Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
142 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
A Change in wind speed/direction in a short distance, resulting in a tearing or shearing effect. |
Wind shear |
|
A small downburst with outbursts of damaging winds extending 2.5 miles or less. |
Microburst |
|
In spite of its small horizontal scale, it could include wind speeds as high as 150 kts. |
Microburst |
|
Can exist in a horizontal, or vertical direction and occasionally in both. |
Wind Shear |
|
Poses a hazard to aircraft during take off or landing, because it produces both horizontal and vertical wind shear. |
Microburst |
|
Usually extends between 1/2 and 2 1/2 miles in diameter. |
Microburst |
|
The leading edge of gusty surface winds from thunderstorm downdrafts; sometimes associated with a shelf cloud or a roll cloud. |
Gust Front |
|
Fully automated, computer driven system that provides airport surface wind condition information to ATC in the control tower. |
Low Level Wind Shear Alert System LLWAS |
|
Requires no essential operator intervention while in use. |
LLWAS |
|
Purpose of LLWAS is to: |
Detect and display wind shear. Scan the airport runway vicinity for specific wind conditions that may preset a hazard to arriving or departing aircraft. |
|
Provides continuous output of calculated results to TRACON and Tower displays. Located in the Tower equipment room. |
Master Station |
|
Located at strategic positions around the airport. Each are self contained wind units equipped with Anemometers, 2 way communications with the master station and a back up battery. |
Remote Stations |
|
Data from the 6th sensor: |
Cannot be displayed in the tower cab. Is calculated in the overall network average. Is referred to as the "hidden sensor" |
|
The station that provides gust data. |
Centerfield Station. |
|
Integral in providing data calculations and used as a comparative reference for data derived from other remote stations. |
Centerfield station. |
|
The occurrence of a column of air perpendicular to the ground with acceleration toward the ground describes a A. Frontal Passage B. Microburst C. Gust Front |
B. Microburst |
|
The typical LLWAS is comprised of a centerfield station and ___ other remote stations? |
5 |
|
The LLWAS display panel located in the TRACON is normally used to report wind conditions A Within the airport area B. On a five mile final C. For a selected runway |
A. Within the airport area |
|
Displays wind data from the centerfield station and four of the other five stations. |
Tower Cab Display |
|
Displays the 2 min average of the airport wind direction to the nearest 10 degree and the 2 min average of the airport wind speed to the nearest nautical mile per hour. |
Row 1 Center Field Station |
|
Is the only row that provides gust data. |
Row 1 |
|
Row 2 |
Center Field Station Displays the 30 second average of the airport wind direction corrected to the nearest degree. Provides the 30 second average of the airport wind speed. |
|
Rows 3 - 6 |
Display a 30 second average of wind data from the other 5 remote stations. |
|
Lamp Test Indicator |
When pressed and held this switch provides an illumination of all indicators. Each row will display all 8s. |
|
Blanking switches |
When pressed, the associated boundary row is blanked and remains blank until the switch is pressed again. The wind shear alarm will override manual blanking. |
|
This indicator illuminates and flashes if data is not received from the master computer for approximately 100 seconds. All boundary rows blank simultaneously. |
Data Fail Indicator |
|
This indicator illuminates when the associated boundary station is selected. |
Status Indicators |
|
Used by approach control ATCs. Displays a 2 min average from the centerfield indicator plus gust info is available. |
TRACON dispay |
|
Manual controls on the TRACON display are identical to corresponding controls on the tower display panel and preform the same functions. A. True B. False |
A. True |
|
If the Centerfield station is out of service or has failed |
Row 1 will flash all 9s except the last digit of the wind direction will flash a 1. The 1 indicates the centerfield station is OTS. |
|
Rows 2 - 6 will flash all 9s |
When the centerfield station is OTS. When the centerfield station is OTS the LLWAS is considered OTS. |
|
If stations other than the centerfield are OTS |
Row 1 will operate normally except: The third digit of the wind direction will display a number between 2 and 6 indicating which station is OTS |
|
If a wind shear is occurring in the area by one of the remote stations |
The audible alarm will sound. The corresponding row will flash the wind direction and speed |
