Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
236 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Which drug should not be used within 1 month of worming with an organophosphate anthelmintic? a. Amoxicillin b. Diazepam c. Tetracycline d. Acepromazine |
d. Acepromazine |
|
|
Dogs acquire infection with Hepatozoon sp. upon: a. tick bite b. flea bite c. ingestion of infected ticks d. ingestion of infected fleas |
c. ingestion of infected ticks |
|
|
A dog presents with severe pruritus. Alopecia, erythematous skin, and hyperkeratosis are a. skin scrape b. fecal flotation c. fecal sedimentation d. urinalysis with sediment examination |
a. skin scrape |
|
|
The focusing cup of an x-ray machine is a: a. Small depression where the filament is placed b. Negative electrode c. Tungsten coil that emits electrons when heated d. Positive electrode |
a. Small depression where the filament is placed |
|
|
The name of the hole between the atria that closes at birth in the mammal is: a. Cardiac fossa b. Atria foramen c. Fossa d. Foramen ovale |
d. Foramen ovale |
|
|
Ketonuria is indicative of which disease process? a. Acute renal failure b. Diabetes mellitus c. Urinary tract infection d. Anemia |
b. Diabetes mellitus |
|
|
Which of the serum protein fractions rarely increases in a disease state? a. Albumin b. α- Globulins c. β-Globulins d. y-Globulins |
a. Albumin |
|
|
A drug order contains the following instructions: a. 1ml b. 1.2mls c. 0.6mls d. 0.32mls |
c. 0.6mls |
|
|
A patient has been discharged with a bandage. The client calls the veterinary clinic to say that the bandage has gotten wet. Which is the correct response? a. The client should bring the pet in immediately to replace the bandage b. The client can wait until tomorrow to have the bandage changed c. The bandage should be fine; the client does not need to do anything d. The client should remove the bandage at home |
a. The client should bring the pet in immediately to replace the bandage |
|
|
Which of the following tissues is most radiation-sensitive? a. Bone cortex b. Muscle c. Cartilage d. Bone marrow |
a. Bone cortex |
|
|
A gastrotomy refers to a. a surgical incision into the gastrocnemius muscle b. a surgical incision into the peritoneal wall c. a surgical incision into the stomach d. surgical removal of a portion of the stomach |
c. a surgical incision into the stomach |
|
|
A correct statement regarding the presence of bacteria in the urine is: a. Small numbers are normal except in voided samples b. It can be indicative of an infection of the urinary tract c. Bacteria do not grow in the urine d. Bacteria cannot be detected in a standard microscopic analysis |
b. It can be indicative of an infection of the urinary tract |
|
|
Which statement best describes the difference between a precision and nonprecision vaporizer? a.The flow rate of a nonprecision vaporizer cannot be adjusted b. A nonprecision vaporizer delivers anesthetic variably dependent upon temperature and oxygen flow rate c. A precision vaporizer delivers anesthetic variably dependent upon temperature and oxygen flow rate d. Precision vaporizers are seldom in use in modern practice |
b. A nonprecision vaporizer delivers anesthetic variably dependent upon temperature and oxygen flow rate |
|
|
Pollakiuria is defined as a. Complete absence of urine formation b. Increased urine production c. Frequent urination d. Decreased urine formation |
c. Frequent urination |
|
|
A band neutrophil has which of the following? a. A hypersegmented nucleus b. Pink cytoplasmic granules c. A nucleus without indentations d. Bacterial inclusions |
c. A nucleus without indentations |
|
|
Of the following collection methods, which is primarily of use for urine volume only? a. Cystocentesis b. Metabolism cage c. Client-collected samples d. Catheterization |
b. Metabolism cage |
|
|
The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) regulates which group of animal health products? a. Prescription drugs b. Vaccines c. Scheduled (controlled) drugs d. Pesticides |
c. Scheduled (controlled) drugs |
|
|
An example of a loop diuretic is: a. Hydrochlorothiazide b. Spironolactone c. Mannitol d. Furosemide |
d. Furosemide |
|
|
If an error is made on a medical record, the proper method for correcting the mistake is to: a. white it out with correction fluid b. draw a single line through it and initial the correction c. erase it d. scratch it out so it cannot be read |
b. draw a single line through it and initial the correction |
|
|
It is recommended that urine sample size be standardized. An adequate sample of fresh urine is considered to be a. 1 mL - 3 mL b. 3 mL - 5 mL c. 5 mL - 10 mL d. 10 mL - 15 mL |
c. 5 mL - 10 mL |
|
|
In general, gravity-air displacement sterilization operates within which parameters of temperature and pressure: a. 100-120°F; 15-27 psi b. 100-120°C; 15-27 psi c. 250-270°F; 15-27 psi d. 250-270°F; 55-65 psi |
c. 250-270°F; 15-27 psi |
|
|
Intracellular bacteria are observed on a cytological evaluation and are indicative of which condition? a. Autoimmune disease b. Allergic reaction c. Sepsis d. Gastric dilatation-volvulus |
c. Sepsis |
|
|
Which setting on the x-ray machine adjusts the penetrating ability of the x-ray beam? a. mA b. kVp c. time d. collimation |
b. kVp |
|
|
The following is an acceptable transport media for viruses a. Skim milk medium b. Sterile William's solution c. Sterile carbon transport medium d. Formaldehyde |
a. Skim milk medium |
|
|
Proteinuria is defined as: a. Elevated protein levels in the blood b. Detectable levels of protein in the urine c. Decreased intake of protein d. Detectable levels of protein in cerebral spinal fluid |
b. Detectable levels of protein in the urine |
|
|
Which drug can affect bone growth in young animals? a. Chlorampheniol b. Enrofloxacin c. Amoxicillin d. Penicillin |
b. Enrofloxacin |
|
|
You are instructed to administer 25mg of a drug. It is provided in a 3mg/ml concentration. How many mls will you administer? a. 8.3mls b. 9mls c. 75mls d. 0.3mls |
a. 8.3mls |
|
|
Acetaminophen causes which of the following in cats: a. Methemoglobinemia b. Diarrhea c. Urine retention d. Excitability |
a. Methemoglobinemia |
|
|
A dog weighing 40kg needs 2mg/kg of a drug. This drug is available in 40mg tablets. How many tablets will you administer for one dose? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
b. 2 |
|
|
Hypokalemia refers to a reduced blood level of a. calcium b. potassium c. sodium d. bicarbonate |
b. potassium |
|
|
Nutritive media a. Select for different types of bacteria b. Differentiate types of bacteria c. Grow most bacteria d. Are not used for most microbiological procedures |
c. Grow most bacteria |
