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251 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Staphylococcus aureus causes what diseases?
|
food poisoning, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, endocarditis, wound infections, scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome
|
|
Staphylococcus aureus is usually _____ hemolytic on SBA
|
beta
|
|
The S. aureus latex agglutination test detects what on the surface of the bacterium?
|
clumping factor and protein A
|
|
S. aureus is PYR ______ and ornithine ______.
|
PYR negative, ornithine negative
|
|
(T/F) Staphylococci can tolerate the high salt concentration (7.5%) of mannitol salt agar.
|
True
|
|
S. aureus produces what color colonies on mannitol salt agar?
|
Yellow, it can ferment mannitol
|
|
Staphylococci other than S. aureus are what color on MSA?
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Red, they cannot ferment mannitol
|
|
(T/F) S. aureus is typically resistant to penicillin
|
True, it forms beta-lactamase
|
|
MRSA is resistant to methicillin because of __________.
|
altered penicillin binding proteins conferred by the mecA gene
|
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(T/F) Coagulase negative staphylococci are very common skin flora
|
True, they are usually nonpathogenic except in immunosuppressed and neutropenic patients
|
|
List the types of infections most commonly caused by coagulase negative staphylococci
|
UTI, catheter, shunt
|
|
Staphylococcus epidermidis is novobiocin _________.
|
susceptible
|
|
S. saprophyticus is novobiocin ___________.
|
resistant
|
|
S. lugdunensis causes what?
|
endocarditis
|
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Unlike other coagulase negative staphylococci, S. lugdenensis ferments ___________.
|
mannitol
|
|
Micrococcus appears as _______ on gram stains
|
gram positive tetrads
|
|
Group A streptococci typically cause what infections?
|
strep throat, impetigo, scarlet fever, pneumonia, otitis media, necrotizing fasciitis
|
|
What are two sequelae caused by S. pyogenes?
|
glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever
|
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S. pyogenes is sensitive to ________.
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bacitracin
|
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S. pyogenes is PYR _______.
|
positive
|
|
S. pyogenes appear how on SBA?
|
pinpoint colonies with large zones of beta hemolysis
|
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The M protein of S. pyogenes inhibits _______.
|
phagocytosis
|
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Micrococci are bacitracin ____ while staphylococci are bacitracin ______.
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Micrococci are bacitracin sensitive, staphylococci are bacitracin resistant
|
|
________ causes the rash seen in scarlet fever.
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Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin (erythrogenic toxin) of S. pyogenes
|
|
Streptokinase does what? formed by what species?
|
dissolves clot; S. pyogenes
|
|
S. pyogenes has a capsule (T/F)
|
True, it has a hyaluronic acid capsule that inhibits phagocytosis
|
|
Streptolysin O and Streptolysin S do what?
|
lyse erythrocytes, platelets and neutrophils
|
|
Hyaluronidase does what?
|
It hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid (interstitial barrier) to facilitate spread of infection
|
|
Streptococcus dysagalactiae causes what type of disease? is in what Lancefield group?
|
disease similar to S. pyogenes, Lancefield group C
|
|
S. dysagalactiae is bacitracin _____ and SXT _______.
|
bacitracin resistant, SXT sensitive
|
|
Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is normal flora in ________.
|
the gastrointestinal tract and vagina
|
|
Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae usually causes what infection?
|
Early onset neonatal sepsis and meningitis. Can also cause postpartum fever, osteomyelitis, and wound infections.
|
|
Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is _______ hemolytic
|
beta
|
|
Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is CAMP __________.
|
positive
|
|
Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is hippurate _______ and PYR ________.
|
hippurate positive, PYR negative
|
|
Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is _______ to bacitracin and ________ to SXT.
|
resistant to bacitracin, resistant to SXT
|
|
Group D Streptococci are normal flora in ______ and ______.
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feces and the mouth
|
|
Group D streptococci are associated with what types of infections?
|
wound, UTI, abdominal abcesses
|
|
Isolation of group D streptococci in blood cultures is associated with ___________.
|
colon cancer
|
|
Group D streptococci are _____ hemolytic
|
beta or gamma
|
|
Group D streptococci are bile esculin ______, PYR _______ and ______ for growth in 6.5% NaCl.
