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161 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which has the worse prognosis - ameloblastoma in the poserior mandible or ameloblastoma in the posterior maxilla?
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posterior maxilla
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most common location for lateral periodontal cyst
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mandibular canine-premolar region
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does the central giant cell granuloma respect the midline or cross it
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cross it
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In cherubism, is more than one quadrant involved or is the disorder restricted to one quad?
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bilateral and therefore involves more than one quad
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name a noninflammatory (not periodontitis) condition in which one or more teeth have a "floating in air" appearance
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langerhans cell histiocytosis
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what tissue is present in the radiolucent rim around odontomas?
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fibrous CT sac
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What feature of gardner's syndrome is most worrisome?
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premalignant intestinal polyps
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cemntoblastoma: associated with vital or nonvital tooth?
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vital tooth
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more common: maxillary or mandibular tori?
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maxillary tori
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which soft tissue calcification has a targetoid or bulls eye pattern?
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phlebolith
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Name the premalignant lesion of the lip where it is not possible to tell where the vermillion border of the lip ends and the skin begins.
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actinic chelitis
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What histologic type of cancer accounts for 95% of the cancers found in the oral cavity?
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Squamous cell carcinoma
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Which oral cancer is associated with HPV?
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verrucas carcinoma
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Name a cancer that does not metastasize
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basal cell carcinoma
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Target, iris, or bulls-eye type skin lesions and an explosive onset of oral lesions are associated with which disease?
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Erythema Multiforme Major
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Most common location for: lichen planus
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buccal mucosa
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Most common location for: ranula
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floor of mouth
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Most common location for: necrotizing sialometaplasia
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hard palate
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Most common location for: granular cell tumor
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tongue
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Most common location for: peripheral giant cell granuloma
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attached gingiva
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What disease is associated with: loss of lamina dura around teeth
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hyperparathyroidism
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What disease is associated with: cafe-au lait macules
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nerofibromatosis
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What disease is associated with: widened PDL
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scleroderma
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What disease is associated with: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
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diabetes mellitus
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What disease is associated with: increase phophoethanolamine in the urine and low levels of alkaline phosphatase
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hypophosphotasia
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What disease is associated with: herpes type 8 virus
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kaposis's sarcoma
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What disease is associated with: herpes type 3 virus
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varicella zoster
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What disease is associated with: herpes type 4 virus
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epstein barr virus - mononucleosis
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What disease is associated with: herpes type 5 virus
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cytomegalovirus
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What oral lesions are seen in patients with graft verses host disease?
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Lichenoid lesions
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Which drug or class of drugs is most common causes of drug induced ginigival hyperplasia
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calcium channel blokers
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what is the most common intraoral location of salivary gland tumors
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palate
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what is the most common benign salivary gland tumor?
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pleomorphic adenoma
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What percentage of parotid tumors are benign?
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~70%
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Most common location for gingival cyst?
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soft tissue in mandibular canine-premolar region
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What is the significant oral finding associated with: basal cell carcinoma syndrome
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multiple OKC
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What is the significant oral finding associated with: gardner syndrome
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multiple osteomas
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What is the significant oral finding associated with: cleidocranial dysplasia
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supernumerary teeth and retained primary teeth
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what is the most common supernumerary tooth?
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mesiodens
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What is the most common cleft?
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combination cleft lip and palate
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Histologic finding in cherubism is the same as what other condition?
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Central giant cell granuloma
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What vitamin deficiency is associated with: pellegra
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B3 (niacin)
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What vitamin deficiency is associated with: scurvy
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Vitamin C
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What vitamin deficiency is associated with: osteomalsia
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Vitamin D
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What disease is associate with decreased levels of intrinsic factor?
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Pernicious anemia
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What condition is caused by increased production of growth hormone AFTER closure of epiphyseal plates and usually related to pituitary adenoma?
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Acromegaly
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Give a triggering event or phenomena related to bell's palsy
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Extreme cold or viral (herpes) infection
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Glossopharyngeal neuralgia involves which of the cranial nerves
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Cranial nerve IX
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Give a local or systemic factor associated with glossopyrosis
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depression/vitamin deficiency
list: Vitamin deficiency Diabetes Hypothyroidism Estrogen deficiency Depression, Anxiety, Stress |
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Trigeminal neuralgia may also be associated with what other neuromuscular disease?
