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238 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Genes?
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The information containing region of the chromosome.
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Genome?
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The total complement of genes found in a cell
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Genotype?
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Genetic composition of an organism
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Phenotype?
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When an organism expresses observable characteristics
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Transcription?
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A process by which the genetic information contained in DNA is copied into mRNA
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Translation?
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The process by which mRNA relays information to synthesize protein molecules.
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Polycistronic?
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Having more than one cistron or gene.
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True or False. A polycistronic mRNA molecule codes for only one protein.
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False. A polycistronic mRNA molecules encode for several proteins.
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Are prokaryotic or eukaryotic mRNA more likely to be polycistronic (having more than one cistron or gene)?
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Prokaryotic mRNA
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How many bases comprise of one codon?
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There are four bases that are arranged into three letter words called codons
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How are codons arranged?
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In triplets
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How many different codons represent the genetic code.
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There are four different bases arranged in triplets, 64 total.
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How many of the 64 codons actually code for amino acids?
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Only 61 code for amino acids.
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How many of the 64 codons do not code for amino acids? What are they called specifically?
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3 codons do not code for amino acids. These include the triplets UAA, UAG, UGA. They are called nonsense or termination codons.
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What do nonsense codons do?
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They signal the termination of protein synthesis (Translation).
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True or False. One amino acid is represented by one codon.
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False. Many amino acids are represented by more than one codon.
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Which position of the three letter triplet is considered the most degenerate?
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The third position of the codon triplet is considered the most degenerate.
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Which position(s) of the codon triplet is the same for alanine?
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Alanine is encoded by GCU, GCC, GCA, and GCG. The first 2 positions are the same while the third position changes (is degenerate).
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Which amino acid(s) is represented by only one codon?
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Only tryptophan and methionine are represented by only one codon.
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What are the stop codons?
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UAA, UAG, UGA
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AUG represents what type of codon? Which amino acid does it code for?
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AUG codes for methionine and is a start codon.
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UGG is the code for which amino acid?
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Tryptophan.
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Who determined the 3-D structure of the DNA molecule?
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Watson and Crick
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Watson and Crick
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Used x-ray crystalography to determine the structure of DNA.
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Griffith experiments demonstrated what.
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bacterial transformation, used emzymes
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Meselson and Stahl determined?
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DNA replication is semi-conservative.
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Theta replication ?
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Circular DNA molecule with two replication forks
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Initiator proteins
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Recognize and bind to a specific DNA sequence of about 300 bases at the origin of replication.
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unwinds short sections of the helix in advance of the replication fork
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DNA helicase
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Assists in unwinding and joining the DNA
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DNA topoisomeraeses
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Okazaki fragments are only formed in which strand of a DNA molecule?
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The lagging strand.
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Which DNA polymerase is associated with E. coli?
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DNA polymerase I, II, III
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Enzymes that catalyze DNA synthesis add nucleotides in which direction?
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Nucleotides are added to the 3'-OH end of the DNA molecule.
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Which daughter strand are okazaki fragments formed in?
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The lagging strand
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How can one differentiate between a "lagging" and "leading" strand?
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In DNA synthesis, the "lagging" strand is discontinuous and contains okazaki fragments while the "leading" strand is continous.
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DNA is READ in which direction? BUILT?
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DNA is read in the 3'-OH to 5'-PO4 direction and is built in the 5'-PO4 to 3'-OH direction
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In E. coli, which DNA polymerase catalyzes the addition of mononucleotides? ON which end of a DNA strand?
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Polymerase I, II, and III catalyze the addition of mononucleotides to the 3'-OH end of a growing polynucleotide.
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Which DNA polymerase is the komberg enzyme?
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DNA polymerase I.
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What mechanism is the komberg enzyme involve with? What does this mechanism facilitate?
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The komberg enzyme (DNA polymerase I) facilitates the excision-repair mechanism which is involved in DNA repair of UV damage.
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What does DNA polymerase require in which to add mononucleotides on to a growing DNA strand?
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DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to a pre-existing 3'-OH group, and therefore needs a primer at which to add the first nucleotide.
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OriC is known as what?
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The origin of replication
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Ter is known as what?
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DNA replication terminus site-binding protein
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Dna replication used by bacterial viruses.
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The rolling circle mechanism
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The rolling circle mechanism is used by which type of organism(s) during DNA replication.