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bile esculin positive, PYR negative, negative for growth in 6.5% NaCl
|
|
Viridans streptococci are normal flora in ________.
|
the mouth, respiratory tract and GI tract
|
|
Viridans streptococci cause what type of infections?
|
endocarditis, wound infections and brain abcesses
|
|
Viridans streptococci are _____ hemolytic
|
alpha
|
|
Viridans streptococci are bile _______ and optochin _______.
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bile insoluble, optochin resistant
|
|
S. pneumoniae is normal flora in ______.
|
the upper respiratory tract
|
|
S. pneumoniae causes what types of infection?
|
Lobar pneumonia in elderly and alcoholics (community acquired), otitis media in infants and children, meningitis in children
|
|
S. pneumoniae appears how in gram stain?
|
gram positive lancet or bullet shaped diplococci
|
|
S. pneumonia is ____ hemolytic
|
alpha
|
|
Colony morphology of S. pneumoniae
|
Mucoid, umbilicated/depressed centers
|
|
S. pneumoniae is optochin _______ and bile _______.
|
optochin sensitive, bile soluble
|
|
Enterococcus is bile-esculin _______, PYR _______ and _______ for growth in 6.5% NaCl.
|
bile-escullin positive, PYR positive, positive for growth in 6.5% NaCl
|
|
Enterococcus exhibits what lancefield group antigen?
|
D
|
|
What type of hemolysis does a group D streptococcus exhibit?
|
Can be gamma or beta. Usually gamma.
|
|
What is VRE?
|
Vancomycin resistant enterococci (due to altered peptidoglycan crosslink target)
|
|
Gemella is leucine aminopeptidase (LAP) _______.
|
positive
|
|
Abiotrophia and Granulicatella differ from other streptococci in that they are nutritionally _______ and require _______ for growth.
|
variant, B6
|
|
Listeria monocytogenes typically causes infection in what population?
|
Pregnant women, neonates, immunosuppressed patients
|
|
What is the most common infection associated with L. monocytogenes?
|
Meningitis
|
|
L. monocytogenes is typically transmitted in what product?
|
unpasteurized dairy
|
|
L. monocytogenes exhibits a ____ zone of ____ hemolysis on SBA.
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narrow, beta
|
|
L. monocytogenes exhibits what type of motility in semisolid media?
|
umbrella
|
|
L. monocytogenes exhibits what type of motility in wet mount?
|
tumbling
|
|
L. monocytogenes is hippurate _____, CAMP ______, esculin ______ and catalase ______.
|
positive for all
|
|
Corynebacterium diptheriae causes what disease? What symptom is characteristic of this disease?
|
Diptheria, pseudomembrane at the back of the throat (dead cells/exudate)
|
|
(T/F) All C. diphtheriae strains cause diphtheria
|
False, only C. diphtheriae strains that have been infected with a bacteriophage are pathogenic and form the diphtheria toxin
|
|
Describe the appearance of C. diphtheriae on gram stain
|
pleomorphic with picket fence or Chinese letter formations
|
|
Staining C. diphtheriae with methylene blue will reveal what feature?
|
Metachromatic granules which are red to purple intracellular granules
|
|
C. diphtheriae is urease ______, nitrate _____, motility _____ and catalase ______.
|
urease negative, nitrate positive, motility negative, catalase positive
|
|
What test is used to determine toxin production by C. diphtheriae?
|
The Elek test uses antitoxin to detect toxin production
|
|
What media are used for C. diphtheriae?
|
Cystine-tellurite, Tinsdale's agar, Loeffler agar
|
|
Appearance of C. diphtheriae on cystine-tellurite
|
black colonies due to hydrolysis of tellurite
|
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Appearance of C. diphtheriae on Tinsdale's agar
|
brown to black colonies with halos from hydrolysis of tellurite
|
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Appearance of C. diphtheriae on Loeffler agar
|
small white to gray colonies, enhances pleomorphism and formation of metachromatic granules for methylene blue stain
|
|
Corynebacterium jeikeium causes what type of infection?