|
|
Pocket depth is measured from the a. Cementoenamel junction to the bottom of the pocket b. Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus c. Cementoenamel junction to the current free gingival margin and then adding 1 to 2 mm d. Cementoenamel junction to the apical extent of the defect |
b. Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus |
|
|
Which breeds exhibits a mesocephalic shape of the skull? a. Boxers, bulldogs b. German shepards, labs c. Sighthounds, Siamese cats d. Pekinese, Pugs |
b. German shepards, labs |
|
|
A dog that has had a major hemorrhage accidentally receives a large transfusion of distilled water into the cephalic vein. This would probably have a. No result as long as the water was sterile b. Serious, perhaps fatal, results, because the red blood cells would shrink c. No effect, because the dog was dehydrated d. Serious, perhaps fatal, results, because the red blood cells would burst |
d. Serious, perhaps fatal, results, because the red blood cells would burst |
|
|
In canines and felines, all deciduous teeth are normally shed by: a. 2-3 months of age b. 4-5 months of age c. 6-8 months of age d. 9-12 months of age |
c. 6-8 months of age |
|
|
The percentage of whole blood that is composed of erythrocytes is the a. MCV b. PCV c. MCH d. MCHC |
b. PCV |
|
|
Which of the following liver enzyme tests is considered a specific test for liver disease in dogs, cats, and primates only? a. AST b. ALT c. AP d. SD |
b. ALT |
|
|
Calculation of the A:G ratio a. Is accomplished by dividing the serum albumin fraction by the globulin fraction b. Often assists with early detection of serum protein abnormalities c. Should be evaluated with the protein profile d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
From cranial to caudal, the correct order for the segments of the spine in animals is: a. Coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, cervical b. Cervical, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, coccygeal c. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal d. Coccygeal, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, cervical |
c. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal |
|
|
Blood samples collected immediately postprandial may be a. Icteric b. High in TPP c. Lipemic d. Low in RBCs |
c. Lipemic |
|
|
The muscular layer that makes up the majority of the heart mass is the a. Myocardium b. Endocardium c. Myometrium d. Pericardium |
a. Myocardium |
|
|
An anucleated immature RBC seen in the peripheral blood of some mammals is a(n) a. metarubricyte b. rubricyte c. reticulocyte d. echinocyte |
c. reticulocyte |
|
|
What is the common name of a Backhaus? a. Needle holder b. Scissors c. Towel clamp d. Hemostatic forceps |
c. Towel clamp |
|
|
Which of the following absorbs the most x-rays? a. Fat b. Air c. Metal d. Bone |
c. Metal |
|
|
A pigeon presents with a 1-week history of anorexia and weight loss. Accumulations of a a. Trichinella b. Trichosomoides c. Trichostrongylus d. Trichomonas |
d. Trichomonas |
|
|
Autoclaving to sterilize a virally contaminated material requires the following same parameters as for a bacterially contaminated material a. 121º C, 15 psi for 30 minutes b. 250º F, 150 psi for 15 minutes c. 121º C, 10 psi for 15 minutes d. 250º F, 100 psi for 30 minutes |
a. 121º C, 15 psi for 30 minutes |
|
|
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) are contraindicated in the presence of all of the following except: a. GI bleeding b. Renal disease c. Post-operative pain d. Concomitant steroid administration |
c. Post-operative pain |
|
|
How does the milliamperage affect the electrons in an x-ray beam? a. Increasing the milliamperage increases the number of electrons produced and increases the number of x-rays produced b. Increasing the milliamperage increases the speed at which the electrons hit the anode, which increases the penetrating power of an x-ray beam c. Decreasing the milliamperage increases the number of electrons generated and decreases the number of x-rays produced d. Decreasing the milliamperage decreases the speed at which the electrons hit the anode, which decreases the number of x-rays available |
a. Increasing the milliamperage increases the number of electrons produced and increases the number of x-rays produced |
|
|
The oculars (or eyepieces) of a microscope a. Have no magnification abilities b. Multiply the magnification of the objectives by 5, 10, or 15 c. Add 10 the magnification of the objectives d. Control the amountof light entering the microscope |
b. Multiply the magnification of the objectives by 5, 10, or 15 |
|
|
Unused media intended for microbiology purposes should be stored: a. in the refrigerator b. in the freezer c. at room temperature d. at body temperature |
a. in the refrigerator |
|
|
Which of the following drugs will not provide analgesia? a. Fentanyl b. Carprofen c. Acepromazine d. Ketamine |
c. Acepromazine |
|
|
If the canine is removed or falls out, the connection from the sinus to the oral cavity unless surgically closed may form a/an: a. Resorptive lesion b. Oronasal fistula c. Dry socket d. Abscess |
b. Oronasal fistula |
|
|
When assessing the weight of a horse with a height-weight measuring tape, the tape should be placed a. around the forearm b. in a straight line from the poll (top of the head) to the tailhead c. around the thorax, just caudal to the withers d. around the flanks, just cranial to the pelvis |
c. around the thorax, just caudal to the withers |
|
|
To move a newborn calf from one spot to another a. Place a halter on its head and neck and lead it b. Place your arms around the neck and rump, and guide it c. Place a lariat around its shoulder and drag it d. Use a whip against its lumbar region and herd it |
b. Place your arms around the neck and rump, and guide it |
|
|
Disinfection controls (kills) _________ of the microorganisms on an object a. 90% b. 99% c. 98% d. 95% |
b. 99% |
|
|
A chemical sterilization indicator placed inside a surgery pack and autoclaved turns black. Which statement is most accurate? a. The items inside the pack are sterile b. The items inside the pack are contaminated c. The indicator is expired d. The conditions were met for sterilization to have occurred |
d. The conditions were met for sterilization to have occurred |
|
|
The intermediate host for the bovine tapeworm, Monieziasp., is a a. Bird b. Pasture mite c. Snail d. Mudworm |
b. Pasture mite |
|
|
A bone marrow sample from a juvenile animal that contains 50% fat is described as a. Hypoplastic b. Hyperplastic c. Inflammatory d. Neoplastic |
b. Hyperplastic |
|
|