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multiple sclerosis
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Give a systemic factor that may contribute to dysgeusia.
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Vitamin A deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency |
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Besides dental identification name two other commonly used methods to identify a corpse so that a death certificate can be issued:
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finger prints & DNA analysis
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Sparse hair, heat intolerance, periocular pigmentation and hypodontia would lead you to suspect.
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Ectodermal dysplasia
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Comparison of antemortem dental evidence and post mortem dental evidence can yield one of four conclusions. Name the four:
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Positive
Presumptive (consistent with) Exclusion Iinsufficient |
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In forensics, histologic evidence (PMNs, necrosis, hemosiderin) and clinical skin color (red-blue-purple, black-blue, green-blue) can be used to estimate:
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age of bitemarks on human skin
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More common on upper or lower lip: mucocele
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lower
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More common on upper or lower lip: canalicular adenoma
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upper
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More common on upper or lower lip: solar chelitis
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lower
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List three abnormalities that occur ONLY on the dorsum of the tongue:
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black hairy tongue, fissured tongue, median rhomboid glossitis, geographic tongue
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An 8mm radiolucency around the crown of an impacted tooth is most likely a/an:
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dentigerous cyst
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Most common location for ameloblastoma:
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posterior mandible
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Most common location for adenomatoid odontogenic tumor:
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Anterior portion of maxilla
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Most common location for lateral periodontal cyst:
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Mandibular canine/premolar region
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Which disease is associated with hypochromic microcytic RBCs, glossitis, and predisposition for candidiasis?
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Iron deficiency anemia
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Which disease is the megablastic anemia caused by poor absorption of coablamin?
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pernicious anemia
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What is addison's disease?
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Primary adrenal cortical insufficiency – insufficient production of adrenal steroids
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What is the characteristic finding in the oral head and neck area in patients with addison's disease?
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An accumulation of melanin in tissues
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What is the appearance of skin lesions in lichen planus?
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purple, pruritic, papules
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What is the appearance of skin lesions in erythema multiform?
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Bulls eye appearance
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This disease shows widened PDLs and can lead to loss of ramus, condyle, and coronoid process
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systemic scelroderma
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A butterfly rash across the face is associated with which systemic disease?
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Systemic lupus erythematosus
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An asymptomatic, well-defined radiopacity in alveolar bone with no inflammatory, dysplastic or neoplastic cause is called:
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bone scar
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Two dental features of paget's disease of bone
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diastema formation between teeth
Generalized hypercementosis |
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Preferred form of pharmacologic therapy for patients with Paget's disease of bone and why?
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Bisphosphonates because they inhibit resorption and increase formation of bone.
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Give four clinical/radiographic features that would suggest that a particular central giant cell granuloma is likely to behave in an aggressive fashion.
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-pain
-rapid growth -cortical perforation -root resorption |
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Components of McCune-Albright syndrome
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-Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
-Cafe au lait macules -Endocrinopathy |
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What feature regarding the borders of a radiopaque lesion in the jaws should help you discriminate between fibrous dysplasia and cemento-ossifying fibroma?
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Fibrous dysplasia borders are less defined (ground glass appearance)
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What is the recommend tx for periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia and why?
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No tx, because it may cause osteomyelitis
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Maxillary osteomas are usually associated with a paranasal sinus. Which of the paranasal sinuses is most frequently afflicted?
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Frontal
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Which are the two most common disorders in which multiple supernumerary teeth develop?
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Gardner's and Cleidocranial
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presents with a targetoid or "bulls-eye" appearance radiographically; the zones consist of an ovoid radiopaque central nidus with a peripheral radiolucent rim, surrounded by an area of host sclerosis.
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Osteoid osteoma
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What is the recommended tx for chondrosarcoma?
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Radical surgical excision
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Oral blisters of this potentially fatal skin disease are due to autoimmune attack of desmosomes. Name the disease.
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Pemphigus
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What percent abuse often demonstrate orofacial injuries?
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50%
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Application of topical anesthetic agent to the tonsil and pharynx on the side of pain can be used to diagnose which neuralgia?