|
Nosocomial infections especially after prosthetic device implantation and in immunocompromised patients
|
|
(T/F) Corynebacterium jeikeium is susceptible to many antibiotics
|
False, it is highly resistant to most antimicrobials
|
|
Corynebacterium urealyticum causes what type of infection?
|
UTI
|
|
C. urealyticum is urease _____.
|
positive
|
|
Arcanobacterium haemolyticum can be identified by what test?
|
The CAMP inhibition test (phospholipase D produced by this bacterium inhibits activity of S. aureus beta-lysin).
|
|
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae typically causes infection after contact with what?
|
animals (usually occupational exposure)
|
|
E. rhusiopathiae typically causes what infections?
|
cellulitis with erysipeloid lesions, bacteremia, endocarditis
|
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E. rhusopathiae is ____ for motility, catalase ____ and H2S _____.
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negative for motility, catalase positive, H2S positive
|
|
Nocardia asteroides is generally found in what type of patient?
|
Immunocompromised patients with chronic pulmonary disorders
|
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Nocardia asteroides is catalase ____ and ____ for motility
|
catalase positive, negative for motility
|
|
Nocardia asteroides appears how on staining?
|
partially acid fast, pleomorphic, branching, gram positive bacillus, beading arrangement
|
|
The exudate of a Nocardia asteroides infection contains what?
|
masses of filamentous organisms with pus that resemble sulfur granules
|
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Bacillus species are common contaminants in the laboratory (T/F)
|
True, bacterial spores can survive adverse conditions for prolonged periods and are frequent contaminants of laboratory cultures
|
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(T/F) Most Bacillus species are nonpathogenic
|
True
|
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Bacillus anthracis causes what? What are the three clinical forms?
|
Anthrax; cutaneous, pulmonary, gastrointestinal
|
|
Describe the appearance of cutaneous anthrax
|
necrotic skin lesions called black echars
|
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How does an individual contract pulmonary anthrax?
|
Inhalation of spores from sheep's wool, known as "wool sorter's disease"
|
|
Describe the appearance of B. anthracis colonies
|
Medusa-head colonies, nonhemolytic with filamentous projections
|
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(T/F) B. anthracis grows on PEA at 24 hours
|
false, it does not typically grow on PEA at 24 hours
|
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B. cereus typically causes what in healthy individuals?
|
Food poisoning and occasionally wound infection
|
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B. cereus typically causes what in immunosuppressed individuals?
|
eye, bone and brain infections
|
|
Describe the colony morphology of B. cereus
|
Large, flat, beta-hemolytic colonies with irregular edges
|
|
(T/F) B. cereus is motile
|
True
|
|
B. cereus is ____ to penicillin
|
resistant
|
|
(T/F) Members of the family Neisseriaceae are cold tolerant
|
False, they cannot tolerate cold. This is why media must be at room temperature before plating and CSF must not be refrigerated (N. meningitidis is sensitive to cold)
|
|
N. gonorrhoeae can be isolated from what sites?
|
urethra, cervix, anal canal, oropharynx, skin lesions, joints, blood
|
|
N. gonorrhoeae typically causes what disease in males?
|
acute urethritis characterized by pus-containing urethral discharge and dysuria (can also cause prostatitis and epididymitis)
|
|
N. gonorrhoeae typically causes what disease in females?
|
Urethral infections and cervicitis. Can be asymptomatic or produce cervical discharge, fever, acute pain and dysuria.
|
|
Complications of N. gonorrhoeae infection for adults
|
PID, gonococcal arthritis, salpingitis, endometritis, and peritonitis.
|
|
Complications of maternal N. gonorrhoeae infection for neonates.
|
gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum, a severe eye infection which can result in blindness. Erythomycin eyedrops are typically administered to all infants at birth to prevent this.
|
|
(T/F) N. gonorrhoeae may be observed inside neutrophils on gram stain
|
True, it often appears intracellular in neutrophils.
|
|
(T/F). N. gonorrhoeae will grow on SBA
|
False, it is fastidious and requires enriched media such as chocolate agar.
