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576 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Peptidoglycan
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Function:
1. Rigid support 2. Protects against osmotic pressure Chemical composition: Sugar backbone with cross-linked peptide side chains |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Cell wall/cell membrane
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Gram positives only
Function: Major surface antigen Chemical composition: Teichoic acid, which induces TNF and IL-1 |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Outer membrane
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Gram negatives only
Function: Site of endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) and major surface antigen Chemical composition: Lipid A induces TNF and IL-1, and polysaccharide is the antigen |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Plasma membrane
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Function: Site of oxidative and transport enzymes
Chemical composition: Lipoprotein bilayer |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Ribosome
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Function: Protein synthesis
Chemical composition: 50S and 30S subunits |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Periplasm
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Function: Space between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria
Chemical composition: Contains many hydrolytic enzymes, including beta-lactamases |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Capsule
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Function: Protects against phagocytosis
Chemical composition: Polysaccharide (except Bacillus anthracis which contains D-glutamate) |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Pilus/fimbria
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Function: Mediates adherence of bacteria to cell surface; sex pilus forms attachment between 2 bacteria during conjugation
Chemical composition: Glycoprotein |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Flagellum
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Function: Motility
Chemical composition: Protein |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Spore
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Function: Provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals
Chemical composition: Keratin-like coat and dipicolinic acid |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Plasmid
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Function: Contains a variety of genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes, and toxins
Chemical composition: DNA |
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Function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Glycocalyx
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Function: Mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (eg indwelling catheters)
Chemical composition: Polysaccharide |
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Function of this structure: IgA proteases
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Function: Allow some organisms to colonize mucosal surfaces
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Which bacteria have IgA proteases?
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1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
2. Neisseria meningitidis 3. Neisseria gonorrheae 4. Hemophilus influenzae |
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Which bacterial substances induce cytokines, and which are they?
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Cytokines induced:
1. IL-1 2. TNF Gram positive inducer: Teichoic acid Gram negative inducer: Lipopolysaccharide (Endoxtoxin) |
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What does the capsule of Bacillus anthracis consist of?
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D-glutamate
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What bacterial structure contains D-glutamate?
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Capsule of Bacillus anthracis
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What are the main differences between gram negative and gram positive organisms?
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Peptidoglycan cell wall: Gram positive has thick. Gram negative has thin.
Flagellar basal body rings: Gram positive has two. Gram negative has four. Outer antigen: Gram positive: Teichoic acid. Gram negative: Lipidpolysaccharide Periplasmic space: Gram positive does not have. Gram negative has. Porin channel: Gram positive does not have. Gram negative has. Lysozyme and penicillin attack: Gram positive are sensitive. Gram negative are resistant. |
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What bacteria do not gram stain well?
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Mnemonic: These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color
1. Treponema 2. Rickettsia 3. Mycobacteria 4. Mycoplasma 5. Legionella pneumophila 6. Chlamydia |
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Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Treponema
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Too thin to be visualized
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Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Rickettsia
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Intracellular parasite
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Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria
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high-lipid-content cell wall
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Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycoplasma
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No cell wall
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Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Legionella pneumophila
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Primarily intracellular
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Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Chlamydia
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Intracellular parasite which lacks muramic acid in cell wall
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How is the following bug visualized?: Treponema
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1. Darkfield microscopy
2. Fluorescent antibody staining 3. silver stain |
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Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria
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Acid fast for high lipid content cell wall
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What are the stages of bacterial growth and what are their relative lengths?
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1. Lag phase: x
2. Log phase: 1.5x 3. Stationary phase: 2.5x 4. Death phase: 4x |
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What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth, and where does it fall in the order?: Lag
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1st phase: Metabolic activity without division
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What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth, and where does it fall in the order?: Log
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2nd phase: Rapid cell division
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What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth, and where does it fall in the order?: Stationary
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3rd phase: Nutrient depletion slows growth
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What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth, and where does it fall in the order?: Death
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4th phase: Prolonged nutrient depletion and buildup of waste products leads to death
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Source?
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Exotoxin: Certain species of gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Endotoxin: Cell wall of most gram-negative bacteria |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Secreted from cell?
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Exotoxin: Yes
Endotoxin: No |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Chemistry
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Exotoxin: Polypeptide
Endotoxin: Lipopolysaccharide |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Location of genes
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Exotoxin: Plasmid or bacteriophage
Endotoxin: Bacterial chromosome |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Toxicity (fatal dosage)
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Exotoxin: High (fatal dose on the order of 1 microgram)
Endotoxin: Low (fatal dose on the order of hundreds of micrograms) |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Clinical effects
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Exotoxin: Toxin specific
Endotoxin: Fever and shock |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Mode of action
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Exotoxin: Toxin specific
Endotoxin: Includes TNF and IL-1 |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Antigenicity
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Exotoxin: Induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins
Endotoxin: Poorly antigenic |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Vaccines
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Exotoxin: Toxoids used as vaccines
Endotoxin: No toxoids formed and no vaccine available |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Heat stability
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Exotoxin: Destroyed rapidly at 60 degrees celsius (except Staphylococcal enterotoxin)
Endotoxin: Stable at 100 degrees celsius for 1 hour |
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Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Typical diseases
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Exotoxin: Tetanus, botulism, diphtheria
Endotoxin: Meningococcemia, sepsis by gram negative rods |
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Mechanism of superantigens
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1. Bind directly to MHC II and T cell receptor
2. Large numbers of T cells are activated. 3. Stimulates release of IFN-gamma and IL-2 |
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Mechanism of ADP ribosylating A-B toxins
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Interfere with host cell function
1. B (binding) component binds to a receptor on surface of host cell. 2. The toxin is endocytosed. 3. A (active) component attaches an ADP-ribosyl to a host cell protein. 4. That protein's function is altered. |
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List of bugs that release superantigens
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1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Streptococcus pyogenes |
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List of bugs that release ADP ribosylating A-B toxins
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1. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
2. Vibrio cholerae 3. E. coli 4. Bordetella pertussis |
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What to know about exotoxins released by Staphylococcus aureus
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Superantigens
1. TSST-1 causes toxic shock syndrome (fever, rash, shock). 2. Enterotoxins cause food poisoning. |
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What to know about exotoxins released by Streptococcus pyogenes
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Scarlet fever (superantigen)
1. Erythrogenic 2. Causes toxic shock-like syndrome Streptolysin O (hemolysin). The antigen for ASO antibody is found in rheumatic fever |
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What to know about exotoxins released by Corynebacterium diphtheriae
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ADP ribosylating A-B toxin (similar to Pseudomonas exotoxin A)
Encoded by beta-prophage Disease: Pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane) with lymphadenopathy Mechanism: Inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF-2) Mnemonic: ABCDEFG ADP ribosylation Beta-prophage Corynebacterium Diphtheriae Elongation Factor 2 Granules (metachromatic) |
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What to know about exotoxins released by Vibrio cholerae
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1. A-B toxin ADP ribosylates Gs protein thus:
2. Permanently activates Gs protein 3. Constant stimulation of adenylyl cyclase which: 4. Increases pumping of Cl into gut 5. H2O follows it 6. Leads to rice water diarrhea |
|
What to know about exotoxins released by E. coli
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E.coli 0157:H7 produces Shiga toxin.
ADP ribosylating A-B toxins Heat-labile: Permanent activation of adenylyl cyclase (cholera-like mechanism) leading to watery diarrhea Heat-stabile: Stimulates guanylate cyclase Mnemonic: Labile like the Air, Stabile like the Ground. |
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What to know about exotoxins released by Bordetella pertussis
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1. ADP ribosylating A-B toxin
2. Permanently disables Gi 3. Constant stimulation of adenylate cyclase 4. Causes whooping cough 5. Also inhibits chemokine receptor causing lymphocytosis |
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What to know about exotoxins released by Clostridium perfringens
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alpha toxin (aka lecithinase) causes:
1. gas gangrene 2. myonecrosis 3. hemolysis (See double zone of hemolysis on blood agar.) PERFringens PERForates a gangrenous leg. |
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What to know about exotoxin released by Clostridium botulinum
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Properties:
1. Preformed 2. Heat-labile Mechanism: Blocks the release of acetylcholine causing: 1. anticholinergic symptoms 2. CNS paralysis (especially cranial nerves) 3. Floppy baby syndrome BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage (causes flaccid paralysis) |
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What to know about exotoxins released by Clostridium tetani
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Blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord. Causes "lockjaw"
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What to know about exotoxins released by Bacillus anthracis
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1 toxin in the toxin complex is edema factor, an adenylate cyclase
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What to know about exotoxins released by Shigella
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Shiga toxin (also produced by E.coli 0157:H7).
