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210 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Controllers who encounter situations which are NOT covered in 7110.65 are expected to
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Use their best judgment
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Procedural Letters of Agreement are __________ to 7110.65
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Supplemental
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Procedural Letters of Agreement require the concurrence of
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more than one facility
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The word "shall" means a procedure is
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mandatory
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The word which means a procedure is recommended is
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"Should"
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The word which means futurity, but does NOT imply that a procedure or action is required is
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Will
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Establishing or standardizing operating methods requires a
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Letter of Agreement
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The term "aircraft" includes both the
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Crew members and the airframe
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The word "altitude" means indicated altitude expressed in mean sea level, __________, or both
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Flight level
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When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to __________ miles; otherwise, "miles" means ________ miles.
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Statute, nautical
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When time is used in the context of clock reading, the hour and minutes are expressed in
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Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)
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When reading the time, the change to the next minute is made at the minute plus ______ seconds
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30
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A time check is given to the nearest
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Quarter minute
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The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is to separate aircraft and
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Issue safety alerts
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When determining priority of duties, a controller should exercise
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good judgment
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Give first priority to issuing safety alerts and
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separating aircraft
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When establishing priority of duties, you should consider the
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situation at hand
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When workload, communications, and equipment permit, ________ procedures are preferred
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automation
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The use of nonradar separation is preferred over radar separation when a/an __________ will be gained
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operational advantage
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A safety alert is issued when a controller recognizes a situation of unsafe aircraft proximity of terrain, obstacles, or
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other aircraft
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As a general rule, air traffic control operational priority is based on
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first come, first served
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Aircraft in distress have right of way over ________ air traffic
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All other
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Military air evacuation flights are afforded priority when requested by
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The pilot
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The term LIFEGUARD refers to a
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civilian air ambulance flight
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Provide special handling, as required, to expedite ________ flights
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flight check
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Search and Rescue (SAR) flights performing SAR missions should be provided ___________ assistance
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maximum
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In an operational priority situation, IFR aircraft have priority over _______ aircraft
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SVFR
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USA/USAF/USN controllers shall remind a military aircraft to check wheels down unless the pilot _______ for the approach
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Has previously reported wheels down
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When prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation, use the word
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Expedite
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When expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation, use the word
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Immediately
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What term do pilots use to inform ATC that they CANNOT accept undue delay at their destination because of low fuel
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Minimum fuel
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A formation flight shall be controlled a a/an
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single aircraft
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Transfer control responsibility of an aircraft only after eliminating any potential
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Conflicts
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Unless specifically coordinated, assume control of an aircraft only after
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it is in your area of jurisdiction
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Before allowing an aircraft to enter airspace under another controller's jurisdiction, a controller must first _______ with the receiving controller
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Coordinate
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When must transfer of radio communications for an en route aircraft be accomplished?
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Before entering the receiving controller's area
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Respond to another controller's operational request by restating the incomplete or abbreviated terms followed by the word
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Approved
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Air traffic control service is provided based only upon observed or ________ known
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Known
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The operating position having primary responsibility for operations on the active runway is
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Local Controller
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When the local controller authorizes a vehicle or aircraft under another controller's jurisdiction to cross an active runway, the local controller shall specify the runway preceded by the words
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Cross
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Known ground vehicles, equipment, and personnel must be clear of a runway before a departing aircraft starts takeoff or a landing aircraft crosses the
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runway threshold
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Vehicles on or near a movement area should be described in a manner which will assist pilots in
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recognizing them
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The three methods for determining the location of an aircraft on the airport are visual, pilots and
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ASDE
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Local controllers may use certified radar displays to provide a direction or suggested heading to a VFR aircraft as an advisory aid to
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Navigation
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Pilots wishing to exceed the prescribed speed limit in Class C or Class D airspace must
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Receive ATC authorization
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The minimum age requirement to be eligible for a CTO certificate is _______ years
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18
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Separation responsibility between aircraft within a formation during transition to individual control rests with the
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Pilots concerned
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A practical test on Notice to Airmen procedures is a prerequisite to act as an air traffic control operator at any
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operating position
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A practical test on the surface area includes terrain features, visual checkpoints and
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Obstructions
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To operate at any operational position, a control tower operator must pass a/an __________ test on weather reporting procedures and the use of reports
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Practical
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At least once during each consecutive seven work days, a controller must have _____ consecutive hours of relief
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24
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An air traffic controller is limited to _____ consecutive hours of duty