|
If the wind speed at a remote station is calm (below 3 kts) |
The audible alarm will sound. This is not an alam situation and no alert should be issued |
|
If the centerfield station is OTS row 1 will flash all 9s except the last digit of the wind ____ will flash a 1. A. Speed B. Gust C. Direction |
D. Direction |
|
What will alert the controller of a wind shear? A. The Data Fail light will blink B. The audible alarm will sound C. The blanking switch/status indicator will flash |
B. The audible alarm will sound |
|
If no data has been received from the central computer for about ____ seconds the data fail light will flash with a blank display. A. 20 B. 60 C. 100 |
C. 100 |
|
A low level wind shear/microburst may be reported by |
Pilots Integrated Terminal Weather System (ITWS) or detected on wind shear systems such as LLWAS NE++, LLWAS-RS,WSP, TDWR |
|
At locations equipped with LLWAS the local controller must provide wind info as follows: |
If an alert is received issue the airport wind and the flashing field boundary wind. |
|
An advisory for wind shear must be given to all succeeding aircraft when |
If a wind shear detection system is receiving a wind shear alert at the threshold or departure end of a runway. |
|
If an aircraft under your control informs you that it is performing a wind shear escape |
Do not issue control instructions that are contrary to pilot actions. Continue to provide safety alerts regarding terrain or obstacles and traffic advisories for the escape aircraft |
|
Which of the following is an example of the phraseology used for a wind shear advisory? A. Runway one seven arrival microburst alert, four zero knot loss, three mile final B. Runway one seven arrival wind shear alert, four zero knot loss, three mile final C. Runway one seven arrival alert, four zero knot loss, three mile final |
B. Runway one seven arrival wind shear alert, four zero knot loss, three mile final |
|
If requested by the pilot or deemed appropriate by the controller, issue the displayed wind information A. oriented to the threshold or departure end of the runway B. displayed as Airport Wind C. with the greatest gust factor |
A. oriented to the threshold or departure end of the runway |
|
What is the phraseology local controller uses to provide wind information if a wind shear is detected? A. Wind shear alert. Airport wind (direction) at (velocity). (Location of sensor) Boundary wind (direction) at (velocity) B. Airport wind shear alert. (location of sensor) boundary wind (direction) at (velocity) C. Wind shear alert advisory in effect for (location of sensor) boundary and airport |
A. Wind shear alert. Airport wind (direction) at (velocity). (Location of sensor) Boundary wind (direction) at (velocity) |
|
A microburst encounter poses a serious threat to aircraft during take off and landing because it produces A. a rapid change from tailwind to headwind conditions B. severe updrafts C. both vertical and horizontal wind shear |
C. both vertical and horizontal wind shear |
|
Provide airport traffic control service based only upon |
Observed or known traffic and airport conditions |
|
Provide preventive control service only to aircraft operating in accordance with |
A letter of agreement Issue advice or instructions only if a situation that requires corrective action develops |
|
The Local controller has primary responsibility for |
Operations conducted on runways and local airspace |
|
When Local authorizes another controller to cross an active runway, LC must |
Verbally specify the runway to be crossed and the point/intersection at the runway where the operation will occur, preceded by the word "cross" |
|
Ground must advise Local when the coordinated runway operation is complete. LC may initiate the closing of the coordination loop however |
GC must still reply with "Runway (number) crossing complete" |
|
LC must coordinate with GC when |
Using a runway not previously designated as active |
|
Authorization for traffic to proceed on an active runway for purposes other than crossing |
must be provided via direct communications on the LC frequency |
|
When runways are not visible from the tower or on radar |
LC must advise GC of the aircrafts location before releasing the aircraft to the GC frequency |
|
Coordination may be accomplished via |
Verbal means Flight progress strips Other written info Automated displays |
|
LC and GC continuously scan areas to ensure that the runway is free of all vehicles, equipment, and personnel before |
Departing aircraft starts takeoff roll Landing aircraft cross the runway threahold |
|
When using Certified Tower Radar Display (CTRD) you may issue traffic advisories that include: |