Cleaves host cell rRNA. Also enhances cytokine release causing hemolytic uremic syndrome. |
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Endotoxin: What is it and where is it found?
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Lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. Heat stable.
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Endotoxin: What does it activate and what do they release?
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1. Macrophages (IL-1, TNF, Nitric oxide)
2. Alternative complement pathway (C3a, C5a) 3. Hageman factor (Coagulation cascade) |
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What mediators are released when endotoxin activates macrophages, and what do they do?
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1. IL-1: Fever
2. TNF: Fever and Hemorrhagic tissue necrosis 3. Nitric Oxide: Hypotension (shock) |
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What mediators are released when endotoxin activates the alternative complement cascade, and what do they do?
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1. C3a: Hypotension and edema
2. C5a: Neutrophil chemotaxis |
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What mediators are released when endotoxin activates Hageman factor, and what do they do?
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Coagulation cascade: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
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What method is used to differentiate Neisseria?
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Sugar fermentation
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What do meningococci ferment?
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MeninGococci ferment Maltose and Glucose
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What do gonococci ferment?
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Gonococci ferments Glucose
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What are the pigment producing bacteria and what pigments do they produce?
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Staphylococcus aureus: Yellow pigment (Aureus means gold in Latin)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa: blue-green pigment Serratia marcescens: red pigment (think red maraschino cherries) |
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Special culture requirements for: Hemophilus influenzae
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Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)
Mnemonic: When a child has "flu" mom goes to five (V) and dime (X) to buy some chocolate. |
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Special culture requirements for: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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Thayer-Martin media
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Special culture requirements for: Bordetella pertussis
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Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
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Special culture requirements for: M. tuberculosis
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Lowenstein-Jensen agar
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Special culture requirements for: Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria
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Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar
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Special culture requirements for: Legionella
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Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine
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Special culture requirements for: Fungi
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Sabouraud's agar
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What microbes can be stained with: Congo red
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Amyloid. Apple-green birefringence in polarized light (because of beta-pleated sheets)
|
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What microbes can be stained with: Giemsa's
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1. Borrelia
2. Plasmodium 3. Trypanosomes 4. Chlamydia |
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What microbes can be stained with: periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
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Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides. Used to diagnose Whipple's disease
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What microbes can be stained with: Ziehl-Neelsen
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Acid-fast bacteria.
|
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What microbes can be stained with: India ink
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Cryptococcus neoformans
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What microbes can be stained with: Silver stain
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1. Fungi
2. PCP (Pneumocystis Pneumonia) 3. Legionella 4. Treponema |
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Conjugation
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Direct cell to cell DNA transfer
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Transduction
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Phage-mediated cell to cell DNA transfer
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Transformation
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Purified DNA taken up by a cell
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the processd: Transposition
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DNA transfer to same or another chromosome or plasmid WITHIN a cell
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Conjugation
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Prokaryotic
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Transduction
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Prokaryotic
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Transformation
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Prokaryotic or eukaryotic
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Transposition
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Prokaryotic or eukaryotic
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Conjugation
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Chromosomal or plasmid
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Transduction
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Generalized transduction: Any gene
Specialized transduction: Only certain genes |
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Transformation
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Any DNA
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For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Transposition
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DNA sequences "jumping genes"
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What is lysogeny?
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When the genetic code for a bacterial toxin is encoded in a lysogenic phage.
|
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Name 4 lysogenic toxins.
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BCDE
1. Botulinum 2. Cholera 3. Diphtheria 4. Erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus Pyogenes |
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List four obligate aerobes.
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Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Bacillus
Mnemonic: Nagging Pests Must Breathe |
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Where in the lung does M. tuberculosis prefer, and why?
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Apices of the lung, as they have the highest PO2.
|
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What conditions occur concurrently with P. Aeruginosa infection?
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1. Burn wounds
2. Nosocomial pneumonia 3. Pneumonias in Cystic Fibrosis patients |
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List 3 obligate anaerobes
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Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces
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What enzymes do obligate anaerobes lack?
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Catalase (aka glutathione peroxidase)
AND/OR Superoxide dismutase (converts O2-radical[ie superoxide] to H2O2) |
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Why are anaerobes foul-smelling?
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They produce short-chain fatty acids.
|
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What do anaerobes produce in tissue?
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CO2 and H2 gases
|
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Where are anaerobes normal flora?
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1. GI tract
2. Between teeth and gums |
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What antibiotics are particularly ineffective against anaerobes?
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AminO2glycosides, as they require O2 to enter the bacterial cell.
|
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List the obligate intracellular bacteria.
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Rickettsia and Chlamydia.
Mnemonic: Stay inside (cells) when it is Really Cold |
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What is the defining characteristic of obligate intracellular bacteria.
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Can't make their own ATP.
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List the facultative intracellular bacteria.
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Mnemonic: Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY
Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia OR Mnemonic: My Liege, Your Niece Lists Frank, Bruce and Sam. Mycobacterium, Leigonella, Yersinia, Neisseria, Listeria, Francisella, Brucella, Salmonella. |
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List four major examples of encapsulated bacteria
|
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
2. Hemophilus influenzae (especially B serotype) 3. Neisseria meningitidis 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae |
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What does a positive quellung reaction indicate?
|
Positive quellung: If encapsulated bug is present, capsule swells when specific anticapsular antisera are added.
Mnemonic: Quellung = capsular "swellung" |
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In which vaccines does the capsule serve as an antigen?
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Pneumovax, H influenzae B, Meningococcal vaccines
|
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What does conjugation with protein do to vaccines that have a capsular antigen?
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Increases the immunogenicity and T-cell dependent responce.
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Which bacteria form spores?
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Gram positive soil bugs (eg Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium tetani)
|
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How can one destroy spores?
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Autoclave (as is done to surgical equipment)
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Which bacteria are alpha hemolytic?
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Streptococcus (all catalase-negative)
If optochin sensitive, bile soluble, or quellung positive: Streptococcus Pneumoniae If optochin resistant, bile insoluble, or quellung negative: Streptococcus Viridans (eg S. Mutans) |
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Which bacteria are beta-hemolytic?
|
Rods:
Listeria monocytogenes Cocci: If catalase positive and coagulase positive: Staphylococcus Aureus If catalase negative, Streptococcus. Then, if bacitracin sensitive, S. pyogenes. If bacitracin resistant, S. agalactiae. |
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What are the important points about Listeria monocytogenes?
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1. Tumbling motility
2. Meningitis in newborns 3. Unpasteurized milk |
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Gram positive: Which are catalase positive and which are catalase negative?
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Positive: Staph
Negative: Strep |
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Gram positive: Which are catalase positive bacteria make coagulase?
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Staph aureus does.
Staph epidermidis and saprophyticus do not. |
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What is Protein A?
|
Virulence factor of Staphylococcus Aureus. Binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis.
|
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What disease states does Staphylococcus Aureus cause?
|
Inflammatory:
1. Skin infections 2. Organ abscesses (acute bacterial endocarditis, osteomyelitis) 3. Pneumonia Toxin-mediated: 1. Toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1) 2. Scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin) 3. Rapid-onset food poisoning (ingestion of preformed enterotoxin) |
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What disease states does Streptococcus Pyogenes cause?
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Pyogenic
1. Pharyngitis 2. Cellulitis 3. Impetigo Toxigenic 1. Scarlet fever 2. Toxic shock syndrome Immunologic 1. Rheumatic fever 2. Acute glomerulonephritis |
|
What are two sequelae of Streptococcus Pyogenes pharyngitis?
|
Rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
Mnemonoic: PHaryngitis gives you rheumatic PHever and glomerulonePHritis |
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Which antibody enhances host defenses against Streptococcus Pyogenes?