|
|
Selective media for N. gonorrhoeae
|
Thayer-Martin, Martin-Lewis, NYC and GC-Lect agars
|
|
What type of atmosphere does N. gonorrhoeae require
|
increased CO2 with humidified atmosphere
|
|
(T/F) gonococci can be incubated for prolonged times
|
False, they will autolyse
|
|
N. gonorrhoeae colonies appear ________ on chocolate agar
|
Flat, smooth, glistening, gray or tan
|
|
N. gonorrhoeae is catalase ____, oxidase _____, superoxol _____ and DNase _______.
|
catalase positive, oxidase positive, superoxol positive, DNase negative
|
|
N. gonorrhoeae is nitrate ______.
|
negative
|
|
N. gonorrhoeae utilizes what sugars?
|
Glucose only. (not maltose, lactose or sucrose)
|
|
N. meningitidis causes what?
|
Meningitis, septicemia, DIC, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
|
|
(T/F) N. meningitidis can be normal flora
|
True, it can be normal flora of the nasopharynx
|
|
N. meningitidis is catalase ____, oxidase ____, DNase ____ and nitrate _____.
|
catalase positive, oxidase positive, DNase negative, nitrate negative
|
|
N. meningitis utilizes what sugars?
|
Glucose and maltose only (not lactose or sucrose)
|
|
N. meningitidis will produce what type of colonies on SBA in increased CO2?
|
bluish-gray colonies
|
|
Kingella kingae typically causes what type of infection in children?
|
bone and joint infections
|
|
Kingella kingae will grow on what agars?
|
Sheep blood, chocolate, MTM (not MacConkey)
|
|
What is the key test for differentiating Kingella denitrificans from N. gonorrhoeae?
|
K. denitrificans can reduce nitrates
|
|
Moraxella catarrhalis causes what types of infection?
|
otitis media, sinusitis, respiratory tract infections
|
|
Moraxella is catalase ______, oxidase ______, DNase ______ and nitrate _____.
|
positive for all
|
|
Moraxella uses what sugars?
|
None, it is asaccharolytic
|
|
Serological characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae (antigens)
|
O antigen (somatic, heat stable)
K antigen (envelope, heat labile) H antigen (flagellar, heat labile) Vi antigen (capsular antigen of S. typhi, heat labile) |
|
Main characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae
|
Facultative anaerobes, ferment glucose, nitrate reducers, catalase positive, oxidase negative, usually motile (except Shigella, Klebsiella)
|
|
Describe MacConkey agar
|
Selective for gram negatives (bile salts), lactose fermenters are pink, lactose non-fermenters are colorless
|
|
Describe EMB (eosin-methylene blue) agar
|
Lactose fermenters have dark center, lactose non-fermenters are colorless. E. coli has a green metallic sheen on this agar.
|
|
Describe Hektoen (HEK) agar
|
lactose and/or sucrose fermenters form yellow/orange colonies. Shigella colonies are green. Salmonella colonies are green with black centers (H2S)
|
|
Describe the colony morphology of lactose/sucrose fermenters on XLD agar. Describe the colony morphology of Salmonella and Shigella on this agar.
|
Colonies of lactose and/or sucrose fermenters are yellow. Salmonella produces red colonies with black centers and Shigella produces clear colonies
|
|
Describe the appearance of Salmonella and Shigella on Salmonella-Shigella agar
|
Lactose fermenters produce red colonies; Salmonella colonies are colorless with black centers, Shigella colonies are colorless
|
|
Describe morphology of Salmonella ss typhi on bismuth sulfite agar
|
Salmonella typhi produces black colonies; lactose-fermenting colonies are orange-yellow
|
|
Describe Proteus, Salmonella and Shigella morphology on brilliant green agar
|
Proteus and Salmonella species produce red/pink colonies, whereas Shigella and most lactose fermenters will not grow
|
|
Describe selenite broth
|
Enhancement medium for stool cultures. Salmonella growth enhanced, whereas gram positive coliform bacteria are inhibited
|
|
Escherichia coli causes what types of infection?