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10
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When performing duties as an air traffic controller, controllers shall have their CTO certificate
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Readily available
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To meet currency requirements, air traffic control tower operators must have served for at least ______ of the preceding 6 months at the facility for which their facility rating applies
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3
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Applicants for a facility rating at any air traffic control tower must have satisfactorily served as an air traffic control tower operator at that control tower without a facility rating for at least ______ months
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6`
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To meet the application requirements for a facility rating, a military applicant must have satisfactorily served as an air traffic control operator for at least _______ months
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6
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What airspace extends from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower
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Class D
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The FAR which specifies the required certificates and ratings or qualifications for ATC tower operations is Part ________ Subpart B
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65
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When distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, the separation minima between a CAT II aircraft departing behind a CAT I departure is ________ Feet
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4,500
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The minimum separation required for an aircraft taking off on the same runway behind a preceding heavy jet/B757 departure is _____ minute(s)
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2
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The minimum separation for an aircraft departing behind a heavy jet departure on parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet is ______ minute(s)
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2
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Intersection departures may be initiated or authorized by a controller if
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the pilot requests
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The controller action required for an aircraft executing an instrument approach to a closed runway is to
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restate the landing runway
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The approval or disapproval of a pilot request to remain in closed traffic is based on
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Local traffic conditions
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An aircraft conducting an overhead maneuver is on VFR and the IFR flight plan is canceled when the AC reaches the ______ on the initial approach portion of the maneuver
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Initial point
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Restricted low approaches are NOT authorized over an aircraft in takeoff position or a _________
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Departing aircraft
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Issue the position, altitude, if known, and direction of flight of a heavy jet or ___________ when issuing wake turbulence cautionary advisories
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B-757
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You may clear an arriving aircraft to land if you observe a preceding arrival's position and determine that the prescribed runway separation will exist when the succeeding AC crosses the ______
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Landing threshold
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During daylight hours and when distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, an arriving CAT I AC must NOT cross the landing threshold until a departing CAT I AC is airborne and at least ________ feet from the landing threshold
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3,000
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Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories to AC landing behind a departing/arriving heavy jet/B757 on a parallel runway separated by less than _______ feet
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2,500
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Simultaneous takeoff and landing operations may be conducted on intersecting runways provided they are approved by the facility manager, authorized by a facility directive and conducted _______
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In VFR
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A Boeing 737 is departing on an 8,000 foot runway. A twin engine Piper Aztec is ready for takeoff from an intersection on the same runway. The earliest you may clear the Piper Aztec for takeoff is _____ minutes after the Boeing 737 has taken off
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3
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The minimum separation required when a landing AC will fly through the flight path of an airborne departing heavy jet/B-757 on a crossing runway is ____ minutes
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2
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Specific traffic pattern information issued to an arriving AC may be omitted if a _____ traffic pattern is in use
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Left
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Unless requested by the pilot, do NOT issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds ______ Knots
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5
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During taxi and ground movement operations, large and heavier helicopters show a significant increase in __________
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Downwash turbulence
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When holding instructions are issued for more than one VFR AC at the same visual holding point, you must issue
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Traffic information
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Operations on the active runway are a primary responsibility of the
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Local control
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When cleared to "AIR-TAXI", a helicopter is expected to remain below _____ feet AGL unless otherwise requested or instructed
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100
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At locations that have a LOA for Special VFR helicopter operations, the minimum separation between a Special VFR helicopter and an arriving or departing IFR aircraft 1 mile or more from the airport is _____ mile(s)
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1
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Authorize simultaneous helicopter landings and takeoffs if landing/takeoff points are at least 200 feet apart and _____
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courses to be flown do not conflict
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The phraseology which will permit a pilot to make a touch and go, low approach, missed approach or stop and go is
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CLEARED FOR THE OPTION
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An AC which has been cleared for a low approach is considered to be an arrival until the AC crosses the
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Landing threshold
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To achieve proper spacing between helicopters, ______ may be more practical than course changes
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Speed adjustments
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Simultaneous, same direction AC operations on parallel runways are authorized only during VFR conditions unless _______ separation is applied
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visual
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Simultaneous, opposite direction AC operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are NOT authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of ________ feet
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2800
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Before takeoff, inform departing IFR, SVFR, VFR aircraft receiving radar service, and TRSA VFR aircraft of the appropriate departure control frequency and _______
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initial heading
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A non-approach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two AC within the ______ area
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Surface
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Non-approach control towers may be authorized to provide visual separation between AC within the surface area provided other separation is assured ____ the application of visual separation
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before and after
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Separation of IFR AC before and after the application of visual separation is a/an ______ function
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IFR Control
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Departing IFR civil AC should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about _____ mile(s) beyond the end of the runway
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1/2
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Departure control frequency may be omitted if the AC is assigned a standard instrument departure and the frequency is published on the _____
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departure procedure
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When radio communication CANNOT be employed, AC and movement of vehicles on the movement area are controlled by
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Light signals
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An AC receiving a flashing white signal light while holding short of an active runway should______
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return to starting point
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A flashing green light to an AC in flight means