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Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
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Name 3 yellow lesions
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FORDYCE’S GRANULES
LYMPHOEPITHELIAL CYST PARULIS LIPOMA |
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Name 3 black/brown lesions
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Melanoma
amalgam tattoo oral melanotic macule |
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Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: mucocele
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lower
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Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: SCCA
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lower
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Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: salivary gland tumor
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upper
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Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: actinic chelitis
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lower
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Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: nasolabial cyst
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upper
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Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: congenital lip pits
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lower
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In clinical staging of oral SCCA what does the T, N, and M stand for?
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Tumor Size
Node involvement Metastasis |
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Medical term for freckle:
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Macule or ephelis
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A lesion with a stalk is called?
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Pedunculated
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Childhood herpangina is caused by what?
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Coxsackievirus
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Most common intraoral mucosal chemical burn
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aspirin burn
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Most common intraoral lesions caused by pipe/cigar smoking
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nicotine stomatitis
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Most common age range in patients with ameloblastic fibroma
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Teenage
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Most common radiopacity at the apex of a nonvital tooth
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condensing osteitis
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Most common jawbone for supernumerary teeth
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maxilla
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Most common genetically missing teeth
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3rd molars
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Most common intrinsic stain of a single tooth
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internal resorption or necrotic pulp
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Deposition of proteinaceous material that has primary, myeloma and hemodialysis associated forms. Rectal and salivary gland biopsy for diagnosis with tissue that stains positive with Congo Red. Macroglossia is common.
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Amyloidosis
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What deficiency is associated with Rickets?
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Vitamin D
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Iron deficiency anemia in conjunction with glossitis and dysphagia in Scandinavian women. There is an association with squamous cell carcinoma.
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Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
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What disease with oral lesions discussed in class is associated with symblepharons, entropion and trichiasis?
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BMMP - benign mucous membrane pemphigoid
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Libman-Sack endocartitis is associated with?
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SLE
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What do the letters in CREST syndrome stand for?
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Calcinosis Cutis
Raynaud’s phenomenon Esophageal dysfunction Sclerodactly Telangiectasias |
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What serious oral disease is associated with skin lesions and histological findings that include intraepithelial separation with autoantibodies to the spinous cell layer? "The oral lesions are the first to show and the last to go":
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Pemphigus vulgaris
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What disease do the oral findings of graft-versus-host disease most closely resemble?
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lichen planus
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What are two histologic terms for a biopsied leukoplakic lesion that is considered premalignant?
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Hyperkeratosis
carcinoma in situ |
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What is the histologic term for a biopsied leukoplakic lesion that is considered premalignant?
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dysplastic
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Laser-Trelat sign with pruritis associated with internal malignancy is associated with which skin condition?
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seborrheic keratosis
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Of the three major major clinical variations of recurrent apthous ulcerations which one occurs most commonly?
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minor
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Scarring may occur in which clinical variation of recurrent apthous stomatitis
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Major
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Kveim test may be used to help diagnose what multisystem disorder?
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sarcoidosis
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Frequency of adverse effects from dental amalgam is estimated to be:
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one in one million
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The most common oral soft tissue site to which malignant tumors metastasize is ________. In men the site from which metastases originate most frequently ________ while in women it is _______.
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gingiva
lungs breasts |
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What is the most serious complication of MEN type IIB?
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Medullary thyroid carcinoma
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This malignant neoplasm of skeletal muscle origin is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of children.
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rhabdomyosarcoma
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4% of persons with what neuromuscular (demyelinating) disease develop trigeminal neuralgia
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multiple sclerosis
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Which neuralgia can be diagnosed by application of a topical anesthetic agent to the tonsil and pharynx on the side of the pain?
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glossopharyngeal neuralgia
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Name a bone disease characterized by a slow or abrupt decrease in marrow blood flow causing degeneration and death of marrow and bone.
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NICO
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Name the type of drug that improves symptoms in 2/3 of patients with idiopathic glossodynia.
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mood altering
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What is the most common radiographic textural pattern seen in fibrous dysplasia?
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ground glass
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periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia has marked predilection for which age group, race, and gender?