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The rolling circle mechanism is used for DNA replication in bacterial viruses, bacteriophages, and during DNA replication in conjugation.
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During conjugation, this type of DNA replication is used.
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Rolling circle mechanism
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This type of nucleic acid replaces thymine with uracil.
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Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
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Which nucleic acid usually exists in a single stranded form?
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RNA
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Which sugar is RNA composed of? DNA?
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RNA is composed of ribose sugars, DNA is composed of deoxyribose sugars.
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List the 3 forms of RNA.
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mRNA, rRNA, tRNA
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Which form(s) of RNA is transcribed from a DNA template? Which polymerase(s) does this?
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All 3 forms of RNA are transcribed from a DNA template. This done by DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
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True or False. The RNA polymerase is a multi-subunit enzyme.
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True.
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Subunit(s) that make up RNA polymerase.
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There are 4 subunits that comprise the complete RNA polymerase enzyme. Alpha, Beta, Beta', and Sigma.
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This subunit is the initiation factor of RNA polymerase.
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Sigma
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Consider RNA polymerase: Which subunit is required for promoter binding. Does this subunit dissociate at any point during polymerization?
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The sigma subunit is required for promoter binding, once polymerization begins, this subunit dissociates from the core enzyme.
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Polymerization?
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Any process in which relatively small molecules (monomers) combine chemically to produce a very large chainlike structure.
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One of the largest enzymes known.
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RNA polymerase
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This enzyme is a point of difference between bacteria, archaea, and eukarya
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RNA polymerase
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Bacteria has how many RNA polymerases. How many subunits?
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1, 6 subunits
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Archaea has how many RNA polymerases. How many subunits?
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several types, 8-12 subunits
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Eukarya has how many RNA polymerases. How many subunits?
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several types, 12-14 subunits
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Which phylogenic group has RNA polymerase composed of the most subunits.
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Eukarya, RNA polymerase has 12-14 subunits
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Which RNA type is the most varied?
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mRNA
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Approximate life span of mRNA in a bacterial cell.
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Few minutes
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This type of RNA carries genetic material from the DNA template to the ribosomes
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mRNA
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The entire or functionally complete enzyme
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Haloenzyme
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Polycistronic mRNA are common in which organism(s).
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prokarytoes (bacteria)
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Carries the information of several genes, which are translated into several proteins
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polycistronic mRNA
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Polycistronic mRNA
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mRNA that commonly contains information for the amino acid sequence for several different polypeptide chains.
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A single linear chain of amino acids bonded together by peptide bonds.
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Polypeptide
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Polypeptide
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A single linear chain of amino acids bonded together by peptide bonds.
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In E. coli, the 10 enzymes neede to synthesize histidine are encoded in 1 mRNA molecule. This is an example of?
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Polycistronic mRNA
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True or False. All base sequences in an mRNA molecule is translated into the amino acid sequence for polypeptides.
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False. Not all bases are translated.
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Consider translation: What is the region known as the leader?
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Translation of mRNA rarely starts exactly at one end of the mRNA molecule and proceeding to the other other. Instead, it may begin 100's of nucleotides in from the 5'-PO4 terminus. This UNTRANSLATED region is called the leader.
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Separates the coding sequence in polycistronic mRNA, is usually about 10 bases long
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spacer sequence
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What does the coding sequence of mRNA determine?
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Determines the amino acid sequence in the protein that is being translated.
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In bacteria, the intact ribosomal particle is called.
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A 70S ribosome
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Consider the 70S ribosome which is comprised of a large and small subunit: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within each subunit?
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The large 50S ribosomal subunit contains two rRNA species (the 5S and 23S rRNAs). The small 30S ribosomal subunit contains the 16S rRNA.
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Consider translation: What is the region known as the leader?
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Translation of mRNA rarely starts exactly at one end of the mRNA molecule and proceeding to the other other. Instead, it may begin 100's of nucleotides in from the 5'-PO4 terminus. This UNTRANSLATED region is called the leader.
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Separates the coding sequence in polycistronic mRNA, is usually about 10 bases long
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spacer sequence
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What does the coding sequence of mRNA determine?
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Determines the amino acid sequence in the protein that is being translated.
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In bacteria, the intact ribosomal particle is called.
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A 70S ribosome
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Consider the 70S ribosome which is comprised of a large and small subunit: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within each subunit?
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The large 50S ribosomal subunit contains two rRNA species (the 5S and 23S rRNAs). The small 30S ribosomal subunit contains the 16S rRNA.