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Return for landing, followed by a green light at the proper time
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To obtain acknowledgement, an airborne fixed wing AC equipped with receiver only should be instructed to ______ between sunrise and sunset
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rock the wings
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Between sunset and sunrise, a helicopter equipped with receiver only should be requested to acknowledge instructions by flashing the landing light or _____
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flashing the search light
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The appropriate light signal for use when AC are converging and a collision hazard exists is ____
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Alternating red and green
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Wake turbulence separation minima shall continue to touchdown point for all aircraft NOT making a visual approach or _______
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maintaining visual separation
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Issue heavy jet wake turbulence advisories to IFR AC that accept the visual approach or _______
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are maintaining visual separation
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Provide preventive airport traffic control service only to AC operating in accordance with a _______
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LOA
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When an LLWAS alert is received, issue the centerfield wind (direction and velocity) and the
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displayed field boundary wind
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LLWAS is designed to detect conditions only around the periphery of a/an __________
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Airport
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When Low level wind shear is reported by pilots or detected by LLWAS, the statement "LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR ADVISORIES IN EFFECT" shall be included on the ATIS broadcast for _________ minutes
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20
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Even though the low level wind shear alert system (LLWAS) is NOT in alert status, issue specific field boundary wind information if ______
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requested by the pilot
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If an LLWAS alert is received, issue the ________ and the displayed field boundary wind
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Centerfield wind
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The certificate issued by the FAA authorizing the holder to act as an air traffic control tower operator is called a ________ certificate.
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CTO
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An endorsement that an applicant has met the requirements to control air traffic at a facility is called a _________
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Facility rating
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Before a CTO certificate can be issued, each applicant must pass a/an _________ examination
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Written
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A person acting as an ATC tower operator involving civil AC, NOT holding a valid CTO certificate or facility rating at that location, must be under the supervision of a holder of a/an ___________
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facility rating for that control tower
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General eligibility requirements for non-FAA employees and AD military personnel to hold a CTO certificate include minimum age of 18 years, good character, command of the english language and possession of a/an
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appropriate current medical certificate
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Skill requirements for operating positions in a control tower include the passing of a/an _________ test
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Practical
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An ATC tower operator may NOT issue an IFR clearance without approval of the facility having _______ that location
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IFR Control
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NO person may perform the duties of an air traffic controller, even if holding a CTO certificate, unless he holds a current medical certificate or
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medical clearance
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The reduced separation minimum between a CAT III departure followed by a CAT III arrival is _______ Feet
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6000
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Separate an arriving AC from a/an arriving/departing AC on a crossing runway by ensuring the arriving AC does NOT cross the landing threshold until the AC has departing AC has
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passed the intersection or is airborne and turning to avoid conflict
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Land and Hold Short Operations shall only be conducted
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in VFR conditions
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When simultaneous landings are in progress on intersecting runways and no operational benefit is lost, restrict the AC in the
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lesser category
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During Land and Hold Short Operations on intersecting runways, issue the measured distance from the landing threshold to the intersection, rounded to ______ feet if requested by either AC
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50
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A condition for conducting Land and Hold Short Operations on intersecting runways is that both runways is that both runways must be dry with NO breaking action reports of less than
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Good
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A provision for conducting a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways is that both AC involved must be issued
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traffic information
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The term high key relates to a/an _____ approach
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simulated flame out
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On an overhead approach, the initial approach is _____ nautical miles in length
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3-5
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Do NOT authorize an AC to taxi into position and hold at an intersection between sunset and sunrise, or at any time when the intersection is
|
not visible from the tower
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While conducting simultaneous landings on intersecting runways, the maximum allowable tailwind for a landing AC that has been instructed to hold short of an intersection in ______ knots
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0
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A factor to be considered when determining which runways are to be designated as "active" runways is
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severe weather activity
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ATC service is provided in accordance with procedures and minima contained in Order 7110.65, except when pilots are required to abide by
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ICAO documents or rules of the air
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Reporting essential flight information includes any flight conditions which may have an adverse effect on
|
air safety
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Before issuing a clearance to AC which would transit another facility's surface area, coordinate with the appropriate
|
non-approach control tower
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After an AC has been issued a clearance to taxi into position on a runway to hold, the phraseology to prevent the AC from inadvertently taking off is
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HOLD IN POSITION
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A pilot encountering an "urgency" situation should be broadcast _______ three times
|
PAN-PAN
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Inform an AC of any observed abnormal AC condition when requested by a pilot or
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when you deem it necessary
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When issuing traffic to radar-identified AC, state azimuth from AC, distance, and
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direction of flight
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Local controllers may use certified tower radar displays to determine an AC's exact location, spatial relationship to other AC, or
|
Identification
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Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing the target make an identifying turn of __ degrees or more
|
30
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The term that describes a physical or automated action taken to transfer the radar ID of an AC from one controller to another if the AC will enter the receiving controller's airspace and radio communications with the AC will NOT be transferred is
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point out
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Transfer radar ID from one controller to another to provide ___ radar service
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continuous
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The procedure that permits one controller to transfer radar ID of an AC to another controller, to request approval for an AC to enter another controller's airspace, and to retain radio communications with the AC is
|
Point out
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Radar separation shall be applied between the ______ of beacon control slashes
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Ends
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Radar separation shall be applied between the ______ of beacon control slashes and the ________ of primary targets.