Decubital ulcers are most likely to develop in the skin overlying: a. bony prominences b. heavily muscled areas c. areas of subcutaneous fat accumilation d. the perineum |
a. bony prominences |
|
|
Which of the following drugs may cause significant respiratory depression? a. Propofol b. Ketamine c. Diazepam d. Acepromazine |
a. Propofol |
|
|
Innate immunity a. Is recognized by the clincial signs of fever and chills b. Is solely created by the actions of the neutrophils c. Occurs after the adaptive immune response d. Type of immunity with which one is born and does not develop after birth |
d. Type of immunity with which one is born and does not develop after birth |
|
|
Urine samples should be analyzed within ________ for maximum valid information a. 1 hour b. 2 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 12 hours |
c. 30 minutes |
|
|
Which of the following is a proper dental term for describing a tooth surface? a. Palatal: facing the cheek b. Labial: facing the tongue c. Buccal: facing the cheek d. Rostral: toward the back |
c. Buccal: facing the cheek |
|
|
A lowered prothrombin level can be caused by a dietary defiency, by impaired synthesis, or by impaired absorption of vitamin: a. A b. D c. E d. K |
d. K |
|
|
Which of the following methods would be an initial measure in providing first aid for epistaxis? a. Application of ice packs to nasal passages b. Injection of vitamin K c. Administration of a tranquillizer d. Application of a pressure bandage to the affected area |
a. Application of ice packs to nasal passages |
|
|
A pet is to be prepared for cystotomy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Ventral abdomen b. Lumbar spine c. Ventral cervical area d. Top of the head |
a. Ventral abdomen |
|
|
The correct description with screens would be a. Large crystals, faster screens, less detail, high graininess b. Large crystals, slower screens, less detail, high graininess c. Small crystals, faster screens, more detail, low graininess d. Small crystals, faster screens, less detail, low graininess |
a. Large crystals, faster screens, less detail, high graininess |
|
|
The canine foreleg is composed of the following bones a. Tibia, radius, ulna b. Humerus, radius, ulna c. Humerus, radius, fibula d. Femur, tibia, fibula |
b. Humerus, radius, ulna |
|
|
Using the modified triadan system, give the number for the left mandibular canine : a. 304 b. 404 c. 311 d. 204 |
a. 304 |
|
|
If mA = 100 and s = 1/10, what is the mAs of the x-ray exposure technique? a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. 1000 |
b. 10 |
|
|
When must radiographs be labeled for certification organizations and for legal purposes? a. Before exposure and after processing b. During or after exposure but before processing c. After exposure and after processing d. Before filing or mailing |
b. During or after exposure but before processing |
|
|
What is the common name for a Metzenbaum? a. Needle holder b. Scissors c. Towel clamp d. Hemostatic forceps |
b. Scissors |
|
|
A boxer is lying in left lateral recumbency for an x-ray of its pelvis. The right femur will be: a. More magnified because of increased SID and decreased OFD b. More magnified because of decreased SID and increased OFD c. Less magnified becasue of decreased SID and increased OFD d. Less magnified because of increased SID and decreased OFD |
b. More magnified because of decreased SID and increased OFD |
|
|
Which of the following is not a hormone produced or released by the pituitary gland? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Oxytocin c. Growth hormone d. Calcitonin |
d. Calcitonin |
|
|
The fluid portion of the blood from which fibrinogen has been removed is termed a. Serum b. Plasma c. Buffy coat d. Packed cells |
a. Serum |
|
|
Ketamine and Tiletamine are members of which type of drug class? a. Barbiturates b. Opioids c. Inhalant d. Dissociative |
d. Dissociative |
|
|
A bovine can be made recumbent by exerting pressure on muscles and nerves with a series of carefully placed and tightened ropes. This technique is called: a. tilting squeeze b. casting c. haltering d. hobbling |
b. casting |
|
|
A radiograph that has been developed with exhausted chemicals and increased developing time will have: a. good contrast, with a dark gray background b. poor contrast, with a black background c. good contrast, with a black background d. poor contrast, with a dark gray background |
d. poor contrast, with a dark gray background |
|
|
What type of drug is apomorphine? a. Analgesic b. Anti-emetic c. Sedative d. Emetic |
d. Emetic |
|
|
Always muzzle an injured, conscious dog except if it has a a. Huge gaping wound on the neck b. Spinal injury c. Leg injury d. Head injury |
d. Head injury |
|
|
Control of Potomac horse fever in unvaccinated horses includes: a. administering prophylactic doses of praziquantel to control the vector flukes b. routine application of insecticides to horses to prevent feeding by flies c. administering prophylactic doses of penicillin antibiotics to control the Neorickettsia (= Ehrlichia) risticii d. avoiding aquatic habitats that may be more likely to harbor infected trematodes |
d. avoiding aquatic habitats that may be more likely to harbor infected trematodes |
|
|
An animal under stage III, plane 2 anesthesia will exhibit which of the following signs? a. very brisk palpebral reflex b. rapid respiration c. relaxed skeletal muscle tone d. very dilated pupils |
c. relaxed skeletal muscle tone |
|
|
Which of the following are nonabsorbable sutures? a. Chromic gut and Prolene b. Dermalon and Silk c. Polydioxanone (PDS) and surgical steel d. Vicryl (polyglactin 910) and silk |
b. Dermalon and Silk |
|
|
A patient has been discharged with a feeding tube in place. The client has called to state that the tube is plugged. Which instruction is most appropriate? a. The tube cannot be used any longer and the client should bring the pet in to have it removed b. The client should bring the pet in for immediate veterinary care c. The tube can be instilled with a carbonated beverage (cola ), allowed to sit, and flushed d. The tube can be instilled with very hot water and flushed |
c. The tube can be instilled with a carbonated beverage (cola ), allowed to sit, and flushed |
|
|
Cells that line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces are a. Plasma cells b. Mast cells c. Mesothelial cells d. Macrophages |
c. Mesothelial cells |
|
|
The following statement describes an allergy a. It involves the excess production of IgE antibody and release of histamine b. It is rare in all species of animals, but when it occurs it is always hereditary c. It is a localized reaction to an allergen in animals that produce too much IgA antibody to that compound d. It is a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction |