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Antibody to M protein
|
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Antibody to M protein enhances host defenses against what?
|
Streptococcus Pyogenes
|
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What does ASO titer detect?
|
Recent S. Pyogenes infection
|
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How can one detect recent S. Pyogenes infection?
|
ASO titer
|
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What are the signs and symptoms of rheumatic fever?
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1. Subcutaneous nodules
2. Polyarthritis 3. Erythema marginatum 4. Chorea 5. Carditis (bacterial endocarditis) Mnemonic: No "rheum" for SPECCulation |
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What is streptococcus pneumoniae the most common cause of?
|
1. Meningitis
2. Otitis media (in children) 3. Pneumonia 4. Sinusitis S. pneumoniae MOPS are Most OPtochin Sensitive |
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What is the most common cause of meningitis?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
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What is the most common cause of otitis media?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
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What is the most common cause of pneumonia?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
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What is the most common cause of sinusitis?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
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What is indicated by "rusty" sputum?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae infection
|
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What are common associations with Pneumococcus?
|
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
1. "Rusty" sputum 2. Sepsis in sickle cell anemia 3. splenectomy |
|
What does sepsin in sickle cell anemia indicate?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
What do Group B streptococci cause?
|
B for Baby
1. Pneumonia 2. Meningitis 3. Sepsis |
|
3 most common causes of meningitis in infants younger than 3 months of age
|
1. E. coli
2. Listeria monocytogenes 3. Group B streptococcus |
|
How do infants with meningitis present?
|
1. Fever
2. Vomiting 3. Poor feeding 4. Irritability |
|
Name the Lancefield Group D bacterial categories and examples of each.
|
Enterococci:
1. Enterococcus faecalis 2. Enterococcus faecium Non-enterococci 1. Streptococcus bovis 2. Streptococcus equinus |
|
What is Streptococcus bovis infection a sign of?
|
Colonic malignancy
|
|
What kind of hemolysis do enterococci cause?
|
Variable
(CMMRS says alpha; FA says variable and gamma) |
|
What drug resistances do the enterococci show?
|
1. Penicillin G
2. Ampicillin 3. Vancomycin |
|
What is Lancefield grouping determined by?
|
Differences in the C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall
|
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Which Group D bacteria are hardier?
|
Enterococci are hardier than nonenterococci. They can grow in 6.5% NaCl
|
|
A colony of bacteria grows in 6.5% NaCl. What is it?
|
Enterococcus
|
|
What disease states/problems does Staphylococcus epidermidis cause?
|
Infection of prosthetic devices and catheters. Contaminates blood cultures.
|
|
How is Streptococcus Viridans characterized?
|
1. Alpha hemolysis
2. Optochin resistant 3. Normal mouth flora (Mnemonic: Viridans lives in the mouth because it is not afraid of-the-chin) |
|
Where is Strep. Viridans part of the normal flora?
|
Oropharynx
|
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What disease states/problems does Streptococcus Viridans cause?
|
1. Dental caries (Streptococcus mutans)
2. Subacute Bacterial endocarditis (Streptococcus Sanguis) |
|
What disease states does Streptococcus mutans cause?
|
Dental caries
|
|
What disease states does Streptococcus sanguis cause?
|
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Sanguis = blood, lots of blood in the heart. |
|
How are clostridia characterized?
|
1. Gram positive rods
2. Spore forming 3. Obligate anaerobes |
|
What disease state does Clostridium difficile cause, and what is its mechanism?
|
Disease state: pseudomembranous colitis secondary to clindamycin or ampicillin use. (Mnemonic: DIfficile causes DIarrhea)
Mechanism: 1. Antibiotic kills off protective flora 2. C. difficile takes hold and proliferates 3. Produces cytotoxin, an enterotoxin. 4. Cytotoxin kills enterocytes. |
|
Treatment for C. difficile infection
|
Metronidazole
|
|
Lab diagnosis basis for Cornyebacterium diphtheriae
|
Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules, grown on tellurite agar (aka Loffler's coagulated serum medium)
|
|
How is Bacillus anthracis characterized?
|
1. Gram positive rod
2. Spore forming 3. Protein capsule |
|
Which bacteria have a protein capsule?
|
Bacillus anthracis (the only one)
|
|
What are the mechanisms of anthrax infection and disease?
|
1. Non-inhalation contact with bacillus anthracis
2. Formation of malignant pustule (painless ulcer) 3. Progression to bacteremia 4. Death 1. Inhalation of spores 2. Development of flulike symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage and shock. |
|
What organism: Development of flulike symptoms followed by fever, pulmonary hemorrhage and shock.
|
Inhalation anthrax: Bacillus anthracis
|
|
What do skin lesions in anthrax look like?
|
Vesicular papules covered by black eschar
|
|
What is Woolsorter's disease
|
Inhalation of Bacillus anthracis spores from contaminated wool
|
|
What organism: Gram-positive rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi
|
Actinomyces israelii or Nocardia asteroides
|
|
What organism: Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules in sinus tracts
|
Actinomyces israelii
|
|
What disease state does Actinomyces israelii cause?
|
Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules draining out skin through sinus tracts
|
|
How is Actinomyces israelii characterised?
|
Gram-positive anaerobic rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Nocardia also has this description)
Causes oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules |
|
How is Nocardia asteroides characterized?
|
Gram-positive (weakly acid fast) rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Actinomyces also has this description)
|
|
What disease state does Nocardia asteroides cause?
|
Pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patients
|
|
What is the treatment for Actinomyces israelii?
|
Penicillin
Mnemonic: SNAP (Sulfa for Nocardia; Acintomyces use Penicillin) |
|
What is the treatment for Nocardia Asteroides?
|
Sulfonamides
Mnemonic: SNAP (Sulfa for Nocardia; Acintomyces use Penicillin) |
|
Penicillin G and Gram negative bugs
|
Gram-negatives are resistant to benzyl penicillin G. The gram-negative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of penicillin G and vancomycin.
May be susceptible to penicillin derivatives such as ampicillin. |
|
What bacteria genus can live in neutrophils?
|
Neisseria
|
|
How are neisseria characterized?
|
Gram-negative cocci that resemble paired coffee beans
|
|
Gonococcus and meningococcus: Polysaccharide capsule
|
G: No
M: Yes |
|
Gonococcus and meningococcus: Maltose fermentation
|
G: No (Gonococcus ferments Glucose)
M: Yes (MeninGococcus ferments Maltose and Glucose) |
|
Gonococcus and meningococcus: Vaccine availability
|
G: No
M: Yes |
|
What disease states does Gonococcus cause?
|
1. Gonorrhea
2. septic arthritis 3. neonatal conjunctivitis 4. PID |
|
What disease states does Meningococcus cause?
|
1. Meningococcemia
2. Meningitis 3. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome |
|
What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
|
massive, usually bilateral, hemorrhage into the adrenal glands caused by fulminant meningococcemia.
Characterised by overwhelming bacterial infection, rapidly progressive hypotension leading to shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) with widespread purpura, particularly of the skin, and rapidly developing adrenocortical insufficiency associated with massive bilateral adrenal hemorrhage. |
|
What disease states does Haemophilus Influenzae cause?
|
HaEMOPhilus causes
1. Epiglottitis 2. Meningitis 3. Otitis media 4. Pneumonia Does not cause flu (that's a virus)! |
|
How is Haemophilus Influenzae characterized?
|
Small gram-negative coccoid rod.
|
|
How is Haemophilus Influenzae transmitted?
|
Aerosol
|
|
Which type of Haemophilus Influenzae is most pathogenic?
|
capsular type B
|
|
Treatment for Haemophilus Influenzae meningitis
|
Ceftriaxone
|
|
Prophylaxis for Hemophilus Influenzae
|
Vaccine: Type B polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein. Given between 2 and 18 months of age.