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Ends, Centers
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Do NOT approve a pilots request to conduct aerobatic practice activities within surface areas of Class B, C or D airspace unless operating in accordance with ____
|
A letter of agreement
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When special VFR operations are being conducted, authorize an AC to climb to VFR upon request if the only weather limitation is_______
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restricted visibility
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Special VFR AC are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of
|
the clearance from clouds requirement
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|
Special VFR minimums are prescribed in Federal Aviation Regulations, Part ___
|
91
|
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Local Controllers shall visually scan runways
|
to the maximum extent possible
|
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Fixed wing Special VFR flights may be approved only if arriving and departing AC are NOT
|
delayed
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When ground visibility is officially reported at an airport as less than 1 mile, inform pilots of arriving fixed wing AC that ground visibility is less than 1 mile and that a clearance CANNOT be issued unless
|
an emergency exists
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The minimum vertical separation between an IFR AC and a Special VFR AC is that the Special VFR be assigned an altitude at least
|
500 feet below any conflicting AC
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Special VFR operations may be authorized for AC transiting the surface area when the primary airport is reporting VFR, but the pilot is unable to
|
maintain VFR
|
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The objective of gate hold procedures is to achieve departure delays of _____ minutes or less after engine start and taxi time
|
15
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When gate hold procedures are in effect, advise departing AC of the time at which the pilot can expect to receive a/an _____ time and/or taxi advisory
|
engine start
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Sequence for departure under gate hold procedures shall be maintained in accordance with ______ unless modified by flow control restrictions
|
initial call
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Gate hold procedures shall be implemented whenever departure delays exceed or are expected to exceed ________ minutes
|
15
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Where available ______ is used to provide non-controlled airport, terminal area operational, and meteorological information to AC
|
ATIS
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If the reported ceiling/sky condition is above 5000 feet and visibility is _____ miles or more, ceiling, visibility and obstruction to vision are optional in the ATIS message
|
5
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Unless required for message content, optimum duration of an ATIS message should not exceed ____ seconds
|
30
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When recording an ATIS, message speech rate should not exceed _____ words per minute
|
100
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______ shall be operated continuously to augment visual observation of AC landing or departing and AC or vehicular movements on runways and taxiways, or other areas of the movement area
|
ASDE/AMASS
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The light system arranged to provide vertical visual approach slope guidance information during the approach to a runway is ____
|
VASI
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Responsibility for operating airport lights during the hours when the tower is closed belongs to the
|
airport management/operator
|
|
Approach lights shall be operated between sunrise and sunset when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet or the prevailing visibility is _________ mile(s) or less and approaches re being made to a landing served by the lights.
|
5
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Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) shall be operated when the visibility is less than _______ mile(s) and instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS.
|
3
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The current touchdown RVR/RVV for the runway(s)-in-use shall be issued when prevailing visibility is ________ mile(s) or less, regardless of the value indicated.
|
1
|
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Between sunrise and sunset, ceiling or visibility below basic VFR minima is indicated by turning on the ____
|
rotating beacon
|
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Reportable values for RVR are _____ feet or less and for RVV, 1 1/2 miles or less.
|
6,000
|
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What is the phraseology for issuing RVR/RVV information.
|
RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED
|
|
Issue current touchdown RVR/RVV for the runway(s) in use when RVR/RVV indicates a reportable value regardless of
|
prevailing visibility
|
|
The runway edge lights for the runway in use shall be turned on whenever the associated _______ lights are on.