a. It involves the excess production of IgE antibody and release of histamine |
|
|
In which of the following types of fracture would skin be torn, and bone and subcutaneous tissue for exposed? a. Impacted b. Greenstick c. Compound d. Comminuted |
c. Compound |
|
|
Visceral larva migrans is caused by ingestion of a. Echinococcus sp. b. Toxocara sp. c. Uncinaria sp. d. Dioctophyma renale |
b. Toxocara sp. |
|
|
The palpebral reflex is commonly known as: a. ear flick b. blink c. swallow d. withdrawal |
b. blink |
|
|
The maintenance energy requirements (MER) for an 8-month-old, 22-kg (48.5-lb) Mastiff is a. 1460 kcal/day b. 740 kcal/day c. 2190 kcal/day d. 3140 kcal/day |
a. 1460 kcal/day |
|
|
Eimeria stiedai is associated with: a. Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits b. Cecal coccidiosis in chickens c. Renal coccidiosis in geese d. Intestinal coccidiosis in dogs |
a. Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits |
|
|
ELISA tests can detect a. Dirofilaria immitis b. Dirofilaria antigen c. Microfilaria d. Only occult heartworm |
b. Dirofilaria antigen |
|
|
An osteosarcoma is a: a. benign tumor originating in the cartilage b. benign tumor originating in the bone c. malignant tumor originating in the bone d. malignant tumor originating in the cartilage |
c. malignant tumor originating in the bone |
|
|
All of the following are major sites of lymphatic tissue except a. Tonsils b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Kidneys |
d. Kidneys |
|
|
Which of the following statement regarding abacteriostatic anti-infective drug is most accurate? a. Bacteriostatic drugs destroy bacteria b. Bacteriostatic drugs encourage bacterial growth c. Bacteriostatic drugs inhibit bacterial growth d. Bacteriostatic drugs are used to disinfect |
c. Bacteriostatic drugs inhibit bacterial growth |
|
|
What arthropods are commonly known to transmitAnaplasma marginale between cattle in a. Dermacentor ticks b. Tabanus horse flies c. mosquitoes d. a and b |
d. a and b |
|
|
A deformation of nuclei by other nuclei within the same cell or adjacent cells is referred to as a. Nuclear molding b. Angular nuclei c. Anisonucleosis d. Multinucleation |
a. Nuclear molding |
|
|
The primary defense mechanism of swine is: a. kicking b. biting c. striking with the front feet d. head-butting |
b. biting |
|
|
The purpose of creep feeding is to a. Allow young animals access to grain that the dams are denied b. Allow dams access to grain that the young are denied c. Increase ovulation before breeding d. Improve lactation capacity of dairy cattle |
a. Allow young animals access to grain that the dams are denied |
|
|
When submitting samples to a diagnostic laboratory virology department, it is important to a. Include a thorough case history b. Use an approved shipping medium c. Take serum samples from readily identifiable animals, now and up to 4 weeks later d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
Why should a wire brush never be used on surgical instruments? a. It will leave small metal splinters b. It will leave scratches that can harbor microorganisms c. It will leave scratches that damage the teeth of instruments d. It will cause discoloration of the metal |
b. It will leave scratches that can harbor microorganisms |
|
|
Characteristics of a canine geriatric diet include a. Low fiber and sodium; higher fat b. Decreased sodium and essential fatty acids c. Restricted protein and phosphorus; increased fiber d. Increased fiber and calories; restricted essential fatty acids |
c. Restricted protein and phosphorus; increased fiber |
|
|
The parasite Anaplasma marginale invades the: a. White blood cells in cattle b. Red blood cells in horses c. White blood cells in horses d. Red blood cells in cattle |
d. Red blood cells in cattle |
|
|
Inbred strains are the result of at least how many generations of brother x sister mating? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 |
b. 20 |
|
|
Which of the following is used to classify a virus? a. Their shape, as seen via electron microscopy b. Type of genome it possesses c. Presence or lack of an envelope d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
When performing dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipment includes a. Only gloves b. Only gloves and a mask c. Only safety glasses d. Safety glasses, mask, and gloves |
d. Safety glasses, mask, and gloves |
|
|
In the bitch, total cornification of the epithelial cells on a vaginal smear indicates: a. anestrus b. metestrus c. estrus d. proestrus |
c. estrus |
|
|
A chemical antimicrobial that is applied to the skin or mucous membranes is a/an a. Antiseptic b. Disinfectant c. Antibiotic d. Germicide |
a. Antiseptic |
|
|
At what critical age should traumatic experiences be avoided in dogs? a. 7 to 10 weeks b. The first 6 weeks of life c. 11 to 14 weeks d. Anytime between 6 and 16 weeks |
a. 7 to 10 weeks |
|
|
Biting lice have which characteristic? a. Head wider than thorax b. Feed on blood c. Narrower head than thorax d. Barely move |
a. Head wider than thorax |
|
|
The adult canine's fourth upper premolar has ____ roots. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
c. 3 |
|
|
A higher grid ratio means that a. The lead plate is thicker b. Less scatter radiation is absorbed c. More scatter radiation is absorbed d. Less primary radiation is absorbed |
c. More scatter radiation is absorbed |
|
|
An example of acquired natural active immunity is a. Ingestion of colostrum b. Recovery from disease c. Vaccination d. Meternal antibodies crossing the placental barrier in cats |
c. Vaccination |
|
|
A ______ bite is a condition where one segment of the jaw is disproportionate to the other segment. a. Wry b. Mesioclusion c. Distoclusion d. Prognathic |
a. Wry |
|
|
Which nutrient aids in the management of diarrhea and constipation? a. Minerals b. Fat c. Water d. Carbohydrates |
d. Carbohydrates |
|
|
Viral diagnostic tests include a. Fluorescent antibody test b. Electron microscopic visualization c. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
A disinfectant that should be used in caution around cats is: a. Quaternary ammonia b. Phenol c. Nolvasan d. Alcohol |
b. Phenol |
|
|
The penetrating power of an X ray is controlled by the: a. kilovoltage b. low-energy transformer c. milliampere-seconds d. milliamperage |
a. kilovoltage |
|
|
A cause of denuding (loss of spines) in hedgehogs can include a. Sarcoptic mange b. Demodectic mange c. Dermatophyte infections d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
Which of the following is not a major factor in reducing the effects of or preventing viral disease? a. Treatment b. Immunization c. Replication cycle of the virus d. Health measures |
