomb threat what is the key
to disarming the situation and avoiding catastrophe? 1. Information 2. Knowledge 3. Security force 4. MAA force |
A6. (1) In the case of a bomb threat, information
is the key to disarming and avoiding catastrophe. Information such as who, what, when, and most certainly, where, should be obtained. |
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Q7. When the pistol has a lanyard attached, what
must be done during exchange of the pistol to the next watch stander? 1. Keep the lanyard around your neck until your relief has positive control of the pistol 2. Keep the lanyard at your side so it won’t get in the way 3. Keep the lanyard in your hand that doesn’t hold the pistol 4. Detach the lanyard from the weapon during the exchange |
A7. (1) If the pistol has a lanyard attached to it,
keep the lanyard around your neck until your relief has positive control of the pistol. Then remove the lanyard from around your neck and place it around the neck of your relief. This effort prevents the pistol from being dropped and damaged. |
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Q8. Which of the following activities is NOT
considered a special evolution? 1. Weapons handling 2. Refueling 3. Diving operations 4. Mess operations |
A8. (4) Special evolutions involve many out of
the routine events that occur aboard ship. |
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Q9. Side boys are NOT paraded during which
of the following times? 1. Between sunset and 0800 2. Meal hours 3. General drills 4. All of the above |
A9. (4) Side boys are not paraded on Sunday or
on other days between sunset and 0800 or during meal hours of the crew, general drills and evolutions, and periods of regular overhaul, except in honor of civil officials and foreign officers. |
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Q10. The heavy weather bill will be placed in
effect if the forecast indicates a hurricane approaching. 1. True 2. False |
A10. (1) In any periods of actual or forecasted high
winds and seas, hurricanes, or tidal waves, the heavy weather bill will be in effect. |
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Q11. When handling a thermometer, touching the
lower part of the glass containing the liquid will not affect the temperature reading. 1. True 2. False |
A11. (2) The heat from your body can affect the
height of the liquid column and give an erroneous temperature reading. |
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Q12. Winds at 39 to 54 miles per hour indicate
what warning condition? 1. Small craft 2. Gale 3. Storm 4. Hurricane |
A12. (2) Winds measured at 39 to 54 miles per
hour constitute a gale warning. |
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Q13. As the Petty Officer of the Watch you are
NOT responsible for personnel throwing trash over the side into the water in your presence. 1. True 2. False |
A13. (2) As the POOW, you are responsible for
reporting any kind of pollution. |
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Q14. How many minutes before sunset should the
ship’s anchor lights be tested? 1. 60 2. 30 3. 20 4. 15 |
A14. (2) To ensure the lights are working properly,
all lights must be checked 30 minutes before sunset. |
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Q15. Which of the following factors will determine
if a PO3 is assigned as a section leader? 1. Size of the command 2. Number of personnel assigned to your duty section 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Number of the departments in the command |
A15. (3) Depending on the size or class of the ship,
you may not be assigned as a section leader until you become a second class petty officer. Aboard larger ships with large sections you may have to wait until you become a first class petty officer. Therefore, being assigned as a section leader depends upon the size of command and number of personnel in your section. |
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Q16. Which, if any, of the following
responsibilities belong to the police petty officer? 1. Apprehending violators 2. Keeping the quarterdeck clear of unauthorized personnel 3. Serving as court liaison 4. None of the above |
A16. (4) The police petty officer’s duties
encompass areas such as cleanliness of divisional berthing and stowage areas, holding reveille, maintaining silence after taps and maintaining order. |
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Q17. After apprehending members of the opposite
sex, what should be done as soon as possible? 1. Communicate immediately with headquarters for instructions 2. Request a member of the same sex to make apprehension 3. Request a member of the same sex to interrogate 4. Interrogate apprehended member yourself |
A17. (1) Any time you apprehend a member of the
opposite sex, communicate immediately with headquarters for instructions. |
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Q18. Which of the following entities make up a
platoon? 1. Two or more squads 2. Platoon headquarters 3. Guide 4. All of the above |
A18. (4) A platoon consists of two or more squads,
a platoon headquarters, and a guide. |
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Q19. For quick time, at the command MARCH,
step off smartly with the left foot and continue the march in steps of what length in inches? 1. 25 2. 30 3. 35 4. 40 |
A19. (2) Quick time is cadence at 120 steps (12,
15, or 30 inches in length) per minute. |
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Q20. As you face a formation, the tallest person
should be in which of the following positions? 1. Middle of the formation 2. On your right 3. On your left 4. End closest to where the inspecting party will arrive |
A20. (3) Usually, the tallest person will be on your
left as you face the formation. |
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Q21. An inspection is more informal than quarters.
1. True 2. False |
A21. (2) Quarters is a little more informal than an
inspection. |