Close contacts of infected person: Rifampin |
|
How are enterobacteriaceae characterized?
|
Gram negative diverse group
Mnemonic: COFFEe 3. Capsule (K [kapsular] antigen related to virulence of the bug) 2. O antigen (somatic antigen which is the polysaccharide of endotoxin) 4. Flagella (H antigen found in motile species) 5. Ferment glucose 6. Enterobacteriaceae (woo!) |
|
Enterobacteriaceae list
|
1. Escherichia coli
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae 3. Proteus mirablis 4. Enterobacter sp. 5. Serratia 6. Shigella 7. Salmonella 8. Yersinia enterocolitica |
|
What disease states does Klebsiella cause?
|
1. Pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics (In the name: Klebsiella pneumoniae)
2. Nosocomial UTIs (large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies) Mnemonic: AAA (Aspiration pneumonia, Abscess in lungs, Alcoholics) |
|
Signs and symptoms of Klebsiella infection
|
1. Red currant jelly sputum
2. Abscess in lungs |
|
Orange sputum: What bugs?
|
1. Pneumococcus
2. Klebsiella (or described as "red currant jelly sputum") |
|
Red currant jelly sputum: What bug?
|
Klebsiella
|
|
Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria
|
Mnemonic: Test lactose with MacConKEE’S.
1. Citrobacter 2. Klebsiella 3. E. coli 4. Enterobacter 5. Serratia |
|
Salmonella vs. Shigella: Lactose fermenter?
|
Neither
|
|
Salmonella vs. Shigella: Motile
|
Both (Though, the evidence that shigella is motile is recent.)
Can invade and disseminate hematogenously. |
|
Salmonella vs. Shigella: Animal reservoir
|
Salmonella: Yes
Shigella: No |
|
Shigella transmission
|
4 Fs:
1. Food 2. Fingers 3. Feces 4. Flies |
|
Salmonella vs. Shigella: Virulence
|
Salmonella: 100,000 organisms
Shigella: 10 organisms |
|
True or False: Salmonellosis symptoms may be prolonged with antibiotic treatments
|
True
|
|
What type of inflammatory response is seen in Salmonellosis?
|
Monocytes
|
|
Transmission of Yersinia enterocolitica
|
1. Pet feces (eg puppies)
2. Contaminated milk or pork |
|
Yersinia enterocolitica infection: Clinical presentation
|
1. Outbreaks are common in day-care centers
2. Can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis |
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Seafood
|
Vibrio:
1. parahaemolyticus 2. vulnificus |
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated rice
|
Bacillus cereus
Mnem: "Food poisoning from reheated rice? Be serious!" |
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Meat
|
1. Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly)
2. Salmonella (including poultry) 3. Clostridium perfringens (reheated meat dishes) 4. Vibrio (parahaemolyticus, vulnificus) (in seafood) 5. E. coli O157:H7 (undercooked meat) 6. Clostridium Botulinum (in sausage) |
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Mayonnaise
|
Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly)
|
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Custard
|
Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly)
|
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated meat
|
Clostridium perfringens
Mnem: "Food poisoning from reheated meat? Clostridium perfringens!" |
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Bulging cans
|
Clostridium botulinum
(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage) |
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Sausage
|
Clostridium botulinum
(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage) |
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Honey
|
Clostridium botulinum
(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage) |
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Poultry
|
Salmonella
|
|
What bug causes contamination of this food: Eggs
|
Salmonella
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio parahaemolyticus
|
Either bloody or watery
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Campylobacter
|
Bloody
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Salmonella
|
Bloody
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Shigella
|
Bloody
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
|
Bloody
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enteroinvasive E. coli
|
Bloody
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Yersinia enterocolitica
|
Bloody
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. difficile
|
Bloody
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Entamoeba histolytica
|
Bloody
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterotoxigenic E. coli
|
Watery
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio cholerae
|
Watery
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. perfringens
|
Watery
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Protozoa
|
Watery
|
|
Bloody or watery diarrhea: Viruses
|
Watery
|
|
Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with oxidase-positive comma or S-shaped organisms grown at 42 degrees celsius
|
Campylobacter
|
|
Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with motile, lactose negative gram negative bugs
|
Salmonella or Shigella
Shigella have a very low ID50 and cause dysentery |
|
Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with schistocytes and azotemia
|
Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7)
Caused by shiga-like toxin |
|
Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with hemolytic uremic syndrome
|
Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7)
Caused by shiga-like toxin |
|
Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pathologic section revealing bacteria invading colonic mucosa
|
Enteroinvasive E. coli
|
|
Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with symptoms of appendicitis
|
Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea in a day care center
|
Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pseudomembranous colitis
|
Clostridium dificile
|
|
Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with protozoans
|
Entamoeba histolytica
|
|
Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in someone who just visited Mexico
|
Enterotoxigenic E coli (no preformed toxin)
|
|
Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with comma-shaped organisms
|
Vibrio cholerae
|
|
Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with appearance of rice water
|
Vibrio cholerae
|
|
Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with gangrenous leg
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in an immunocompromised patient
|
Protozoa (eg Giardia or Cryptosporidium)
|
|
Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea
|
Think viruses first.
Rotavirus Adenovirus Norwalk virus |
|
Difference between mechanisms of cholera and pertussis toxins
|
Cholera: Permanently activates Gs (turns the "on" on)
Pertussis: Permanently disables Gi (turns the "off" off) |
|
What is edema factor?
|
A toxin in the Bacillus Anthracis exotoxin complex that functions as adenylyl cyclase
|
|
Disease states caused by Legionella (list only)
|
1. Asymptomatic infection
2. Pontiac fever 3. Legionnaires disease |
|
Describe Pontiac fever
|
Caused by Legionella. Presents like influenza. Strikes suddenly and completely resolves in one week. Originally described in the Pontiac Michigan government AC.
|
|
Describe Legionnaires' disease
|
Very high fever with severe pneumonia
|
|
Treatment for Legionella
|
Has a beta-lacatamase (penicillin-resistant)
1. Erythromycin 2. Rifampin |
|
Diagnosis: Pneumonia in a smoker >50 years of age. Gram stain of pus shows many neutrophils with few microbes.
|
Legionella
|
|
Special culture requirements for: Legionella
|
Grows on charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and cysteine
Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet, sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with a canteen of water (water transmission) and his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine). |
|
Legionella: Gram stain
|
Gram negative. Gram stains poorly (use silver stain)
Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet, sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine). |
|
Legionella: How transmitted?
|
Aerosol transmission from environmental water sources (AC, Showers, whirlpools, cooling towers, supermarket produce mist)
Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet, sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with a canteen of water (water transmission) and his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine). |
|
Pseudomonas: Disease states
|
PSEUDDOburnnas
1. Pneumonia (especially in CF) 2. Sepsis (black lesions on skin) 3. External otitis (swimmer's ear) 4. UTI (nosocomial and drug-resistant) 5. Drug use 6. Diabetic Osteomyelitis 7. Burns and wound infections 8. Hot tub folliculitis |
|
Pseudomonas: Organism characterization
|
1. Gram-negative rod
2. non-lactose fermenting 3. Aerobic (think AERuginosa) and oxidase positive (cytochrome c oxidase for oxidative phosphorylation) 4. Produces pyocyanin (blue-green) pigment 5. Fruity odor |
|
What to know about exotoxins produced by: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
Exotoxin A is an ADP ribosylating A-B toxin (similar to Diphtheria toxin)
Mechanism: Inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF-2) Also has endotoxin (as it is gram negative) which produces fever and shock. |
|
Diagnosis: Sepsis in burn victim
|
Most likely Pseudomonas
|
|
Treatment for pseudomonas
|
Aminoglycoside
plus Extended-spectrum penicillin (eg piperacillin, ticarcillin) |
|
Helicobacter pylori: Disease states
|
Causes:
1. Gastritis 2. 90% of duodenal ulcers Risk factor for: 1. Peptic ulcer 2. Gastric carcinoma |
|
Helicobacter pylori: Characterization
|
1. Gram negative rod
2. Urease-positive 3. Creates alkaline environment |
|
Treatment for Helicobacter Pylori
|
Triple treatment
1. Metronidazole with one of the two combos below $: 2. Bismuth (eg Pepto-Bismol) 3. Either Tetracycline or Amoxicillin $$: 2. Omeprazole 3. Clarithromycin |
|
What bug?: Urease-positive gram-negative bacteria
|
Proteus and H. Pylori
|
|
Zoonotic bacteria
|
1. Borrelia burdorferi
2. Francisella tularensis 3. Yersinia pestis 4. Pasteurella multocida 5. Brucella spp. (Undulant fever from dairy/contact with animals) Mnemonic: Bugs From Your Pet Undulate and Unpasteurized dairy gives you Undulant fever |
|
Borrelia burgdorferi: Disease states
|
Lyme disease
|
|
Brucella: Disease states
|
Undulant fever/Brucellosis. Temperature slowly rises during day, peaks in the evening, and slowly declines to normal by morning.