c. Replication cycle of the virus |
|
|
The presence of yellowish supernatant after centrifugation of an effusion usually indicates a. Iatrogenic contamination with peripheral blood b. Recent hemorrhage c. Inflammation d. Hemorrhage that occurred at least 2 days previously |
d. Hemorrhage that occurred at least 2 days previously |
|
|
Serious injury is most likely to occur from a kick if you are within this range while standing behind a horse a. 1 to 2 feet b. 3 to 5 feet c. 6 to 8 feet d. 10 to 12 feet |
c. 6 to 8 feet |
|
|
A chylous effusion typically appears a. Milky b. Pink c. Amber d. Colorless |
a. Milky |
|
|
Horses show many emotions through body language. Which ear movement can mean concentration or anger? a. Pricked forward b. Constantly moving back and forth c. Held erect d. Pinned back |
d. Pinned back |
|
|
Which species does not practice coprophagy as necessary nutritional supplement? a. Mouse b. Chinichilla c. Guinea pig d. Rat |
a. Mouse |
|
|
Normal freshly voided urine of many species is clear. Exceptions include which of the following species? a. Rabbit b. Horse c. Hamster d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
Which definition best describes flash sterilization ? a. An unwrapped instrument is rapidly sterilized b. Incomplete sterilization as a result of an interrupted cycle c. Incomplete sterilization as a result of over packing d. Dry heat sterilization |
a. An unwrapped instrument is rapidly sterilized |
|
|
When administering a vaccine, to ensure the maximum immunity possible in the patient, it is important that you a. Follow the timing given by the manufacturer in the written protocol b. Use the correct route of administration c. Store the vaccines correctly and reconstitute them according to the manufacturer's instructions d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
In a horse, a chain twitch is best applied to the a. Upper muzzle b. Lower muzzle c. Ear d. Tongue |
a. Upper muzzle |
|
|
An enzyme is: a. An organic substance that causes a particular chemical reaction b. A product that reduces surface tension c. A chemical that sterilizes instruments d. A drug that causes a specific action on a receptor |
a. An organic substance that causes a particular chemical reaction |
|
|
Which of the following groups of ectoparasites is not known to occur on pet birds? a. sucking lice (Anoplura) b. chewing lice (Mallophaga) c. fleas (Siphonaptera) d. mites (Acari) |
a. sucking lice (Anoplura) |
|
|
An injection given routinely to piglets at birth is a. Seven-way clostridial injection b. Iron c. Vitamins A, D, and E d. Selenium |
b. Iron |
|
|
To obtain higher contrast on a film, you should not a. Use a grid b. Increase the time and temperature of the processing chemicals c. Set the collimator aperture so that the field is smaller d. Increase the kVp |
b. Increase the time and temperature of the processing chemicals |
|
|
What occurs when a behavior that has been previously reinforced is no longer reinforced? a. Positive punishment b. Negative punishment c. Flooding d. Extinction |
d. Extinction |
|
|
A dog that was exposed to distemper perinatally may develop which of the following oral pathologic conditions? a. Adontia b. Polydontia c. Enamel hypoplasia d. Enamel staining |
c. Enamel hypoplasia |
|
|
The efficacy of boiling as a methos of microbial control is increased by adding ______ to the water a. Sodium chloride b. Calcium chloride c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Sodium carbonate |
d. Sodium carbonate |
|
|
A previous client calls to report that he new pet needs some antibiotics. She will be by in 1 hour to pick up the prescription. What should the technician do? a. Explain to the client that a veterinarian must examine the animal before any medication can be dispensed b. Explain to the client that a technician cannot dispense medication and suggest that the client speak with the veterinarian c. Explain to the client that antibiotics require a prescription to be dispensed d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
What occurs when film is placed in the developer after being exposed to x rays? a. The sensitized silver halide crystals are changed into black metallic silver b. The potassium bromide crystals are changed into black metallic silver c. The silver halide crystals are cleared from the film d. All the silver halide crystal are changed into black metallic silver |
a. The sensitized silver halide crystals are changed into black metallic silver |
|
|
Female birds have only one functional _____ and a slightly larger ____ vein a. Left ovary and oviduct; right jugular b. Right ovary and oviduct; left jugular c. Right kidney; left medial tibiotarsal vein d. Left kidney; right medial tibiotarsal vein |
a. Left ovary and oviduct; right jugular |
|
|
Bile acids a. Are usually found in low levels in the bloodstream b. Will be increased in all forms of liver disease c. Are removed from circulating blood by the liver d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
Which of the following drugs is classified as a pure mu agonist? a. Butorphanol b. Naloxone c. Buprenorphine d. Morphine |
d. Morphine |
|
|
Vitamin D synthesis and calcium absorption in reptiles depends on a. Optimum temperatures b. A broad-spectrum ultraviolet light source c. A heating pad or hot rock under the substrate d. Optimum humidity in the enclosure |
b. A broad-spectrum ultraviolet light source |
|
|
Which stage of anesthesia is best moved through quickly or avoided? a. I b. II c. III d. IV |
b. II |
|
|
Organophosphate poisoning can be treated with which antagonist? a. Naloxone b. Atipamezole c. Atropine d. Fomepizole |
c. Atropine |
|
|
The machine setting is 250 mA and 2.5 mAs. The exposure time that you would use is a. 1/10 sec b. 2/25 sec c. 1/50 sec d. 1/100 sec |
d. 1/100 sec |
|
|
Which urine collection method is optimal for bacterial culture? a. Manual expression b. Cystocentesis c. Midstream d. Litter pan pour of |
b. Cystocentesis |
|
|
An in-house microbiology laboratory must be a. Run without the veterinarian's input b. Completely automated c. Have the ability to identify every possible organism d. Cost effective, staffed by proficient personnel, and aware of clients' need |
d. Cost effective, staffed by proficient personnel, and aware of clients' need |
|
|
The target of an x-ray machine is a. Tungsten coil that emits electrons when heated b. A small depression where the filament is placed c. An area of the anode struck by electrons during an exposure d. A positive electrode |
c. An area of the anode struck by electrons during an exposure |