Azimuth from aircraft in terms of the 12 hour clock Distance from aircraft in miles Direction in which the traffic is proceeding If known type of aircraft and altitude |
|
Determine the position of an aircraft before |
issuing taxi instructions or takeoff clearance |
|
Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at an intersection |
Between sunset and sunrise At any time when the intersection is not visible from the tower When an inbound aircraft has been cleared to land on the same runway |
|
Steady Green light gun |
Cleared for takeoff/landing |
|
Flashing green light gun |
Cleared to taxi/return for landing |
|
Steady red light gun |
Stop Give way to other aircraft |
|
Flashing red light gun |
Taxi clear of runway airport unsafe |
|
white flashing light gun |
return to starting point on airport |
|
red and green light gun |
use extreme caution |
|
Standard direction of traffic pattern |
Left turns |
|
Departure leg |
Flight path that begins after takeoff and continues straight ahead along the extended runway centerline |
|
Upwind leg |
Flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction of landing |
|
Issue the appropriate departure control frequency and beacon code |
before takeoff |
|
After takeoff instruct civil, military transport and cargo to |
Contact departure control about 1/2 mile beyond the runway end |
|
Do not request departing military turbo prop/ turbo jet to make radio feq or squak changes before |
they reach 2,500 feet AGL |
|
Nonapproach control towers without tower radar display may be authorized to provide appropriate separation between consecutive departures based on |
tine or diverging courses and between arrivals and departures |
|
Ensures separation Initiates control instructions Scan tower cab environment Process and forward flight plan info |
Local control duties |
|
issues appropriate control instructions/restrictions including speed control, vectoring techniques, and visual separation |
Local Control |
|
Provides safety alerts, recognizing that they are a first priority duty along with separation of aircraft |
Local Control |
|
The conditions and limitations for the radar usage must |
be specified by a facility directive |
|
CTRDs may be used by local for the following |
To determine an aircrafts ID, exact location To provide an aircraft with radar traffic advisories To provide a direction or suggest headings to VFR aircraft as a method for radar ID or as an advisory aid to navigation |
|
Uncertified displays must be used |
only as an aid to assist controllers in visually locating aircraft or in determining their spatial relationship to known geographical points |
|
The Local Control position is in direct communication with the aircraft and ensures separation of aircraft ____ A. in the designated airspace B. on the taxiways C. above FL180 |
A. in the designated airspace |
|
Local Control observes present traffic and considers ____ to predict if an overload may occur A. Traffic Delays B. Forecasted Traffic C. Equipment Capability |
B Forecasted Traffic |
|
Who sets the radar displays to the appropriate area of jurisdiction? |
Local Control |
|
Issue the current RVR for the runway when |
Prevailing visibility is 1 mile or less or RVR indicates a reportable value of 6,000 feet or less |
|
The RVR data is not acceptable and can not be reported when |
It is determined from a reliable source that the indicated RVR value differs by more than 400 feet from actual conditions |
|
Issue both midpoint and rollout RVR when |
The value of either is less than 2,000 feet and the value of touchdown RVR is greater than the midpoint or rollout |
|
Issue the current RVR for the runway when |
Prevailing visibility is 1 mile or less or RVR indicates a reportable value of 6,000 feet or less |
|
When the RVR indicates a reportable value of 6,000 feet or less, issue the current ____ RVR for the runway in use to departing aircraft A. Rollout B. Midpoint C. Touchdown |
C. Touchdown |
|
The minimum info needed in an emergency is |
Aircraft identification and type Nature of emergency Pilot's desires |
|
Do not transfer responsibility of an emergency unless |
You feel better handling of the emergency will result |
|
If an aircraft involved in an emergency is operated by a foreign air carrier |
notify the center serving the departure or the destination point |
|
When an emergency occurs on the airport proper |
Control other air and ground traffic to avoid conflicts in the area where the emergency is being handled |
|
Orient an aircraft by any of the following recognized methods |
Sighting by other aircraft Radar NAVIDs Pilotage |
|