Accompanied by other systemic symptoms. |
|
Brucella: Transmission
|
from animal contact (meat worker, farmer, veterinarian) or unpasteurized milk
|
|
Gross mechanism of brucellosis
|
1. Penetration of skin (but no buboes or primary skin ulcer), conjunctiva, lungs, GI tract
2. Lymphatic spread 3. Facultative intracellular growth in macrophages, and blood and organ invasion |
|
Francisella Tularensis: Disease states (list)
|
Tularemia, either:
1. Pneumonic 2. Oculoglandular 3. Ulceroglandular 4. Typhoidal (Don't POUT when you've got tularemia.) |
|
Describe Ulceroglandular tularemia
|
a. Well-demarcated hole in the skin with a black base
b. Fever and systemic symptoms c. Swollen/red/painful purulent lymph nodes Similar to plague, but with skin ulcer, and low mortality. |
|
Francisella tularensis: Transmission
|
Most common: Handling of infected rabbits or from bites of ticks and deer flies
Hundred creatures in total all over US. Mnemonic: Francis the rabbit is playing in the TULips, with a deerfly on one ear and a tick on the other. |
|
Virulence of Francisella tularensis
|
Very. (10 organisms cause disease.)
|
|
Diagnosis of Francisella tularensis
|
Clinical picture, PPD-like skin test, and titers of Francisella Ig
|
|
Yersinia pestis: Transmission
|
PESTS like rats harbor the disease and fleas are the vector, biting the skin of humans. Found in campers, hunters, and hikers.
Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage. |
|
Fraction 1 (F1) antigen
|
Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after phagocytosis (facultative intracellular)
Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage. |
|
V antigen
|
Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after phagocytosis (facultative intracellular)
Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage. |
|
W antigen
|
Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after phagocytosis (facultative intracellular)
Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage. |
|
Yersinia pestis: Presentation in humans
|
1. Lymph node (usually inguinal [boubon is Greek for groin]) becomes inflamed (all four signs).
2. Fever, and headache. 3. Blackish discoloration under skin ("Black death") |
|
Disease states caused by Yersinia pestis
|
Bubonic plague/pneumonic plague
|
|
Pasteurella Multocida: Transmission
|
Cat, dog, and animal bites. Also infects birds.
Mnemonic: Cat and dog chasing a bird in a "Pasteur". |
|
T/F: All Zoonotic Gram negative bugs are facultative intracellular.
|
False. Pasteurella is not.
|
|
Pasteurella: Treatment
|
Do not suture wound after dog or cat bite/scratch. (Best breeding ground for Pasteurella)
Treat with penicillin or doxycycline. |
|
Gardnerella: Characterization
|
Pleomorphic, gram-variable rod.
|
|
What disease states does Gardnernella cause?
|
Vaginosis
1. Greenish vaginal discharge with fishy smell 2. Noninflammatory (nonpainful) 3. Mobiluncus (anaerobe) is also seen 4. Clue cells are visible (vaginal epithelium covered with bacteria) 5. Positive Whiff test |
|
Clue cell, indicative of Gardnerella vaginosis
|
What is this?
|
|
What does a positive PPD indicate?
|
1. Current infection
2. Past exposure 3. BCG vaccination |
|
What does a negative PPD indicate?
|
1. No infection
2. Anergy (due to: steroids, immunocompromise, malnutrition), inject candida/mumps vaccine into other arm. If still negative, anergic. |
|
Fast-fermenting lactose bacteria
|
Fast fermenters: (EEK! Too fast!)
1. E.coli 2. Enterobacter sp. 3. Klebsiella |
|
Slow fermenting lactose bacteria
|
Slow fermenters:
1. Serratia 2. Citrobacter 3. "Others" |
|
Tuberculosis infection: Gross mechanism
|
1. Inhaled aerosols from infected adults
2. Land in middle or lower lobes of lung (highest airflow) leading to small area of pneumonitis. 3. Bacteria enter macrophages, multiply, and spread hematogenously. |
|
Mechanism of asymptomatic primary TB
|
1. Cell-mediated defense walls off foci of bacteria in caseous granulomas
2. Granulomas heal with fibrosis, calcification and scar formation |
|
Difference between Ghon focus and Ghon complex
|
Ghon focus: Calcified tubercle in the middle or lower lung
Ghon complex: Ghon focus accompanied by perihilar or lobar lymph node calcified granulomas |
|
What is a Ranke complex?
|
Same as a Ghon complex: Ghon focus accompanied by perihilar or lobar lymph node calcified granulomas
|
|
Mechanism of symptomatic primary TB
|
1. Large caseous granulomas develop in the lungs/other organs.
2. In the lungs, caseous material liquifies, is extruded out the bronchi and leaves cavitary lesions behind. |
|
Mechanism of secondary Pulmonary TB
|
1. Infection occurs at apical areas of lung around the clavicles due to highest oxygen tension caused by decreased pulmonary circulation.
2. Infected areas grow, caseate, liquify and cavitate. |
|
TB reactivation sites
|
1. Pulmonary (Lung parenchyma)
2. Pleura 3. Pericardium 4. Scrofula (Cervical lymph nodes: most common extrapulmonary site worldwide) 5. Kidney (Sterile pyuria) 6. Thoracic and lumbar spine (Pott's disease) 7. Chronic monoarthritis 8. CNS (subacute meningitis or parenchymal tuberculoma) 9. Miliary TB (Millet sized tubercles all over the body) |
|
Tuberculosis rule of 5s
|
1. Droplet nuclei are 5 micrometers and contain 5 mycobacteria
2. 5% risk of reactivation in first 2 years and then 5% lifetime risk 3. Patients with HIV ("High five") have 5+5% yearly reactivation risk. 4. Induration measurements a. HIV: >5 mm b. High risk: >5+5 mm c. Everyone else: >5+5+5 mm |
|
Cause of Miliary tuberculosis
|
Severe bacteremia
|
|
Types of Mycobacteria and what they cause
|
Mnemonic: Identifying mycobacteria is no Light TASK
Mycobacterium 1. Leprae 2. Tuberculosis 3. Avium-intracellulare 4. Scrofulaceum 5. Kansasii |
|
What disease state does Mycobacterium Avium-intracellulare cause?
|
bugs are multiple drug resistant and cause disseminated disease in AIDS
|
|
Symptoms of tuberculosis
|
1. Fever
2. Night sweats 3. Weight loss 4. Hemoptysis |
|
Two Langhans type giant cells in which the nuclei are lined up around the periphery of the cell in a horseshoe pattern.