|
UTI, appendicitis, peritonitis, cholecystitis, endocarditis, meningitis in newborns, gastroenteritis and food poisoning
|
|
E. coli appearance in TSI
|
A/A, H2S negative
|
|
Describe the appearance of E. coli on MAC
|
pink/red colonies
|
|
E. coli is usually _____ hemolytic on SBA
|
beta
|
|
Appearance of E. coli on EMB
|
green metallic sheen with dark centers
|
|
IMViC results for E. coli
|
++--
|
|
ONPG result for E. coli
|
positive
|
|
(T/F) E. coli is motile
|
True
|
|
Urease result for E. coli
|
negative
|
|
EHEC causes what?
|
Enterohemorrhage E. coli causes hemorrhagic colitis and HUS, leading to kidney failure in young children
|
|
Appearance of E. coli O157:H7 on sorbitol-MacConkey
|
Colonies appear colorless because this strain does not ferment sorbitol; other strains of E. coli will appear pink due to sorbitol fermentation
|
|
ETEC causes what?
|
Enterotoxigenic E. coli produces severe epidemic diarrhea, mainly from drinking contaminated water
Traveler's diarrhea |
|
EIEC causes what?
|
Enteroinvasive E. coli causes bloody diarrhea by invading the intestinal epithelium
|
|
EPEC causes what?
|
Enteropathogenic E. coli causes watery diarrhea.
|
|
What is shigellosis?
|
Form of bacterial dysentery caused by Shigella infection. Characterized by abdominal pain, fever and diarrhea. Mainly severe in children and elderly.
|
|
What species is serogroup A Shigella? Describe this species.
|
Shigella dysenteriae, produces an enterotoxin that affects the large intestine and a neurotoxin that may result in paralysis. Mannitol and ONPG negative.
|
|
What species is Serogroup B Shigella? Describe this species.
|
S. flexneri, produces a mild diarrhea. Mannitol positive, ONPG negative. Difficult to distinguish from boydii.
|
|
What species is Serogroup C Shigella? Describe this species.
|
S. boydii, causes a mild diarrhea. Mannitol positive and ONPG negative. Difficult to distinguish from flexneri.
|
|
What species is Serogroup D Shigella? Describe this species.
|
S. sonnei, produces a mild diarrhea. Mannitol and ONPG positive. Delayed lactose fermenter. Most common cause of shigellosis in the U.S.
|
|
TSI result for Shigella
|
K/A, no H2S, no gas
|
|
Methyl Red result for Shigella
|
positive
|
|
Urease result for Shigella
|
negative
|
|
Citrate result for Shigella
|
negative
|
|
Motility result for Shigella
|
negative
|
|
Klebsiella species typically cause what infections?
|
UTIs and pneumonia
|
|
TSI result for Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
A/A with gas, no H2S
|
|
Appearance of Klebsiella pneumoniae on MAC
|
mucoid and very pink
|
|
Motility result for Klebsiella
|
negative
|
|
MR result for Klebsiella spp.
|
negative
|
|
Indole result for K. oxytoca
|
positive
|
|
Indole result for K. pneumoniae
|
negative
|
|
Klebsiella is VP _______ and citrate _______.
|
positive for both
|
|
(T/F) Klebsiella is a lactose fermenter
|
True
|
|
Infections caused by Enterobacter
|
respiratory tract infections, wounds, blood
|
|
How do you differentiate E. aerogenes from E. cloacae?
|
E. aerogenes is arginine negative and lysine positive.
E. cloacae is arginine positive and lysine negative. |
|
IMViC results for Enterobacter
|
--++
|
|
What is a key characteristic for Enterobacter sakazakki?
|
yellow pigment
|
|
Serratia typically causes what type of infection?
|
Opportunistic in patients who are immunosuppressed
|
|
DNase, gelatinase and lipase are characteristically positive in which enteric species?
|
Serratia marcescens
|
|
Serratia marcescens produces a characteristic ____ pigment
|
red
|
|
Serratia is VP _______ and citrate ________.
|
positive for both
|
|
How is Salmonella transmitted?
|
Animal reservoirs permit transmission through undercooked food (especially chicken) and contaminated water
|
|
Describe typhoid fever. What species causes this infection?
|
Septicemia followed by GI tract infection. Salmonella enterica typhi. Only transmitted from human to human.
|
|
Salmonella is H2S ______, citrate ______ and indole ______.
|
H2S positive
Citrate positive Indole negative |
|
Urease result for Salmonella
|
negative
|
|
Is Salmonella a lactose fermenter?