When info is received from any source that a bomb is on or near an aircraft obtain the following and relay it to your supervisor |
Type, series, and model of the aircraft Precise location/description of the device if known Other pertinent details |
|
If a bomb threat is received and the aircraft is on the ground |
Recommend that takeoff be delayed until the pilot has established there is no bomb on board |
|
If a pilot insists on taking off with a bomb threat |
if in your opinion the operation will not adversely affect other traffic issue or relay an ATC Clearennce |
|
Base your decision about the type of assistance needed to handle an emergency intelligently on information and requests received from the A. Pilot B. Aircraft Owner C. Airport Authority |
A. Pilot |
|
For special VFR and VFR on top |
Coordinate with departure control |
|
For runway 16/34 departures |
Coordinate with departure control |
|
For IFR departures runways 10R/L and 28R/L runway heading or |
heading not to exceed 30 degrees of runway heading. Advise departure control of the assigned heading if turns are used. |
|
Issue missed approach instructions as follows |
Runway 28R fly heading 020 climb and maintain 3000 Runway 10L fly heading 340 climb and maintain 3000 |
|
When CTRD is out of service |
Receive the sequence via the inter-phone system |
|
Local control shall use ___ to maintain the arrival/departure sequence A. CTRD B. pad management procedures and strips C. memory |
B. Pad management procedures and strips |
|
Position determination of an aircraft on the airport may be determined visually by the controller, by pilots, or through the use of A. ASR B. ASDE C. ARTS |
B. ASDE |
|
Approve a pilots request to cross Class C or D surface areas at a speed that does not exceed ____ knots unless higher min speed is required. A. 200 B. 250 C. 225 |
B. 250 |
|
Local control must forward to TRACON arrival times of all A. IFR B. SVFR C. OTP |
B. SVFR |
|
Local control must use automatic releases on A. Runways 10L/R and 28R/L only B. Runways 10L/R and 16/34 only C. All runways |
A. Runways 10R/L and 28R/L only |
|
Issue both midpoint and rollout RVR when the value of either is less than___ feet and the value of the touchdown RVR is greater than the midpoint or rollout. A. 1000 B. 2000 C. 3000 |
B. 2000 |
|
Specific traffic pattern entry info can be omitted if the aircraft is to circle the airport to the A. North B. Right C. Left |
C. Left |
|
At low key |
Issue low approach clearance or alternate instructions |
|
Except over an aircraft in takeoff position or a departure aircraft a low approach my be authorized with an altitude restriction of not less than A. 300 B. 500 C. 1000 |
B. 500 |
|
Controllers may authorize simultaneous opposite direction operations on parallel runways only when A. Pilots are in direct communication with each other B. Operations are conducted in VFR conditions C. Neither is a CAT III aircraft |
B. Operations are conducted in VFR conditions |
|
The minimum distance required from the landing runway threshold when a CAT I is landing behind a CAT I is A. 6000 B. 4500 C. 3000 |
C. 3000 |
|
The min distance needed when a CAT I is landing behind a CATII is A. 3000 B. 4500 C. 6000 |
A. 3000 |
|
Between sunset and sunrise what is the min distance required from the landing runway threshold when at CAT II is landing behind a landing CAT I A. 4500 B. 3000 C. Clear of Runway |
C. Clear of Runway |
|
A C172 landing behind a PA38 |
3000 feet |
|
A C172 landing behind a BE40 |
Clear of runway |
|
A BE58 landing behind a C172 |
4500 feet |
|
During same runway ops while LUAW is being applied landing clearance must be withheld if |
The safety logic system to that runway is inop Conditions are less than reported ceiling of 800 or visibility less than 2 miles |
|
Consider an aircraft cleared for touch and go as an arriving aircraft until it A. Crosses the landing threshold B. Touches down C. Turns final |
B. Touches down |
|
A Simulated Flameout approach pattern consists of A. High base, low base, straight in, and rollout B. High base, low base, straight in, rollout and flare C. High key, low key, base key, flare and roll out |
C. High key, low key, base key, flare and rollout |
|
W-hen an aircraft conducting an overhead maneuver reaches the initial point on the initial approach portion of the maneuver |
The IFR flight plan is canceled |
|
The minimum distance required to conduct LAHSO is |
2,500 feel ALD on the hold short runway measured from the landing threshold to the hold short point |
|
For LAHSO weather requirements are |
Non air carriers 1000 feet and 3 miles Air carriers 1,500 feet and 5 miles unless the runway has a PAPI or VASI Runway must be dry tailwind must be calm |