Seen in granulomatous conditions like TB |
What is this?
|
|
What is Hansen's disease?
|
leprosy
|
|
What is leprosy caused by?
|
Mycobacterium leprae
|
|
Characterization and reservoir of Mycobacterium Leprae
|
1. Acid fast bacillus
2. Likes cool temperatures 3. Infects skin and superficial nerves 4. Cannot be grown invitro 5. Reservoir: Armadillos |
|
Presentation of lepromatous leprosy
|
"Leonine facies"
1. Loss of eyebrows 2. Nasal collapse 3. Lumpy earlobe |
|
Treatment for leprosy
|
Long-term oral dapsone
Alternative: Rifampin, clofazimine, and dapsone |
|
Toxicity of longterm oral dapsone
|
1. Hemolysis
2. Methemoglobinemia |
|
2 forms of leprosy
|
1. Lepromatous (Due to failed cell-mediated immunity. Lep. is Lethal)
2. Tuberculoid (self=limiting) |
|
Rickettsiae: Characterization
|
Obligate intracellular parasites. Need CoA and NAD.
|
|
Rickettsiae: Transmission and presentation
|
Coxiella: Atypical. Transmitted by aerosol and causes pneumonia
All others: Arthropod vector causes classic triad of headache, fever and rash (vasculitis) |
|
Treatment of Rickettsiae
|
Tetracycline
|
|
Difference between spread of rash in typhus and spotted fever
|
tyPHus is centriPHugal (moves outwards)
sPotted fever is centriPetal (moves inwards) Both are caused by Rickettsiae |
|
Which bug causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
|
Rickettsia rickettsii, transmitted by tick
|
|
Which bug causes endemic typhus?
|
Rickettsia typhi, transmitted by fleas
|
|
Which bug causes epidemic typhus?
|
Rickettsia prowazekii, transmitted by human body louse
|
|
Which bug causes typhus?
|
Endemic: Rickettsia typhi, transmitted by fleas
Epidemic: Rickettsia prowazekii, transmitted by human body louse |
|
Which bug causes Q fever?
|
Coxiella burnetii, by inhaled aerosols from cowhide and placentas.
Remember: Carol Burnett coughing "Q" after inhaling spores from cowhide. |
|
What separates Q fever from other rickettsial diseases?
|
Q fever is *****. Rickettsial, but has an endospore, thus:
1. Caused by Coxiella burnetii (not called Rickettsia) 2. No rash 3. No vector (inhaled aerosols) 4. Negative Weil-Felix 5. Causative organism can survive outside for a long time. |
|
Difference in tropism between Chlamydia and Rickettsia
|
Rickettsia: Endothelial cells of blood vessels
Chlamydia: Columnar epithelium |
|
Where is the rash in Rocky Mountain spotted fever found?
|
Palms and soles, migrating to wrists, ankles, then trunk.
|
|
Where can rashes on the palms and soles of feet be seen?
|
1. Rocky mountain spotted fever
2. Syphilis 3. Coxsackie virus A infection (hand, foot, and mouth disease) |
|
Weil-Felix reaction
|
Assays for antirickettsial antibodies, which cross-react with Proteus antigen
|
|
Typhus: positive or negative Weil-Felix
|
positive
|
|
Rocky mountain spotted fever: positive or negative Weil-Felix
|
positive
|
|
Q fever: positive or negative Weil-Felix
|
negative
|
|
What bug: Atypical walking pneumonia in prisoner or military recruit younger than 30
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
|
Describe mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia
|
1. Atypical walking pneumonia (insidious onset, headache, non productive cough, diffuse interstitial infiltrate)
2. X-ray looks worse than patient 3. High titer of cold agglutinins (IgM) |
|
Special culture requirements for: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
Eaton's agar
|
|
Treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
Tetracycline or erythromycin.
Pencillin resistant because they have no cell wall. |
|
Characterization of Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
1. Facultative anaerobe with no cell wall (hence no gram stain)
2. Only bacterial membrane with cholesterol 3. High titer of cold agglutinins 4. Grown on Eaton's agar |
|
True or False: No Gram-positive bugs have endotoxin.
|
False. Listeria monocytogenes has it.
|
|
Characterize Chlamydia
|
Obligate intracellular parasites
|
|
2 forms of chlamydia
|
1. Elementary body (small, dense) which Enters cell via endocytosis
2. Initial or Reticulate body, which Replicates In cell by fission |
|
Disease states caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
|
1. Reactive arthritis (aka Reiter's syndrome)
2. Conjunctivitis 3. Non-gonococcal urethritis, cervicitis, and PID |
|
Disease states caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae
|
Atypical pneumonia
|
|
Disease states caused by Chlamydia psittaci
|
Atypical pneumonia
|
|
Chlamydia species
|
1. Trachomatis
2. Pneumoniae 3. Psittaci |
|
What is unusual about the chlamydial wall?
|
It lacks muramic acid.
|
|
Treatment of Chlamydia
|
Erythromycin or tetracycline
|
|
Reservoir for Chlamydia psittaci
|
Avian
|
|
Which chlamydia has an animal reservoir?
|
Psittaci: Avian
|
|
Lab diagnosis of chlamydia
|
Cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or fluorescent-antibody stained smear
|
|
What disease is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes A-C
|
1. Chronic infection
2. Blindness in Africa Mnemonic: ABC: Africa, Blindness, Chronic infection |
|
What disease is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes D-K
|
1. Urethritis/PID
2. Ectopic pregnancy 3. Neonatal pneumonia 4. Neonatal conjunctivitis |
|
What disease is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes L1-L3
|
Lymphogranuloma venereum
1. acute lymphadenitis with a positive Frei test 2. ulcers 3. rectal strictures Mnemonic: L1-3: Lymphogranuloma |
|
Positive Frei test
|
Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes L1-L3
|
|
Acquisition and treatment of neonatal conjunctivitis
|
Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K acquired by passage through infected birth canal. Treat with erythromycin eye drops.
|
|
Characterization of spirochetes
|
Spiral-shaped bacteria with axial filaments
|
|
List of spirochetes
|
Mnemonic: BLT with spiral bacon
1. Borrelia (Big!) 2. Leptospira 3. Treponema |
|
Visualization of Borrelia
|
Light microscopy with choice of aniline dye:
1. Wright's stain 2. Giemsa's stain |
|
Stages of Lyme disease
|
1. Erythema chronicum migrans and flu-like symptoms
2. Neurologic and cardiac manifestations 3. Autoimmune migratory polyarthritis |
|
Signs and symptoms of Lyme disease
|
Mnemonic: BAKE a Key Lime pie
1. Bell's palsy (and other CNS manifestations in Stage 2) 2. Arthritis (Autoimmune migratory in Stage 3) 3. Kardiac block (Stage 2) 4. Erythema chronicum migrans (Stage 1) |
|
What species transmits Borrelia burgdorferi to humans?
|
Ixodes tick. Live o
|
|
Classic symptom of Lyme disease and which stage is it in?
|
Erythema chronicum migrans, an expanding "bull's eye" red rash with central clearing. Stage 1.
|
|
Animal reservoirs for borrelia burgdorferi
|
White-footed mouse and other small rodens, and the white-tailed deer. Ixodes tick picks up bugs from these animals and transmits them.
|
|
Most common setting for Borrelia burgdorferi infection
|
In the summer months in northeastern US (Lyme, CT)
|
|
What disease states does Treponema cause?
|
Treponema Pallidum causes syphilis.
Treponema Pertenue causes yaws (a non-STD tropical infection with positive VDRL) |
|
What is yaws?
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Treponema Pertenue causes yaws (a non-STD tropical infection with positive VDRL)
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Presentation of primary syphilis
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Painless chancre (localized disease)
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What stage of syphilis: Painless chancre (localized disease)
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Primary
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Presentation of secondary syphilis
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Disseminated disease with:
1. constitutional symptoms (fever, lymphadenopathy) 2. maculopapular rash (palms and soles) 3. condylomata lata Mnemonic: Secondary means Systemic |
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What stage of syphilis: Disseminated disease with constitutional symptoms
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Secondary syphilis
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Presentation of tertiary syphilis
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1. Gummas
2. Aortitis 3. Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis, general paresis) 4. Argyll Robertson pupil |
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What stage of syphilis: Gummas
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tertiary syphilis
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What stage of syphilis: Aortitis
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tertiary syphilis
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What stage of syphilis: Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)
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tertiary syphilis
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What stage of syphilis: Argyll Robertson pupil
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tertiary syphilis
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What stage of syphilis: maculopapular rash (palms and soles)
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Secondary syphilis
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What stage of syphilis: condylomata lata
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Secondary syphilis
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Presentation of Congenital syphilis
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1. Saber shins
2. Saddle nose 3. Deafness |
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What stage of syphilis: Saber shins
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Congenital syphilis (not a stage)
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What stage of syphilis: Saddle nose
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Congenital syphilis (not a stage)
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What stage of syphilis: Deafness
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Congenital syphilis (not a stage)
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Treatment for Syphilis
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Penicillin G
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Signs and symptoms of tertiary syphilis
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1. Broad-based ataxia
2. Positive Romberg sign 3. Charcot joints 4. Stroke without hypertension |
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What is an Argyll-Robertson pupil?
