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55 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What person coordinates the efforts of repair parties to control damage? 1. The damage control assistant 2. The operations officer 3. The executive officer 4. The weapons officer |
Under the engineer officer, the DCA coordinates the efforts of the repair parties to control damage.
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ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
Which of the following are duties of the administrative organization of damage control? 1. Records and schedules for maintenance 2. Written doctrine and procedures relating to damage control 3. Ship’s bills 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
Which of the following are duties of the executive officer? 1. Ship’s survivability training 2. Readiness to manage casualties 3. Control and recover from damage 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
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ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What officer is designated as the ship’s damage control officer? 1. The commanding officer 2. The executive officer 3. The engineer officer 4. The operations officer |
The engineer officer is designated as the ship’s damage control officer.
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ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
The DCA is the primary assistant to the damage control officer. As such, the DCA has which of the following responsibilities? 1. Training the ship’s DC personnel 2. Administration of the ship’s DC organization 3. Maintain records of DC personnel PQ accomplishment for all hands 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO)? 1. Be a PO2 or above 2. Complete the PQS 3. Complete the fire-fighting school 4. Be designated by the LCPO |
A petty officer, who has completed the PQS, is designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO) based on TYCOM instructions.
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ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
Normally, the job of DCPO is held for what period of time? 1. 12 months 2. 9 months 3. 3 months 4. 6 months |
DCPOs normally serve for a period of 6 months.
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ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
Which of the following is/are responsibilities of the DCPO? 1. Assist in the instruction of division personnel in damage control 2. Prepare and maintain damage control checkoff lists for their spaces 3. Make required reports 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What person is responsible for determining the safe entry of personnel into closed or poorly ventilated spaces? 1. The gas free engineer 2. The fire marshal 3. The DCA 4. The XO |
The gas free engineer
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ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What person is designated to aid the DCA train personnel and to prevent and fight fires? 1. The gas free engineer 2. The fire marshal 3. The DCPO 4. The LCPO |
The fire marshal
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What action is taken if the fire marshal finds hazards that relate to poor housekeeping
during a daily inspection? 1. Record and advise the responsible division 2. Submit discrepancy report to DCA with copies to XO and department head 3. Have the division LCPO schedule corrective action 4. Report the hazard to the safety department |
The fire marshal submits discrepancy reports to the DCA with copies to the XO and the appropriate department head(s) and conducts follow-up
inspections to ensure compliance. |
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The fire marshal has which of the following responsibilities?
1. Submitting reports citing hazards and recommendations for their correction 2. Setting up a fire watch team before regular overhauls 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Inspecting the engineering department |
Both 1 and 2 above
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What is the purpose of the ship’s damage control battle organization?
1. To stand at ready for the battle to be over 2. To restore the ship to as near normal operation as possible 3. To comfort injured crew members 4. When directed, to take charge of the weapons |
Once the ship has been damaged, the ship’s damage control battle organization is responsible for restoring the ship to as near normal operation as possible.
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In the damage control battle organization, what person is responsible for controlling
damage; fighting fires; CBR countermeasures; and control of stability, list, and trim? 1. The DCPO 2. The DCA 3. The XO 4. The CO |
The DCA
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What are the primary damage control battle organization unit(s)?
1. repair parties 2. Navigation crew 3. Deck crews 4. Engineering personnel |
repair parties or teams.
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What is the nerve center of the directing force for directing the damage control organization?
1. DCC or CCS 2. Bridge 3. Aft steering 4. DC locker 5 |
DCC or CCS
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Main deck repair.
1. Repair 1 2. Repair 3 3. Repair 5 4. Repair 7 |
Repair 1
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Propulsion repair.
1. Repair 1 2. Repair 3 3. Repair 5 4. Repair 7 |
Repair 5
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Ordnance.
1. Repair 2 2. Repair 4 3. Repair 6 4. Repair 8 |
Repair 6
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Electronic casualty control.
1. Repair 2 2. Repair 4 3. Repair 6 4. Repair 8 |
Repair 8
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Electronic casualty control.
1. Repair 2 2. Repair 4 3. Repair 6 4. Repair 8 |
Repair 8
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Each repair party should be capable of performing which of the following functions?
1. Rigging casualty power 2. Controlling flooding 3. Extinguishing all types of fires 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
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When in port, the ship has which of the following duty section components available
to respond to any type of casualty? 1. In port emergency teams 2. Salvage teams 3. Duty DC watch 4. Deck department |
In port emergency teams
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The rescue and assistance detail must have which of the following qualifications?
1. Be qualified as an emergency team member 2. Be qualified in first aid 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Have passed the PRT |
All personnel assigned to the rescue and assistance detail must, as a minimum, be qualified as an emergency team member and in first aid.
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General quarters is an all hands evolution—it
is the highest state of readiness of the ship. 1. True 2. False |
True
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Which of the following statements describes a
correct GQ route to follow? 1. Forward in the passageways and down ladders on the starboard side 2. Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side 3. Forward in the passageways and up ladders on the port side 4. Aft in the passageways and up ladders on the starboard side |
Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side
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Which of the following is an emergency damage control communications system?