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Consider the 80S ribosome which is comprised of a large and small subunit: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within each subunit?
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The large 60S ribosomal subunit contains three rRNA species (the 5S, 5.8S, and 28S rRNAs). The small 40S ribosomal subunit contains the 18S rRNA.
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In eukaryotes, the intact ribosomal particle is called.
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The 80S ribosome
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Consider prokaryotic rRNA: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within the large subunit?
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The large 50S ribosomal subunit contains two rRNA species (the 5S and 23S rRNAs).
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Consider prokaryotic rRNA: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within the small subunit?
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A small 30S ribosomal subunit contains the 16S rRNA.
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Consider eukaryotic rRNA: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within the large subunit?
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The large 60S ribosomal subunit contains three rRNA species (the 5S, 5.8S, and 28S rRNAs).
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Consider the 80S ribosome which is comprised of a large and small subunit: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within each subunit?
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The large 60S ribosomal subunit contains three rRNA species (the 5S, 5.8S, and 28S rRNAs). The small 40S ribosomal subunit contains the 18S rRNA.
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In eukaryotes, the intact ribosomal particle is called.
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The 80S ribosome
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Consider prokaryotic rRNA: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within the large subunit?
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The large 50S ribosomal subunit contains two rRNA species (the 5S and 23S rRNAs).
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Consider prokaryotic rRNA: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within the small subunit?
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A small 30S ribosomal subunit contains the 16S rRNA.
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Consider eukaryotic rRNA: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within the large subunit?
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The large 60S ribosomal subunit contains three rRNA species (the 5S, 5.8S, and 28S rRNAs).
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Consider eukaryotic rRNA: How is the intact ribosomal particle broken down within the small subunit?
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The small 40S ribosomal subunit contains the 18S rRNA.
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Is considered the smallest of the RNA molecules
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tRNA.
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In it's secondary structure, is usually visualized as a cloverleaf folded back on themselves.
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tRNA
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How is the unique structure of tRNA maintained?
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Internal base pairing which results in loops.
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Molecule involved with the translation of the genetic message.
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tRNA
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Pseudouridine is an example of what?
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Methylated form of a tRNA base
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Dihydrouridine is an example of what?
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Methylated form of a tRNA base
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Methylation?
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Addition of a methyl group to a substrate
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True or False. Each tRNA carries a specific amino acid.
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True.
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True or False. ATP is necessary to link amino acids to the appropriate tRNA.
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True.
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True or False. There is at least 1 tRNA for the 20 amino acids.
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True.
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Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase?
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An enzyme that catalyzes the esterification of a specific amino acid to the appropriate tRNA.
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Anticodon?
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A unit made up of three nucleotides that correspond to the three bases of the codon on the mRNA molecule.
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What would mostly likely be the anticodon for lysine (AAA)?
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The anticodon of a lysine tRNA might be UUU.
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Pseudouridine and dihydrouidine are involved in?
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The binding of the ribosome and the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
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Approximately what percentage of chromosomal DNA encodes synthesis of rRNA and tRNA in the cell?
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Less than 1%.
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Which RNA molecule(s) is least stable?
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mRNA
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How does the bacterial cell make rRNA and tRNA?
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The molecules are excised from large primary transcripts.
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RNA is synthesized in which direction?
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5'PO4 to 3'OH direction
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True or False. During RNA synthesis, only one of the DNA strands is transcribed in any given DNA region.
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True.
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When does RNA synthesis begin?
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With the binding of RNA polymerase to a promoter on DNA.
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Promoters?
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Specific DNA sequences, usually 20-200 bases long.
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This sequence is found as part of all prokaryotic promoters?
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TATAAT, known as the pribnow box
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This sequence is located about 35 base pairs upstream from the polymerization start site.
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TTGACA, known as the 35 sequence
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How did they discover promoters?
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Mixed RNA polymerase with DNA. Treated mixture with DNAase leaving region bound to RNA polymerase intact. Sequenced this "intact" DNA region. Discovered promoter region.
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List the 5 stages of RNA synthesis.
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1. Promoter recognition
2. Unwinding 3. Initiation 4. Elongation 5. Termination |
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This subunit recognizes specific binding sites and ensures that the RNA polymerase forms stable associations with DNA only at promoters
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Sigma subunit
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This sequence causes the RNA polymerase to pause and terminates RNA synthesis
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The termination sequence
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Rho factor (p factor)?