|
|
Which of these behaviors is not a normal behavior for cats? a. Hiding under the papers in a cage b. Investigating a new room c. Being fairly aloof and independent d. Rubbing on the leg of a chair |
a. Hiding under the papers in a cage |
|
|
Which drug requires protective clothing when handled? a. Xylazine b. Torbugesic c. Prostaglandin d. Lidocaine |
c. Prostaglandin |
|
|
A 9-year-old spayed female indoor-only cat is brought to your clinic because the client is 4 months pregnant and concerned about toxoplasmosis. Which of the following is not anappropriate course of action: a. submit a serum sample from the cat for a Toxoplasma gondii titer and recommend euthanizing the cat if the titer is positive b. encourage the client to continue to keep the cat indoors and prevent the cat from ingesting any wildlife that may serve as reservoir hosts c. instruct the client that she should not feed raw meat to her cat d. encourage the client to have someone else change thelitter box for theduration of her pregnancy |
a. submit a serum sample from the cat for a Toxoplasma gondii titer and recommend euthanizing the cat if the titer is positive |
|
|
An example of a potassium-sparing diuretic is: a. Spironolactone b. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Mannitol d. Furosemide |
a. Spironolactone |
|
|
Terminal cleaning of the surgery room should occur a. after every case b. daily c. weekly d. monthly |
b. daily |
|
|
Which of the following breeds is classified as brachycephalic? a. Labrador Retriever b. Springer spaniel c. Chihuahua d. Pekinese |
d. Pekinese |
|
|
When referring to a caesarian section, an en bloc resection refers to: a. Removal of the fetuses without removal of the uterus b. Removal of the uterus after the fetuses have been removed c. Removal of the uterus with fetuses as a whole d. A special nerve block for analgesia |
c. Removal of the uterus with fetuses as a whole
|
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding reticulocytes is most accurate? a. They indicate inflammation b. They are immature red blood cells c. They are red blood cells that have been removed from circulation d. They control bleeding |
b. They are immature red blood cells |
|
|
You wish to select a drug for anesthetic induction that is not a controlled substance. Which would you choose? a. Fentanyl b. Pentothal c. Propofol d. Morphine |
c. Propofol |
|
|
The sterile field is: a. The area in which the anesthetist can work b. The area in which the scrubbed in team can work c. The area under the patient drape d. The back of the surgeon |
b. The area in which the scrubbed in team can work |
|
|
What is the term used to describe the tube-to-film distance? a. Source image distance b. Focal object distance c. Focal skin distance d. Focal spot |
a. Source image distance |
|
|
Dermatophyte fungi are found a. Infecting skin, hair and nails b. To commonly cause pneumonia c. As normal flora on most animals d. As free-living fungi in the environment |
a. Infecting skin, hair and nails |
|
|
A criterion of malignancy that involves variability in the size and shape of same cell type is referred to as: a. Anisocytosis b. Anisokaryosis c. Pleomorphism d. Nuclear molding |
c. Pleomorphism |
|
|
The systemic administration of an anticholinergic drug such as atropine will result in all of the following except: a. Relief of pain b. Increased heart rate c. Decrease in salivation d. Dilation of pupils |
a. Relief of pain |
|
|
Drugs that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system have which of the following effects? a. Bradycardia, vasoconstriction b. Tachycardia, vasoconstriction c. Bradycardia, vasodilation d. Tachycardia, vasodilation |
b. Tachycardia, vasoconstriction |
|
|
Skeletal muscle is composed of a. Parallel, multinucleated fibers b. Interconnected, uninucleated fibers c. Spindle-shaped, uninucleated fibers d. Parallel, uninucleated fibers |
a. Parallel, multinucleated fibers |
|
|
Medetomidine (Domitor®)) administration is associated with which of the following effects? a. Sedation, tachycadia, red mucous membranes b. Excitation, tachycardia, red mucous membranes c. Sedation, bradycardia, pale mucous membranes d. Excitation, bradycardia, pale mucous membranes |
c. Sedation, bradycardia, pale mucous membranes |
|
|
What is a rubriblast? a. An immature eosinophil b. A degenerated white blood cell c. An immature red blood cell d. A type of platelet |
c. An immature red blood cell |
|
|
Rod-shaped bacteria are described as a. coccus b. bacillus c. spiral d. pleomorphic |
b. bacillus |
|
|
In radiography, high-speed film has a. Larger silver halide crystals than slow-sppeed film, which increases the detail on the finished radiographic film b. Larger silver halide crystals than slow-speed film, which decreases the detail ion the finished radiographic film c. Smaller silver halide crystals than slow-speed film, which increase the detail on the finished radiographic film d. The same size of silver halide crystal as slow-speed film |
b. Larger silver halide crystals than slow-speed film, which decreases the detail ion the finished radiographic film |
|
|
The primary risk associated with regurgitation in ruminants is: a. contamination of a sterile surgical field b. aspiration of regurgitated material into the trachea and lungs c. dehydration of the animal d. acid damage to the tongue and lips |
b. aspiration of regurgitated material into the trachea and lungs |
|
|
A dog that chases and eats wild rabbits is most likely to become infected with which cestode? a. Echinococcus granulosus b. Taenia saginata c. Dipylidium caninum d. Taenia pisiformis |
d. Taenia pisiformis
|
|
|
Foals become infected with Parascaris equorum: a. when they ingest larvated eggs from a contaminated environment b. transplacentally (in utero) from the somatic tissue stores in the mare c. transmammarily (via milk) from larvae mobilized from mare somatic tissue d. by inadvertent ingestion of insect intermediate hosts when grazinng |
a. when they ingest larvated eggs from a contaminated environment |
|
|
If used in the proper ratio to blood, which anticoagulant is most recommended to cause the least changes in cell morphology? a. Heparin b. EDTA c. Potassium chloride d. Acid-citrate-ddextrose (ACD) |
b. EDTA |
|
|
An emasculator is used in: a. orthopedics b. dentistry c. cardiology d. castration |
d. castration |
|
|
Which of the following statements about the middle ear is false? a. It contains three ossicles b. Infection in the middle ear is called otitis media c. It communicates with the nasopharynx by means of the eustachian tube d. The cochlea is located here |
d. The cochlea is located here |
|
|