|
No
|
|
Appearance of Salmonella on HE agar
|
Green with black centers
|
|
H2S result for Proteus
|
positive
|
|
Typical colony morphology of Proteus
|
swarming
|
|
Urease result for Proteus
|
positive
|
|
Proteus is tryptophan deaminase _____ and phenylalanine deaminase _______.
|
positive for both
|
|
ONPG result for Proteus
|
negative
|
|
How do you differentiate P. vulgaris from P. mirabilis?
|
Indole is positive for vulgaris and negative for mirabilis
|
|
Yersinia pestis causes what? How is it transmitted?
|
Plague, transmitted by fleas of small rodents, endemic to the U.S. southwest
|
|
Yersinia enterocolitica causes what? How is it transmitted?
|
Enterocolitis, acquired by drinking contaminated water or eating contaminated food.
|
|
Yersinia enterocolitica is ONPG _______. It typically appears ______ on MacConkey at 18 hours. TSI result for this organism is _______.
|
positive, colorless, A/A. This is because this organism is a delayed lactose fermenter.
|
|
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis causes what in children?
|
lymphadenitis
|
|
Microscopic appearance of Yersinia
|
small gram-negative coccobacilli
|
|
What is CIN agar?
|
Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin medium, it is selective and differential for Yersinia enterocolitica (bullseye apperance). Aeromonas will also grow on this medium.
|
|
Yersinia pestis is typically motile. (T/F)
|
False, Yersinia pestis is nonmotile at both 25 and 37 degrees Celsius
|
|
Describe the motility of Y. enterocolitica and Y. pseudotuberculosis.
|
Nonmotile at 37, but motile at 25 degrees Celsius.
|
|
Y. pestis is catalase ______, oxidase _____ and urease ______.
|
catalase positive, oxidase negative, urease negative.
|
|
Edwardsiella is H2S ______ and ONPG _______.
|
H2S positive, ONPG negative
|
|
E. tarda is indole ____ and citrate ______.
|
indole positive
citrate negative |
|
Citrobacter freundii resembles E. coli on MAC but can be differentiated because it is H2S ____ and indole ____.
|
H2S positive, indole negative
|
|
Morganella is indole _____, VP _____ and citrate _____.
|
indole positive, VP negative, citrate negative
|
|
PDA and TDA results for Providencia
|
positive for both
|
|
Providencia is indole ______, citrate ______ and VP _____.
|
indole positive
citrate positive VP negative |
|
HACEK species
|
Haemophilus (especially aphrophilus), Actinobacillus actinomecetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, Kingella
|
|
What is the main infection that the HACEK organisms cause?
|
endocarditis
|
|
(T/F) HACEK organisms are fastidious
|
True
|
|
Another name for X factor
|
hemin
|
|
Another name for V factor
|
NAD
|
|
Why can't Haemophilus grow on SBA? What blood agars can it grow on?
|
NADase in the agar (breaks down V factor). Horse or rabbit blood agar (also chocolate)
|
|
Best conditions for growing HACEK organisms
|
35-37 degrees Celsius, 5-10% CO2
|
|
Haemophilus will exhibit satellitism with this organism on sheep blood agar. Why?
|
S. aureus; it can release NAD.
|
|
HACEK organisms are motile (T/F)
|
False, they are nonmotile
|
|
HACEK organisms are catalase _______ and oxidase _______.
|
positive for both
|
|
H. influenzae causes what infections?
|
Meningitis in children, respiratory tract infections, acute sinusitis, chronic bronchitis, pneumonia
|
|
(T/F) H. influenzae should be tested for beta-lactamase
|
True, it may be penicillin resistant
|
|
What infection does Hamophilus aegyptius cause?
|
Pink eye
|
|
What infection does H. influenzae biogroup aegyptius cause?
|
Conjunctivitis followed by an invasive disease known as Brazilian purpuric fever
|
|
Haemophilus ducreyi causes what infections?