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A prokaryotic protein involved in the termination of transcription
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Consider RNA synthesis: Which type of RNA terminator results in a hairpin formation in the new chain?
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Rho independent terminator
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For protein synthesis In bacteria, the initiating amino acid is a formylated version of what?
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Methionine
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The formylated version of methionine is specified by the codon?
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AUG and GUG
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How is the initiation complex during protein synthesis formed?
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The initiation complex is formed from the binding of the 30S ribosomal subunit to the initation codon, AUG or GUG on the mRNA.
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Establishes the reading frame for the mRNA.
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The initiation codon
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N-formylmethionine or fmet?
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formylated version of methionine
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Shine Delgarno sequence
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A purine rich region that precedes the 5' end of the initiation AUG codon
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The initiation step of protein synthesis requires what (in prokaryotes)?
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Requires a 30S ribosomal subunit, mRNA, fmet-tRNA, 3 protein initiation factors (IF1, IF2, IF3) and GTP.
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What does the protein initiation factor IF3 do?
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Catalyzes the dissociation of the 70S ribosome into individual subunits.
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What does the protein initiation factor IF2 do?
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Involved in the position of the fmet-tRNA to the correct codon on the 30S subunit. GTP is also involved here.
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What does the initiation factor IF1 do?
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assists the IF3 in binding to the 30S subunit to the mRNA.
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Which protein initiation factor assists IF3 in binding to the 30S subunit to the mRNA?
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IF1
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During protein synthesis, when does elongation begin?
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Elongation begins with the binding of an aminoacyl-tRNA to the complementary codon on the mRNA at the ribosomal site.
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During elongation of protein synthesis, this factor mediates the entry of the aminoacyl-tRNA into a free site of the ribosome.
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EF-Tu (elongation factor thermo unstable)
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During elongation of protein synthesis, this factor serves as the guanine nucleotide exchange factor, catalyzes the release of GDP from EF-Tu.
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EF-Ts (elongation factor thermo stable)
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During elongation of protein synthesis, this factor catalyzes the translocation of the tRNA and mRNA down the ribosome at the end of each round of polypeptide elongation
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EF-G
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Promote the binding of incoming aminoacyl-tRNA molecules to the ribosome
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Elongation factors (EF-Tu, EF-Ts, EF-G)
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During elongation of protein synthesis, a peptide bond is formed between which part of the amino acid?
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A peptide bond is formed between the alpha carbonyl group of the amino acid in the 'P" site of the ribosome and the alpha amino group of the amino acid at the "A" site of the ribosome.
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What type of bond is between the tRNA in the "P" site and it's amino acid?
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A ester bond.
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During elongation of protein synthesis, what is translocation?
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The ribosomal movement along the mRNA by one codon length in the 5' to 3' direction.
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During elongation of protein synthesis, translocation requires which elongation factors?
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EF-G, and the hydrolysis of GTP
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Protein synthesis continues until the ribosome reaches one of three nonsense or termination codons. List them.
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UAA, UGA, UAG
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Where are the termination codons located?
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On the mRNA strand
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When would a protein release factor bind to the ribosome?
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Once one of the nonsense or termination codons are read.
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During termination of protein synthesis, these hydrolyze the ester bond that holds the last tRNA that entered the ribosome
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Protein release factors
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Very little mRNA is required by cells for protein synthesis. How is this achieved?
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A single mRNA can have several ribosomes attached to it (polyribosome), thus very little mRNA is required by cells for protein synthesis.
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Operon regulation involving the binding of a repressor to the operator, preventing transcription.
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Negative regulation
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Operon regulation in which an effector molecule activates a promoter, no inhibition is overridden.
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Positive regulation
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Activator proteins bind to DNA and promote transcription
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Positive transcriptional control
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Repressor proteins bind to DNA then inhibits initiation of transcription.
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Negative transcriptional control
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Name the three enzymes involved in lactose uptake and utilization
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beta-galactosidase, beta-galactoside permease, and thiogalactoside transacetylase
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Hydrolyzes lactose into glucose and galactose
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beta-galactosidase
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transports the sugar into the cell
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b-galactoside permease
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Activator proteins bind to DNA and promote transcription
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Positive transcriptional control
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Repressor proteins bind to DNA then inhibits initiation of transcription.