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Same as prostitute's pupil. Constricts with accommodation but is not reactive to light. Pathognomonic for tertiary syphilis.
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What is the prostitute's pupil.
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Same as Argyll-Robertson pupil. Constricts with accommodation but is not reactive to light. Pathognomonic for tertiary syphilis.
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What is FTA-ABS used for?
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FTA-ABS: Find the Antibody-Absolutely
1. Most specific for treponemes 2. Positive the earliest 3. Remains positive the longest |
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Interpret: Positive VDRL, Positive FTA
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Active treponemal infection
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Interpret: Positive VDRL, Negative FTA
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Probably false positive
VDRL 1. Viruses (mono, hepatitis) 2. Drugs 3. Rheumatic fever and rheumatoid arthritis 4. Lupus and leprosy |
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Interpret: Negative VDRL, Positive FTA
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Successfully treated treponemal infection
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Sexuality of fungal spores
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Asexual (mostly)
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Which fungal infections are transmitted by inhalation of asexual spores?
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1. Coccidioidomycosis
2. Histoplasmosis |
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What are conidia?
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Asexual fungal spores
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What disease states does Candida albicans cause?
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1. Thrush esophagitis in immunocompromised patients (neonates, steroids, diabetes, AIDS)
2. endocarditis in IV drug users 3. vaginitis post-antibiotic use 4. diaper rash 5. Disseminated candidiasis to any organ 6. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis |
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Treatment for Candida Albicans infection
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Superficial: Nystatin
Serious systemic: Amphotericin B |
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Histologic appearance of Candida Albicans
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Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20 degrees celsius
Germ tube formation at 37 degrees celsius |
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Candida albicans: Germ tube formation at 37 degrees celsius
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What is this?
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Candida albicans: Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20 degrees celsius
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What is this?
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Which fungus causes thrush in immunocompromised
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Candida albicans
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Which fungus causes vulvovaginitis?
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Candida albicans (high pH, diabetes, use of antibiotics)
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Which fungus is endemic to Southwestern US?
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Coccidioidomycosis
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Which fungus is endemic to Mississippi and Ohio river valleys
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Histoplasmosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Southern Ohio
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Histoplasmosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Southern Illinois
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Histoplasmosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Missouri
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Histoplasmosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Kentucky
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Histoplasmosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Tennessee
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Histoplasmosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Arkansas
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Histoplasmosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Southern California
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Coccidiomycosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Southern Arizona
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Coccidiomycosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Mississippi river valley
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Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)
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What fungus is this area known for: Ohio river valley
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Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)
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What fungus is this area known for: Southwestern US
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Coccidiomycosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Rural Latin America
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Paracoccidioidomycosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Wisconsin
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Blastomycosis
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What fungus is this area known for: Minnesota
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Blastomycosis
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Spherule filled with endospores in coccidioidomycosis
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What is this?
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Characterize histoplasmosis histologically
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Tiny yeast inside macrophages. Thin cell wall with no true capsule.
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What is the vector for histoplasmosis?
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Bird or bat droppings
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What do bird and bat droppings carry?
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Histoplasmosis
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histoplasmosis showing intracellular organisms in bone marrow macrophages
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What is this?
|
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Paracoccidioidomycosis (captain's wheel appearance)
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What is this?
|
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Blastomycosis (Big, Broad-Based Budding)
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What is this?
|
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What characterizes dimorphic fungi?
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Mold in soil (lower temperature) and yeast in tissue (body temperature)
Mnemonic: Cold is mold, heat is yeast |
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List the dimorphic fungi
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Histoplasmosis, Blastomycosis, and Paracoccidioidomycosis (but not coccidioidomycosis which is a spherule in tissue)
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Treatment for coccidiomycosis
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Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole
Systemic: Amphotericin B |
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Treatment for paracoccidiomycosis
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Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole
Systemic: Amphotericin B |
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Treatment for Histoplasmosis
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Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole
Systemic: Amphotericin B |
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Treatment for Blastomycosis
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Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole
Systemic: Amphotericin B |
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What is cultured on Sabouraud's agar?
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Fungi (specifically dimorphic fungi)
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What disease state does Malassezia furfur cause?
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Tinea versicolor: Hypopigmented skin lesions which occur in hot humid weather.
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Treatment for Tinea versicolor
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Topical miconazole or selenium sulfide (Selsun)
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What resembles spaghetti and meatballs histologically?
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combination of mycelium strands and numerous spores of Malassezia furfur in KOH prep
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What disease state does Cladosporium werneckii cause?
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Tinea nigra: Infection of keratinized layer of skin. Appears as brownish spot.
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What causes Tinea versicolor?
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Malassezia furfur
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What causes Tinea nigra?
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Cladosporium werneckii
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Treatment for Tinea nigra
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topical salicylic acid
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What are the common dermatophytes and what do they cause?
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Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton
cause all the tineas except for versicolor and nigra |
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What causes Tinea corporis?
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Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)
|
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What causes Tinea cruris?
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Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)
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What causes Tinea pedis?
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Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)
|
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What causes Tinea capitis?
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Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)
|
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What causes Tinea unguium?
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AKA Tinea onychomycosis.
Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton) |
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What causes Tinea onychomycosis?
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AKA Tinea unguium.
Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton) |
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How does Tinea corporis present?
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Ring shape with a red raised border
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How does Tinea cruris present?
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AKA jock itch
Itchy red patches on groin and scrotum |
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How does Tinea capitis present?
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Scaling on the scalp
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How does Tinea unguium/onychomycosis present?
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Nails are thickened discolored and brittle
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Lab diagnosis of dermatophyte infection
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1. Dissolve skin scrapings in KOH, which digests the keratin. Microscopic examination reveals branched hyphae.
2. Direct examination of skin with Wood's light (UV light at 365 nm wavelength) will fuoresce green if Microsporum. |
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Treatment for dermatophyte infection
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1. Topical imidazoles
2. Oral griseofulvin (Tinea capitus and tinea unguium) |
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What causes a fungus ball?
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Aspergillus
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What disease states does Aspergillus cause?
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1. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
2. Lung cavity aspergilloma 3. Invasive aspergillosis |
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Histologic appearance of aspergillus
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Mold (not dimorphic) with septate hyphae that branch at a V-shaped (45 degree) angle). Rare fruiting bodies.
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Aspergillus (septate hyphae branching at 45 degrees with fruiting bodies)
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What is this?
|
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What disease states does cryptococcus neoformans cause?
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1. Cryptococcal meningitis
2. Cryptococcosis |
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Histologic appearance of cryptococcus neoformans
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5-10 micrometer yeasts with wide capsular halo. Narrow based unequal budding.
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How is cryptococcus neoformans stained?
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1. India ink
2. Latex agglutination test for polysaccharide capsular antigen |
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Where is cryptococcus neoformans found?
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Soil and pigeon droppings.
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What is the histologic appearance of Mucor?
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Just like Rhizopus
Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees) |
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What is the histologic appearance of Rhizopus?
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Just like Mucor
Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees) |
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Which patients are likely to have Mucor/Rhizopus?
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1. Ketoacidotic diabetics
2. Leukemics |
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Where in the body does Mucor/Rhizopus proliferate?
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1. Walls of blood vessels, causing infarction of distal tissue
2. Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abscesses |
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What is pneumocystis jirovecii?
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Formerly pneumocystis carinii. Yeast (originally classified as a protozoan)
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What disease states does Pneumocystis cause?
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Most infection sasymptomatic. Immunosuppresion predisposes to disease.
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How is pneumocystis diagnosed?
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Lung biopsy or lavage. Methenamine silver stain of lung tissue.
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Treatment for pneumocystis
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Combination of TMP-SMX, Pentamidine, and Dapsone.
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Characterization of sporotrix schenckii
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Dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation.
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Presentation of sporotrichosis
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1. Traumatically introduced into the skin by a thorn
2. Local pustule/ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis) 3. Little systemic illness |
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What is rose gardener's disease?
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Sporotrichosis
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Histologic appearance of sporotrix schenckii
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Cigar-shaped yeast visible in pus with unequal budding
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Treatment for sporotrichosis
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Itraconazole or potassium iodide
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What disease states does Entamoeba histolytica cause?