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middle aged , african american, & women
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describe the radiographic borders of a typical cemento-ossifying fibroma:
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circumscribed
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Which 2 radiographic features help distinguish the OKC from an ameloblastoma?
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scalloping & anterior-posterior expansion
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What odontogenic cyst has the highest recurrence rate?
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okc
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what is the recommened tx for dentigerous cyst
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enucleation
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Patients with gardner's syndrome have multiple osteomas. List 2 other features of gardner syndrome.
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intestinal polyps and suepernumerary teeth
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Name the laboratory marker that is elevated in osteosarcoma
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alkaline phosphatase
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Name the radiographic feature, which is highly suggestive of chondrosarcoma:
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sunburst
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During postmortem examination of the dentition of deceased persons forensic dentists record the findings of the examination for comparison purposes later. Forensic dentists use three basic findings in the dentition of the deceased for comparison and identification purposes, list two of the findings.
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anatomy of teeth
restorations |
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Forensic dentists perform a dental identification when the deceased can not be identified through visual means or person recongintion. List two conditions of the bodies decedents in which dental identification is necessary.
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burned
decomposed |
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What 2 procedures do forensic dentists use to identify and record human bite mark victims for possible use as evidence in court?
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photos
impressions of bite marks |
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Medical examiner and coroner systems in the US have available five possible means of identification of the deceased. Which one is considered the most reliable when visual means or personal recognition is not possible?
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dental identification
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3 types of mass-disasters
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NATURAL (Earthquakes, Tornadoes, Hurricanes, Floods)
ACCIDENTAL (Transportation accidents, fires, mining accidents) CRIMINAL DISASTERS (Serial killers) |
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Reed-Sternberg cells associated with:
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Hodgkin's lymphoma
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Matching: ALL, CLL, AML, CML with
-Children -elderly adult -3rd to 4th decades -broad age range |
ALL - children
CLL - elderly adult AML - broad age range CML - 3rd to 4th decades |
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Most common intrinsic stain of all teeth
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fluorisis
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List three predisposing conditions that are known to lead to development of secondary osteosarcoma
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fibrous dysplasia
paget's disease ionizing radiation |
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Describe the tx protocol for osteosarcoma
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Neoadjuvant chemo and surgical removal
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A reactive hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue in response to local irritation or trauma is called:
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irritation fibroma
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list the 2 UNIQUE histopathologic features of lateral periodontal cyst
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mural plaques & clear cells
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A well-defined, homogenous, area of increased radiopacity with an unknown etiology, occurring central in bone is:
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idiopathic osteosclerosis
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Non-gonnococcal urethritis, arthritis, conjunctivitis and a high male predilection are found in which disease?
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Reiter's syndrome
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What is Raynaud's phenomenon?
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vasoconstrictive event of the extremities, the "r" in CREST syndrome
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Which lab test is positive in CREST syndrome and not in Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia when you are attempting to differentiate the telangiectasis of CREST from HHT?
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anti-centromere antibodies
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The most common cause of death in long standing systemic lupus is related to:
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renal failure
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In a pt scheduled for radiation therapy for a head and neck cancer, when is the IDEAL time to do dental tx?
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3 weeks before beginning therapy
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How long following therapy does chemo and radiation induced mucositis resolve?
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2-3 weeks
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Which endocrine disorder causes hyperpigmentation of skin?
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Addison's Disease
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Ground Glass RO: list 2
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Fibrous Dysplasia
Hyperparathyroidism |
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Lesions are hypervascular in young patients – hemostasis concerns. Lesions become avascular with age, leaving bone more susceptible to infection. Malignant transformation occurs in up to 1%, only in polyostotic type. Rapid enlargement or pain suggest this possibility
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Fibrous Dysplasia
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Cotton Wool RO: list 3
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Cemento-osseous dysplasia
Paget's disease of bone Gardner Syndrome Gigantiform Cementoma |
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Sunburst RO:list 2
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Osteosarcoma
Intraosseous Hemangioma |
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Onion Skin: list 2
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Proliferative periostitis
Ewing's Sarcoma Langerhans Cell Disease |
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Three histologic features of OKC.
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uniformly thin (~6 layers)
devoid of rete pegs prominent basal cell layer |