Urine filtration occurs in which portion of the kidney? a. Distal tubule b. Proximal tubule c. Glomerulus d. Loop of henle |
c. Glomerulus |
|
|
Eimeria spp. when sporulated contain a. Four sporocycts with two sporozoites b. Two sporocysts with four sporozoites c. One sporocyst with three sporozoites d. None of the above |
a. Four sporocycts with two sporozoites |
|
|
Hematuria is defined as: a. Decreased numbers of circulating red cells b. Blood in the feces c. A type of bladder surgery d. Blood in the urine |
d. Blood in the urine |
|
|
The soda lime in inhalation anesthesia equipment is used to absorb: a. Nitrous oxide b. Nitrogen c. Carbon dioxide d. The anesthetic |
c. Carbon dioxide |
|
|
The most important reason for polishing the teeth after ultrasonic scaling is to: a. Prevent halitosis b. Whiten the teeth c. Create smooth surfaces to prevent accumulation d. Facilitate fluoride application for the prevention of dental caries |
c. Create smooth surfaces to prevent accumulation |
|
|
Which of the following is commonly used for infiltration and epidural anesthesia? a. Proparacaine b. Lidocaine c. Pentobarbital d. Sodium penthothal |
b. Lidocaine |
|
|
Olsen-Hegar needle holders have: a. No locking mechanism b. Squeeze-action mechanism c. Scissors built into the jaws d. Large teeth at the tips |
c. Scissors built into the jaws |
|
|
MacConkey agar is an example of a. A differential and selective medium b. A general nutritive and differential medium c. A general nutritive medium d. A selective medium |
a. A differential and selective medium |
|
|
An intact male feral kitten presents for routine examination. You notice large numbers ofglistening white eggs adherent to the hair shafts on the dorsal and lateral aspect of the thorax.Closer inspection reveals several dorsoventrally flattened insects clinging to the hair shafts themselves. What parasite is this? a. Phthirus b. Hematopinus c. Pediculus d. Felicola |
d. Felicola |
|
|
A rabbit with a severe ear infection caused by mites is brought to your clinic. The organism most likely responsible is a. Psoroptes cuniculi b. Otodectes cynotis c. Knemidocoptes mutans d. Sarcoptes scabiei |
a. Psoroptes cuniculi |
|
|
Fluoride acts to accomplish all but which of the following? a. Desensitize the tooth b. Provide antibacterial activity c. Strengthen the enamel d. Strengthen the periodontal ligament |
d. Strengthen the periodontal ligament |
|
|
Floating teeth is the term used to describe the process of: a. Determining enamel density b. Correcting brachygnathism c. Mechanically adjusting the occlusal surfaces of teeth d.. Tooth extraction via buccotomy |
c. Mechanically adjusting the occlusal surfaces of teeth
|
|
|
The most important need of the newborn piglet immediately after birth is: a. warmth b. application of disinfectant to the umbilical cord stump c. clear airway d. nursing |
c. clear airway |
|
|
Ivermectin is contraindicated in which breed of dogs? a. Doberman Pinscher b. Chihuahua c. Collie d. Greyhound |
c. Collie |
|
|
Which of the following statements is true about viruses? a. They are microscopic, cellular, parasitic organisms b. They are all readily destroyed by ordinary household soaps and disinfectants c. They are obligate intracellular parasites d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
Which of the following is not a muscle in the abdominal group? a. Transverse b. Rectus c. Latissimus dorsi d. Oblique |
c. Latissimus dorsi |
|
|
A litter of 2-week-old kittens presents covered with a huge number of fleas. The kittens arehypothermic, have pale mucous membrranes, and appear moribund. Which of the following wouldnot be an appropriate means of managing these kittens: a. apply high concentration spot on pyrethrin (45-65%) residual flea control product to each kitten b. keep the kittens warm by placing on a circulating-water heating pad c. check PCV and consider blood transfusion if indicated d. immediately remove fleas via flea comb and gentle shampoo |
a. apply high concentration spot on pyrethrin (45-65%) residual flea control product to each kitten |
|
|
Serum or plasma samples destined for tests including total bilirubin levels should be a. Stored in a dark place b. Removed from the cells within three hours of collection c. Nonlipemic and nonhemolyzed d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
Which one of the following hormones is not secreted by the pituitary? a. FSH b. ACTH c. Cortisone d. Growth hormone |
c. Cortisone |
|
|
When scrubbing, the hands should be held a. below the elbows b. parallel to the elbows c. above the elbows d. above the head |
c. above the elbows |
|
|
In cattle, which of the following is a method of permanent animal identification? a. neck chain with tag b. ear tag c. ear tattoo d. all of the above |
c. ear tattoo |
|
|
Which contrast medium is considered negative contrast? a. Water-soluble organic iodide b. Barium sulfate c. Air d. Organic iodide |
c. Air |
|
|
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about cats that spray? a. The usual preference for this behavior is a vertical surface b. His/her behavior is a result of the social environment of the cat(s) c. Females do not demonstrate this behavior d. The cat may choose one location or several |
c. Females do not demonstrate this behavior |
|
|
Sterile abscesses a. Do not need to be cleaned with a disinfectant before sampling b. Contain only one type of organism c. Contain many types of organisms d. Contain no bacterial or fungal organisms |
d. Contain no bacterial or fungal organisms |
|
|
An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is also referred to as a(n) a. Cystogram b. Gastrogram c. Excretory urogram d. Esophagram |
c. Excretory urogram |
|
|
A Gram stain is a: a. Test used to differentiate white blood cells b. Chromatic differential test of microorganisms c. Stain used to analyze morphology d. Stain used to identify intracellular inclusions |
b. Chromatic differential test of microorganisms |
|
|
A correct statement regarding an onychectomy is that it involves the: a. excision of a cyst b. amputation of the tail c. surgical removal of the nail d. excision of the testes |
c. surgical removal of the nail |
|
|
Naloxone is an antagonist for which class of drugs? a. Phenothiazines b. Barbiturates c. Opioids d. Fluoroquinolones |
c. Opioids |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding liver enzyme test is not true? a. Most of these tests can be determined at room temperature b. Nonhemolyzed, nonlipemic samples are preferred c. Samples should be separated as soon as possible, because the levels of some of the chemicals will be altered if the serum or plasma remains with the cells d. Specific instructions for each test must be followed to ensure reliable results |