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Negative transcriptional control
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Name the three enzymes involved in lactose uptake and utilization
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beta-galactosidase, beta-galactoside permease, and thiogalactoside transacetylase
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During lactose uptake and utilization, this enzyme hydrolyzes lactose into glucose and galactose
|
beta-galactosidase
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During lactose uptake and utilization, this enzyme transports the sugar into the cell
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b-galactoside permease
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During lactose uptake and utilization, this enzymes function is unknown
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Thiogalactoside transacetylase
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If both glucose and lactose is present, is the lac operon needed?
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The lac operon is not needed.
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True or False. cAMP level regulates the activity of the lac operon
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True.
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If the cAMP level in bacteria is high, would the lac operon be on or off?
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cAMP receptor proteins are a positive regulator of the lac operon, therefor high levels of cAMP would turn the lac operon on.
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The tryptophan operon functions when?
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Functions only when tryptophan is NOT present
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Tryptophan operon is an example of what type of inhibition?
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Feedback inhibition
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If tryptophan is low?
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Repression is inactive, and transcription occurs
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If tryptophan is high?
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Binds to repressor with a "corepressor", sits on operon, trancription does not occur.
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Consider the tryptophan operon: In the absence of the corepressor, is tryptophan made?
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In the absence of the corepressor, the RNA polymerase is able to bind to the promoter region, tryptophan is made.
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Consider the tryptophan operon: Does tryptophan increase or decrease the affinity of the repressor protein for the operator?
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Increases affinity of the repressor! High levels of typ repress the production of tryptophan. Low levels of typ initiate the production of tryptophan.
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On the trp operon, where is the trpL located?
|
Between the trpO and trpE region.
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Attenuator?
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Refers to a specific regulatory sequence that, when transcribed into RNA, forms hairpin structures to stop transcription when certain conditions are met.
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Describe attenuation as it pertains to the trp operon
|
Attenuation is a second mechanism of negative feedback in the trp operon. Provides a stop sequence that is synthesized resulting in the termination of the transcription of the genes. trpL (leader) contains this sequence. when trp low, leader not synthesized.
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Diauxic growth? Example?
|
A growth pattern in which there are 2 exponential phases of growth. E.coli growth in the presence of glucose and lactose. Glucose will be utilized first, then lactose.
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Inheritable change in the sequence of DNA
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Mutation
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Organisms that have undergone mutation. a phenotypic change is expressed
|
Mutants
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The original form of a mutant is?
|
the wild type
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A mutation that can occur naturally
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Spontaneous mutation
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A mutation that is the result of a chemical or radiation impact on genes
|
Induced mutation
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Involves a single substitution in a base
|
Point mutation
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A point mutation that occurs on the third position of the codon
|
Silent mutation
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Will a silent mutation effect the amino acid coded by the affected area of the DNA
|
NOPE
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A mutation in which the substitutions are in the first and/or second position of the codon
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Missense mutation
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Which type of mutation can result in a disfunctional protein?
|
Missense mutation
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A mutation which results in the formation of a nonsense codon
|
Nonsense mutation
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Which type of mutation can result in premature termination of protein synthesis
|
nonsense mutation
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A mutation in which segments of the genome is removed
|
Deletion
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A mutation in which one or more bases are added to the DNA
|
Insertions
|
|
Resulting from either a single base deletion or insertion, can change the amino acid sequence of the protein
|
Reading frameshift
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|
Mutated base is changed back into it's original form
|
Back mutation
|
|
Mutations that overcome or suppress the effects of the initial mutation without alteration in the original gene
|
Suppressor mutation
|
|
Mutagenic agent which causes the formation of pyrimidine dimers in chromosomes
|
UV radiation
|
|
Chemical that can substitute for nucleotide (bases)
|
base analogs
|
|
Give an example of a base analog
|
5-Bromouracil. Substitutes for thymine. This will bind with guanine instead of adenine. leads to errors in replication
|
|
Replacement of a purine by a different purine or a pyrimidine for a different pyrimidine
|
Transistions
|
|
Mutations that overcome or suppress the effects of the initial mutation without alteration in the original gene
|
Suppressor mutation
|
|
Mutagenic agent which causes the formation of pyrimidine dimers in chromosomes
|
UV radiation
|
|
Chemical that can substitute for nucleotide (bases)
|
base analogs
|
|
Give an example of a base analog
|
5-Bromouracil. Substitutes for thymine. This will bind with guanine instead of adenine. leads to errors in replication
|
|
Replacement of a purine by a different purine or a pyrimidine for a different pyrimidine
|
Transistions
|
|
Mutations that overcome or suppress the effects of the initial mutation without alteration in the original gene
|
Suppressor mutation
|
|
Mutagenic agent which causes the formation of pyrimidine dimers in chromosomes
|
UV radiation
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|
Chemical that can substitute for nucleotide (bases)
|
base analogs
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|
Give an example of a base analog
|
5-Bromouracil. Substitutes for thymine. This will bind with guanine instead of adenine. leads to errors in replication
|
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Replacement of a purine by a different purine or a pyrimidine for a different pyrimidine
|
Transistions
|
|
An alkylating agent that acts at the DNA replication fork causing crosslinking of the DNA strands and errors in replication
|
N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine (NTG)
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|
DNA repair mechanism in bacteria that corrects damage that causes distortion in the DNA helix
|
Excision repair
|
|
Give an example of excision repair
|
T-T dimers from UV radiaiton
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|
DNA repair mechanism in bacteria the cleaves the covalent linkages between damaged pyrimidines
|
Photoreactivation
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Which DNA repair mechanism has a light activated enzyme, photolyase?