|
Approach
|
|
Except where a runway use program is in effect, use the "calm wind" runway when the wind is less than ____ knots
|
5
|
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Determining which runways are to be designated as "active" is a primary responsibility of the
|
tower supervisor/CIC
|
|
The types of radar services designed to enhance safety by providing air traffic services to VFR AC are basic radar, TRSA, Class B and Class _____ services.
|
C
|
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The physical dimensions of Class C airspace will normally be a ____ NM radius capped at 4,000 feet above the primary airport.
|
10
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Class C airspace shall extend down to ___ feet above the surface, except that an inner core with a 5NM radius shall extend down to the surface.
|
1,200
|
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What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of AC based on IFR/VFR and or weight, sequencing of VFR AC, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport?
|
Class B
|
|
What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR AC to the primary airport and separation between all participating VFR AC?
|
TRSA
|
|
Participation by pilots in the Terminal Radar Program is
|
urged
|
|
The appropriate VFR altitude for direction of flight rule does NOT apply until the AC is above _____ AGL
|
3,000
|
|
Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are solely established to define airspace within which _____ service will be provided.
|
separation
|
|
The size and shape of a TRSA/Class B airspace will vary depending upon _____
|
operational requirements
|
|
The types of radar services designed to enhance safety by providing air traffic services to VFR AC are basic radar, TRSA, Class B and Class _____ services.
|
C
|
|
When applying basic radar services, the landing sequence is ordinarily established by the _____
|
tower
|
|
The physical dimensions of Class C airspace will normally be a ____ NM radius capped at 4,000 feet above the primary airport.
|
10
|
|
Class C airspace shall extend down to ___ feet above the surface, except that an inner core with a 5NM radius shall extend down to the surface.
|
1,200
|
|
What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of AC based on IFR/VFR and or weight, sequencing of VFR AC, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport?
|
Class B
|
|
What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR AC to the primary airport and separation between all participating VFR AC?
|
TRSA
|
|
Participation by pilots in the Terminal Radar Program is
|
urged
|
|
The appropriate VFR altitude for direction of flight rule does NOT apply until the AC is above _____ AGL
|
3,000
|
|
Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are solely established to define airspace within which _____ service will be provided.
|
separation
|
|
The size and shape of a TRSA/Class B airspace will vary depending upon _____
|
operational requirements
|
|
When applying basic radar services, the landing sequence is ordinarily established by the _____
|
tower
|
|
The radius of the outer area encompassing Class C airspace will normally be ________ NM, with some site specific variations.
|
20
|
|
When applying Stage III procedures within a TRSA, the approach interval shall be specified by the ______
|
tower
|
|
When providing basic radar service, an AC sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after _______
|
coordination with approach control
|
|
The specialist being relieved and the relieving specialist shall share equal responsibility for the completeness and ________ of the position relief briefing.
|
accuracy
|
|
The position relief briefing process covers _______ separate and distinct steps.
|
4
|
|
"Assumption of position responsibility" is step number _____ of the position relief briefing process.
|
3
|
|
The ordered listings of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called the
|
checklist
|
|
In position relief, the manual or automatic display of the current status of position related equipment and operational conditions or procedures is the _____
|
status information area
|
|
FAA flight inspection AC are identified by the call sign
|
FLIGHT CHECK
|
|
Do NOT ask a FLIGHT CHECK to deviate from the pilot's planned action except to preclude an ________ situation
|
emergency
|
|
Issue radar advisories to the flight inspection AC where adequate coverage exists and to the extent permitted by ________
|
workload
|
|
When issuing advisories on bird activity, include position, species or size if known, direction of flight and _____
|
altitude
|
|
Bird activity information advisories are issued for at least ______ minutes after receipt of such information
|
15
|
|
When appropriate procedural requirements are met, separation between AC may be reduced to ____ mile(s) inside the final approach fix
|
2 1/2
|
|
A designated STOL runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a
|
LOA with the AC operator
|
|
Surface wind shall be described as calm when wind velocity is _____ knots.
|
less than 3
|
|
Determining whether or NOT conditions are adequate for the use of ARTS data on the DBRITE shall be the responsibility of the
|
local controller
|
|
A primary function of an ATCT is to provide
|
safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic on and in the vicinity of an airport
|
|
What terminal specialist is responsible for sequencing IFR arriving AC?
|
Approach controller
|
|
What term describes the position that is in direct communications with the AC and that ensures separation of AC in the area of jurisdiction?
|
Tower position
|