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Genital ulcers, chancroids and buboes
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H. influenzae requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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X and V, non-hemolytic
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H. ducreyi requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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X factor only, non-hemolytic
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H. aegyptius requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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X and V factor, non-hemolytic
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H. aphrophilus requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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None, non-hemolytic
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H. haemolyticus requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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X and V factor, beta hemolytic
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H. parainfluenzae requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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V factor only; non-hemolytic
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H. paraphrophilus requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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V only, non-hemolytic
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General characteristics of nonfermentative gram-negative bacilli (carbohydrate utilization, spore formation, oxidase result, TSI result, growth on which agars)
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obligate aerobes, do not form spores, do not metabolize carbohydrates under anaerobic conditions, oxidase positive, TSI: K/no change, growth on SBA, varied growth on MAC
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces what two pigments?
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Fluorescein (pyoverdin) and pyocyanin
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What agar enhances pigment production in fluorescent Pseudomonas species?
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Cetrimide agar
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What infections does P. aeruginosa cause?
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Burn wound infections, eye infections, ear infections, lower respiratory tract infections in CF patients, nosocomial infections in immunosuppressed patients
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(T/F) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a lactose fermenter
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False, Pseudomonas is a nonfermentative organism
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Colony morphology of P. aeruginosa
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Large, irregular colonies with a grapelike odor and metallic sheen on SBA. Beta-hemolytic. Blue-green color due to pyoverdin and pyocyanin.
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P. fluoresceins, P. putida, and P. aeruginosa produce what pigment?
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pyoverdin (fluorescein)
P. aeruginosa also produces pyocyanin |
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Result of P. aeruginosa in the oxidative-fermentative glucose test
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Yellow (acid) in the open (oxidative) tube.
Green (no change) in the closed (fermentative) tube. |
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(T/F) P. aeruginosa is susceptible to most antimicrobials
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False, it is very resistant to antimicrobial agents.
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Infections caused by Burkholderia cepacia
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Nosocomial infection, respiratory tract infection in patients with CF
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Burkholderia cepacia is lysine decarboxylase _____ and lactose ______.
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positive, positive
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Burkholderia mallei causes what in livestock? Can this organism be transmitted to humans?
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glanders, yes
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Burkholderia mallei is motility ______ while Burkholder pseudomallei is motility ______.
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mallei: negative
pseudomallei: positive |
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Burkholderia pseudomallei causes what disease? How is it acquired?
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Melioidosis in Southeast Asia and northern Australia
(chest pain, joint pain, pneumonia). Found in the soil, acquired through skin or inhalation |
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Acinetobacter causes what infections?
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Nosocomial infections and UTIs
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(T/F) Acinetobacter isolates tend to be multidrug resistant
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True
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Acinetobacter is motility _____, oxidase ______, nitrate ______, and catalase ______. (identifying characteristics)
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motility negative
oxidase negative nitrate negative catalase positive |
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Acinetobacter is normal flora in the _____ and ________.
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GI and respiratory tracts
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Francisella tularensis causes what?
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tularemia, skin ulcers at the site of inoculation, infection of lymph nodes, eyes, lungs, GI system
(potential agent of bioterrorism, BSL 3 required for handling) |
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Medium of choice for Francisella
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glucose-cystine blood agar
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Francisella is an intracellular bacteria that is acquired by _________.
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Contact with wild animals, including deer, rabbits, beavers and squirrels
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Brucella causes what disease?
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Brucellosis, also known as undulant fever. The organism is usually isolated from blood and bone marrow in infected patients.
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Brucella may be grown on what agars? What are other growth requirements for this organism?
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Brucella agar, BCYE and MTM. Requires 10% CO2 in humidified air and 3-4 weeks for growth.
This is a BSL 3 organism considered a potential bioterrorism agent. |
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Bordetella pertussis causes what disease? What are the three stages of this disease?
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Pertussis, also known as whooping cough.
Catarrhal: general flu-like symptoms Paroxysmal: repetitive coughing episodes Convalescent: recovery phase |
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Preferred agars for Bordetella pertussis
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Bordet-Gengou (potato infusion), Regan-Lowe (charcoal-hose blood agar)
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Bordetella pertussis colonies appear like ______ and are ______ hemolytic.
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mercury droplets, beta
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Bordetella pertussis can be differentiated from other Bordetella species by its negative ____ result. All other species are positive.
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urease
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