|
Photoreactivation
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|
Which repair mechanism does not require the removal and replacement of bases?
|
Photoreactivation
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What enzyme removes the base during DNA repair?
|
glycosylases
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True or False. DNA polymerase I removes the bases during DNA repair, DNA ligase joins the fragments
|
True
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|
DNA repair mechanism imployed when DNA damage is severe. Which genes are involved?
|
SOS response. Involves 17 genes, expression is controlled by the lexA and recA genes
|
|
Method used to detect auxotrophs from the prototrophs (wild type strain)
|
Replica Plating
|
|
Bacterial DNA transfer that involves the insertion of naked DNA from a donor cell into a recipient cell.
|
Transformation
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|
Bacterial DNA transfer that involves bacterial viruses (phages). The phage is the vector of the transfer of the DNA material.
|
Transduction
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|
Bacterial DNA transfer that involves contact between a donor and recipient cell.
|
Conjugation.
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|
A bacterial test uses to screen for carcinogens that otherwise cause mutations in bacteria
|
Ames Test
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Bacterial test that measures the reversion of histindine auxotrophs in Salmonella typhimurium, to histidine prototrophs
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Ames Test
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Involves the introduction of bacteriophage DNA into a cell
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Transfection
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A bacteriophage serves as a vehicle for transfer of bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another
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Transduction
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What are the two ways in which transduction can occur?
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Generalized or Specialized
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Which form of transduction is restricted?
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Specialized transduction
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Transducing phage particles that lack a full complement of host DNA. These particles are unable to carry through the complete lytic cylcle.
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Defective phages.
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In which type of transduction is the probability of a given gene being transferred to a recipient cell increased?
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Specialized transduction
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Type of transduction that only occurs with temperate bacteriophages (those able to incorporate their DNA into host chromosomes without cell lysis).
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Specialized transduction
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Type of transduction in which the progeny bacteriophage lacks a complete phage genome.
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Specialized transduction
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The galactose gnes and lambda phage is an example of which transduction
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Specialized transduction
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Type of transduction in which the transducing phage DNA is not incorporated into the host chromosome. The phage DNA neither replicates nor is it destroyed. Rather it is transmitted in the daughter cells as the cell divide by binary fission becoming less and less apparent
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Abortive Transductions
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Occurs when a normal temperate bacteriophage lysogenizes a cell and one or more genes of the prophages are expressed
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Lysogenic conversion
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Corynebacterium diphtheriae infected with the phage beta is an example of what
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Lysogenic conversion
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The newly integrated genetic material in the lysogeny cycle
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Prophage
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Typically considered the main method of viral replication, results in the destruction of the infected cell.
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Lytic cycle
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Characterized by integration of the bacteriophage nucleic acid into the host bacterium's genome
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Lysogenic cycle
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Erythrogenic toxin is a pathogenic lysogenic conversion of what organism?
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Streptococcus pyogenes
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Botulinium toxin is a pathogenic lysogenic conversion of what organism?
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Clostridum botulinum
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Cholera toxin is a pathogenic lysogenic conversion of what organism?
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Vibrio cholerae
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Lysogenic conversion is an example of which type of transduction?
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Specialized transduction
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