1. 2JZ 2. 6JZ 3. X40J 4. X24J |
2JZ
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What system signals override microphone control stations to notify the ship’s crew of
imminent danger? 1. Alarms for collision, chemical attack, general, and flight crash 2. General announcing system 3. DC controls 4. Bridge alarms |
Alarms for collision, chemical attack, general, and flight crash
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This alarm is sounded by the OOD or PreFly notifying ship’s company of a pending or actual flight deck emergency.
A. COLLISION B. CHEMICAL ATTACK C. GENERAL D. FLIGHT CRASH |
FLIGHT CRASH
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This alarm is sounded when there is a possibility that the ship will be struck by another waterborne unit.
A. COLLISION B. CHEMICAL ATTACK C. GENERAL D. FLIGHT CRASH |
COLLISION
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When this alarm is sounded, all hands report to their preassigned stations and set material condition ZEBRA.
A. COLLISION B. CHEMICAL ATTACK C. GENERAL D. FLIGHT CRASH |
GENERAL
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Which of the following means of communications is used when all other methods have failed?
1. Messengers 2. Sound-powered telephones 3. Morse Code 4. Bullhorn |
Messengers
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All Navy ships have how many material conditions of readiness?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Three
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What material condition provides the least degree of watertight integrity?
1. ZEBRA 2. YOKE 3. XRAY |
XRAY
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What material condition sets the highest degree of watertight integrity?
1. ZEBRA 2. YOKE 3. XRAY |
ZEBRA
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Which of the following fittings are closed when condition ZEBRA is set?
1. DOG Z fittings 2. Circle X fittings 3. Y fittings 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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What means, if any, is used by repair parties to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment?
1. Master alfa list 2. Compartment checkoff lists 3. DC compartment checks 4. None |
Compartment checkoff lists
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The Damage Control Closure Log is maintained in which of the following locations?
1. DCC 2. Quarterdeck 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Engineering spaces |
Both 1 and 2 above
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Which of the following logs is a list of all DC-related fittings that don’t work properly?
1. Damage Control Closure Log 2. Fire marshal pass down log 3. Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log 4. Bridge log |
Damage Control Closure Log
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What fittings are secured when the ship is set for “darken ship”?
1. WILLIAM 2. Circle WILLIAM 3. DOG ZEBRA 4. Circle ZEBRA |
During darken ship these fittings and closures are closed to prevent light inside showing to the outside. DOG ZEBRA fittings are marked with a red Z surrounded by a black letter D.
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The emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) supplies breathable air for what
maximum period of time? 1. 10 minutes 2. 15 minutes 3. 20 minutes 4. 25 minutes |
It provides the wearer with 15 minutes of breathable air
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With training, you should be able to activate the EEBD within what maximum period of
time? 1. 10 seconds 2. 20 seconds 3. 30 seconds 4. 40 seconds |
With the proper training you should be able to activate and don an EEBD in less than 30 seconds
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Which of the following breathing devices should NOT be worn for fire-fighting
purposes? 1. OBA 2. SEED 3. SCBA |
SEED
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Which of the following is the primary fire fighting tool for respiratory protection?
1. EEBD 2. SEED 3. OBA 4. SCBA |
OBA
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From the time it is activated, each cylinder used in the self-contained breathing apparatus
(SCBA) will last approximately what length of time? 1. 15 minutes 2. 30 minutes 3. 45 minutes 4. 60 minutes |
Generally, each bottle will last approximately 30 minutes from the time it is activated.
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Which of the following substances must be
present to start a fire? 1. Oxygen 2. Heat 3. Fuel 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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In the fire tetrahedron, how many components are necessary for combustion?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Four
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Flammable materials give off vapors. What is the lowest temperature that these vapors burn when a spark is applied?
1. Ambient temperature 2. Room temperature 3. Flash point 4. Ignition point |
The lowest temperature at which a flammable material gives off vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied is called the flash point.
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What term is used to describe the lowest temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs?
1. Flash point 2. Ignition point 3. Ambient temperature 4. Room temperature |
In other words, the ignition point is the temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs.
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Heat from fire can be transferred by how many
methods? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Heat from a fire is transferred by one or more of the following methods:
1. Conduction 2. Convection 3. Radiation |
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What method of heat transfer occurs when heat moves from one body to another by direct
contact? 1. Conduction 2. Convection 3. Radiation 4. Reflection |
Conduction is the transfer of heat through a body or from one body to another by direct physical contact.
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What method of heat transfer occurs through the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated
gases? 1. Conduction 2. Convection 3. Radiation 4. Reflection |
Convection is the transfer of heat through the motion of circulating gases or liquids.
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What method of heat transfer occurs through the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated
gases? 1. Conduction 2. Convection 3. Radiation 4. Reflection |
Convection is the transfer of heat through the motion of circulating gases or liquids.
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Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish a class B fire?
1. Water 2. AFFF 3. PKP 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
AFFF was developed to combat class B fires.
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Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish class A or D fires?
1. Water 2. AFFF 3. PKP 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
Water in straight or fog pattern. If the fire is deep-seated, aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) is more effective than seawater and can be used as a wetting agent.
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