|
A light bar is considered OTS when |
two or more lights in a bar are not functional. When lights are OTS and LAHSO requiring the will be terminated |
|
Each landing aircraft with a LAHSO clearance shall be required to read back the clearance and will be given A. A Wind Check B. Traffic Info C. Rejected Landing Instructions |
B. Traffic Info |
|
All conditions specified in LAHSO must be issued in sufficient time for pilots of the aircraft involved to take action if desired and A. prior to the aircraft involved turning final B. prior to the aircraft involved crossing the approach end of the runway C. no later than the time landing clearance is issued |
C. no later than the time landing clearance is issued |
|
Information issued to arriving aircraft that will conduct an overhead maneuver includes A. ATIS B. direction of flight C. request for report on initial approach |
C. Request for report on initial approach |
|
Phraseology to issue a landing clearance to an arriving aircraft reporting a position where they should be seen and has not been visually observed is A. Not insight, runway (number) cleared to land B. Cleared to land C. Runway (number) cleared to land, not in sight |
A. Not in sight, runway (number) cleared to land |
|
Between sunrise and sunset if you can determine distances by reference to suitable landmarks, what is the min distance required from the landing threshold when a CAT I is landing behind a CAT I A. 3000 B. 4500 C. Clear of Runway |
A. 3000 |
|
Do not clear an aircraft to line up and wait if |
an aircraft has be cleared to land on the same runway |
|
Do not use ___ instructions when instructing an aircraft to line up and wait |
Conditional |
|
Do not use the term "full length" |
When the runway length available for departure has been temporarily shortened |
|
N71GL has landed and is taxing on Runway 34, the only active runway. N56CD is requesting takeoff clearance on runway 34. Phraseology for N56CD is A. November five six charlie delta, cleared for take off B. November five six charlie delta, runway three four line up and wait C. November five six charlie delta line up and wait |
B. November five six charlie delta runway three four line up and wait |
|
When must you identify the runway in a take off clearance ? |
Always |
|
When canceling a previously issued takeoff clearance you should |
inform the pilot of the reason if circumstances require |
|
A Cessna 310 is 1,00 feet down the runway on takeoff roll. A cherokee is holding short of the runway. Can takeoff clearance now be issued ? |
Yes if you are sure that you will have 3,000 by the time he rolls. |
|
A B727 is departing Runway 28R. A Tomahawk is holding short of Runway 34 requesting takeoff. When is the earliest the Tomahawk can depart? |
As soon as the B727 is through the intersecction |
|
If a helicopter requests departure from an area not visible from the tower the phraseology should be A. (ACID) cleared for takeoff B. (ACID) Proceed as requested at our own risk C. (ACID) departure from (location) will be at your own risk |
C. (ACID) departure from (location) will be at your own risk |
|
Separate a departing helicopter from an arriving helicopter by ensuring that the departure does not take off until the arrival has A. Established visual contact wit the departing aircraft B. Arrived and taxied off the landing area C. Landed |
B. Arrived and taxied off the landing area |
|
If suitable landmarks are not available a departing aircraft must not begin takeoff roll until the preceding departure has become airborne and crossed the runway end or A. has been assigned a diverging heading B. is the same category C. has turned to avert conflict |
C. has turned to avert conflict |
|
A departing piper colt is airborne. The earliest time you can clear a succeeding Cherokee for takeoff from the same runway using minimum prescribed separation is A. when the Piper Colt has departed and crossed the runway end B. when the Piper Colt is 3,000 from the landing threshold C. when 3,000 exists between the two aircraft |
C. when 3,000 exists between the two aircraft |
|
The minimum distance required for a CAT I departing behind a CAT III same runway is |
6,000 and airborne |
|
Helicopters are authorized to conduct simultaneous takeoffs if the A. Distance between takeoff points is at least 200 feet B. Previous departure is airborne C. Wind is less than 10 kts |
Distance between takeoff points is at least 200 feet |
|
If the extended centerline of a runway crosses the extended centerline of a converging runway within ___ of either departure end apply intersecting runway separation |
1 NM |