a. Most of these tests can be determined at room temperature |
|
|
Bacterial cultures are incubated a. At room temperature b. At the patient's body temperature c. At human body temperature d. In the refrigerator |
c. At human body temperature |
|
|
The phase of general anesthesia which presents the greatest risk to an equine is: a. premedication b. induction c. maintenance d. recovery |
d. recovery |
|
|
Which patient information should be included on the laboratory request form when ordering a blood culture? a. Has taken monthly heartworm preventative for 1 year b. Has a 3-year history of a chronic skin disease c. Consumed a large meal 8 hours before the specimen was taken d. Received antibiotics 12 hours before the specimen was taken |
d. Received antibiotics 12 hours before the specimen was taken |
|
|
A Balfour retractor is used for: a. Abdominal surgery b. Dental procedures c. Orthopedic surgery d. Thoracic surgery |
a. Abdominal surgery |
|
|
Hypernatremia refers to an elevated blood level of a. calcium b. potassium c. sodium d. bicarbonate |
c. sodium |
|
|
Which two drug combinations should be avoided? a. Furosemide and potassium gluconate b. Amoxicillin and carprofen c. Prednisone and aspirin d. Amoxicillin and aspirin |
c. Prednisone and aspirin |
|
|
When used as a preanesthetic, atropine will: a. provide sufficient anesthesia for minor surgery b. frequently produce vomiting c. inhibit excessive salivary secretion d. cause the pupils to constrict |
c. inhibit excessive salivary secretion |
|
|
Which of the following has the lowest solubility coefficient? a. Halothane b. Isoflurane c. Methoxyflurane d. Sevoflurane |
d. Sevoflurane |
|
|
The main purpose of the fixer is to a. Reduce exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver b. Remove unexposed, undeveloped silver halide crystals c. Change the calcium tungstate crystals to black calcium d. Create a latent image |
b. Remove unexposed, undeveloped silver halide crystals |
|
|
When the albumin value is subtracted from the total protein value, the remainder represents the concentration of: a. Bilirubin b. Blood urea nitrogen c. Globulin d. Glucose |
c. Globulin |
|
|
Enrofloxacin is a drug belonging to which class of antibiotics? a. Cephalosporin b. Penicillin c. Aminoglycoside d. Fluoroquinolone |
d. Fluoroquinolone |
|
|
Which of the following are effective for the treatment of clinical coccidiosis in cattle? a. amprolium b. metronidazole c. decoquinate d. a and b |
a. amprolium |
|
|
Sperm cells are produced by the a. Seminiferous tubule b. Epididymis c. Vas deferens d. Seminal vesicles |
a. Seminiferous tubule |
|
|
An anxiolytic drug has which of the following effects? a. Excitability b. Increases blood pressure c. Anti-anxiety d. Anti-nausea |
c. Anti-anxiety |
|
|
Class II malocclusion (distoclusion) a. Has base narrow canines b. Abnormally short maxilla or abnormally long mandible c. Abnormally long maxilla or abnormally short mandible d. Abnormally long mandible and abnormal maxilla |
c. Abnormally long maxilla or abnormally short mandible |
|
|
When using a dip on a dog to treat mange, you must: a. rinse the dog thoroughly following application of the dip solution b. place protective ointment in the dog's eyes first c. be sure that the dog has not been bathed for at least 1 week d. be careful that no dip solution wets the dog's face |
b. place protective ointment in the dog's eyes first |
|
|
It is important that all neonates receive colostrum within what time period? a. The first 18 hours of life b. The first 24 hours of life c. The first 2 days of life d. The first week of life |
a. The first 18 hours of life |
|
|
The following microorganisms are listed from most to least resistant a. Fungi, spores, protozoan cysts, vegetative bacteria b. Spores, protozoan cysts, lipophilic viruses, vegetative bacteria c. Protozoan cysts, TB organisms, fungi, vegetative bacteria d. Spores, protozoan cysts, lipophilic viruses, hydrophilic viruses |
c. Protozoan cysts, TB organisms, fungi, vegetative bacteria |
|
|
At 135º C (275º F), microorganisms are destroyed in _______ minute(s) a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 5 |
c. 1 |
|
|
A hallmark that a dog is dominantly aggressive is a. It bites only the young children within the household b. Punishment of the dog will escalate the behavior c. It ceases the behavior in the absence of food d. All of the above |
b. Punishment of the dog will escalate the behavior |
|
|
Hibitane is an example of which class of disinfectant? a. Phenols b. Quaternary ammonium compounds c. Biguanides d. Halogens |
c. Biguanides |
|
|
What volume of 100% bleach would you need to make 100mls of a 10% solution?
a. 5mls b. 10mls c. 50mls d. 100mls |
b. 10mls |
|
|
An example of a legume commonly fed to cattle is a. Corn b. Oats c. Barley d. Alfalfa |
d. Alfalfa |
|
|
Density is decreased on a film by a. Increasing the kVp b. Decreasing the tissue density c. Decreasing the mAs d. Increasing the processing chemical temperatures |
c. Decreasing the mAs |
|
|
Manufacturers are required to include which percentage of the following ingredients in the guaranteed analysis? a. Maximum crude protein and fat b. Minimum crude protein and fat c. Minimum minerals and ash d. Minimum crude fiber and moisture |
b. Minimum crude protein and fat |
|
|
An animal is considered obese when its weight exceeds what percentage of its ideal weight? a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% |
d. 20% |
|
|
Which of the following parasite is most likely to cause eye damage to a human who becomes infected? a. A Toxocara canis larva b. A Sarcoptes scabiei mite c. An Ancylostoma caninum larva d. An Enterobius vermicularis larva |
a. A Toxocara canis larva |
|
|
Phenobarbital is used primarily for: a. Anesthetic induction b. Anxiolysis c. Anticonvulsant therapy d. Mild sedation for short procedures |
c. Anticonvulsant therapy |
|
|
The process by which bone is formed from cartilage bars is known as (Points : 1) Intramembranous ossification |
Intramembranous ossification |
|
|
A 5-year-old gelding presents with ataxia and incoordination in all four limbs. A CSF tap a. transmission of sporozoites via the bite of a tabanid fly |
ingestion of sporocysts from opossum feces in contaminated feed or water |
|
|
Urine specific gravity is used to: (Points : 1) d. Measure volume of urine produced |
b. Assess the state of the kidneys and hydration |
|
|
The laboratory animal that is most likely to have an epileptiform fit when handled is the: gerbil |
gerbil |
|
|
The preferred anticoagulant for hematology studies is a. EDTA |
c. sodium citrate |