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1. Amebiasis
2. Bloody diarrhea (dysentery) 3. liver abscess 4. RUQ pain |
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What disease states does Giardia lamblia cause?
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1. Giardiasis
2. Bloating 3. Flatulence 4. Foul-smelling diarrhea |
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What diseases are found in campers and hikers?
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Yersinia pestis and Giardia lamblia
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What disease states does Cryptosporidium cause?
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Diarrhea
1. AIDS: Severe 2. Non-HIV: Mild watery |
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What disease states does Toxoplasma cause?
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1. HIV: Brain abscess
2. Birth defects (ring-enhancing brain lesions) |
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What disease states does Plasmodium cause?
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Malaria:
1. Cyclic fever 2. Headache 3. Anemia 4. Splenomegaly 5. Severe cerebral malaria (with Plasmodium falciparum) |
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What disease states does Trichomonas cause?
|
Trichomonas vaginalis causes vaginitis with foul-smelling greenish discharge, strawberry-colored mucosa, and itching and burning. Motile on wet prep.
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What disease states does Trypanosoma cruzi cause?
|
Chagas' disease:
1. Dilated cardiomyopathy 2. Megacolon 3. Megaesophagus |
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What disease states does Trypanosoma gambiense cause?
|
African sleeping sickness
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What disease states does Trypanosoma rhodesiense cause?
|
African sleeping sickness
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What disease states does Leishmania donovani cause?
|
Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar or black fever):
fever, weight loss, anaemia and substantial swelling of the liver and spleen |
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What disease states does Naegleria cause?
|
Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis
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What disease states does Babesia cause?
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Babesiosis: Fever and anemia
|
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Which protozoa are transmitted by cysts?
|
1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Giardia lamblia 3. Cryptosporidium 4. Toxoplasma All water cysts except Toxo (cysts in meat or cat feces) |
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Which protozoa are transmitted by insect?
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1. Plasmodium (Anophales mosquitoes)
2. Trypanosoma cruzi (Reduviid bug) 3. Other trypanosomas (Tsetse fly) 4. Leishmania (Sandfly) 5. Babesia (Ixodes tick) |
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Which protozoa are transmitted by swimming in freshwater lakes?
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Naeglaria (via cribriform plate)
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Which protozoa are transmitted sexually?
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Trichomonas vaginalis
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Which protozoa are transmitted by mosquito?
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Plasmodium
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Which protozoa are transmitted by reduviid bug?
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Trypanosoma cruzi (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))
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Which protozoa are transmitted by tsetse fly?
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Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))
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Which protozoa are transmitted by sandfly?
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Leishmania
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Which protozoa are transmitted by ixodes tick?
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Babesia
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How do you diagnose: Giardia lamblia
|
Trophozoites or cysts in stool (classic pair shaped organism with double nuclei like owl eyes)
|
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How do you diagnose: Entamoeba histolytica
|
1. Trophozoites or cysts in stool
AND/OR 2. Serology |
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How do you diagnose: Cryptosporidium
|
Cysts on acid-fast stain
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How do you diagnose: Toxoplasma
|
Serology, biopsy
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How do you diagnose: Plasmodium
|
Blood smear
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How do you diagnose: Trypanosoma
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Blood smear
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How do you diagnose: Babesia
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Blood smear, no RBC pigment, appears as "maltese cross"
|
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How do you diagnose: Leishmania
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Macrophages containing amastigotes
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How do you diagnose: Naegleria
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Amebas in spinal fluid
|
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Treatment for: Entameba histolytica
|
Metronidazole and iodoquinol
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Treatment for: Giardia lamblia
|
Metronidazole
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Treatment for: Trichomonas vaginalis
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Metronidazole
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Treatment for: Cryptosporidium
|
None
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Treatment for: Naegleria
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None
|
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Treatment for: Plasmodium
|
1. Choloroquine
2. additonal Primaquine (for P. vivax and P. ovale to prevent relapse or liver damage) 3. sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine 4. Mefloquine 5. Quinine |
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Treatment for: Trypanosoma cruzi
|
Nifurtimox
|
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Treatment for: Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense
|
If blood-borne, suramin.
If CNS penetration, melarsoprol. |
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Treatment for: Leishmania
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Sodium stibogluconate
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Treatment for: Babesia
|
Qunine, clindamycin
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Treatment for: Toxoplasma
|
Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine
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Type of bug: Candida albicans
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Dimorphic fungus, cutaneous OR systemic infection
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Type of bug: Coccidioides immitis
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Monomorphic fungus, systemic infection
|
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Type of bug: Histoplasma capsulatum
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Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection
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Type of bug: Blastomyces dermatidis
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Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection
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Type of bug: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
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Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection
|
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Type of bug: Malassezia furfur
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Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection
|
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Type of bug: Cladosporium werneckii
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Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection
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Type of bug: Microsporum
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Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection
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Type of bug: Trichophyton
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Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection
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Type of bug: Epidermophyton
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Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection
|
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Type of bug: Aspergillus fumigatus
|
Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection
|
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Type of bug: Cryptococcus neoformans
|
Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection
|
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Type of bug: Mucor
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Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection
|
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Type of bug: Rhizopus
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Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection
|
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Type of bug: Pneumocystis jirovecii
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Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection
|
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Type of bug: Sporothrix schenckii
|
Dimorphic fungus, subcutaneous infection with some lymphatic spread
|
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Type of bug: Entamoeba histolytica
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Protozoan
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Type of bug: Giardia lamblia
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Protozoan
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Type of bug: Naegleria
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Protozoan
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Type of bug: Plasmodium
|
Protozoan
|
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Type of bug: Cryptosporidium
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Protozoan
|
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Type of bug: Toxoplasma
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Protozoan
|
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Type of bug: Trichomonas
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Protozoan
|
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Type of bug: Trypanosoma
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Protozoan
|
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Type of bug: Leishmania
|
Protozoan
|
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Type of bug: Babesia
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Protozoan
|
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Type of bug: Taenia solium
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Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)
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Type of bug: Echinococcus granulosus
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Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)
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Type of bug: Schistosoma
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Helminth: Trematode (fluke)
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Type of bug: Clonorchis sinensis
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Helminth: Trematode (fluke)
|
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Type of bug: Paragonimus westermani
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Helminth: Trematode (fluke)
|
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Type of bug: Ancylostoma duodenale
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Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
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Type of bug: Ascaris lumbricoides
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Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
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Type of bug: Enterobius vermicularis
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Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
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Type of bug: Strongyloides stercolaris
|
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
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Type of bug: Trichinella spiralis
|
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
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Type of bug: Dracunculus medinensis
|
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
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Type of bug: Loa loa
|
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
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Type of bug: Onchocera volvulus
|
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
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Type of bug: Toxocara canis
|
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
|
Type of bug: Wuchereria bancrofti
|
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
|
|
Type of bug: Treponema
|
Spirochete
|
|
Which worm: Undercooked pork
|
1. Taenia solium (tapeworm)
2. Trichinella spiralis (roundworm) |
|
Which worm: Brain cysts
|
Taenia solium (tapeworm)
|
|
Which worm: Liver cysts
|
Echniococcus granulosus (tapeworm)
|
|
Important points about echinococcus granulosus
|
Tapeworm (Cestode)
1. Ingested eggs from dog feces 2. Liver cysts 3. Cysts release antigens and cause anaphylaxis |
|
Taenia solium: Treatment
|
Praziquantel/niclosamide. Albendazole for cysticercosis
|
|
Echinococcus granulosus: Treatment
|
Albendazole
|
|
Characterization of Schistosoma
|
Fluke (Trematode)
1. Hosted by snails 2. Penetrate skin of humans |
|
Presentation of Schistosoma
|
Spleen and liver:
1. Granulomas 2. Fibrosis 3. Inflammation |
|
Schistosoma: Treatment
|
Praziquantel
|
|
Which worm: Portal hypertension
|
Schistosoma mansoni
|
|
Which worm: Hematuria
|
Schistosoma haematobium
|
|
Which worm: Bladder cancer
|
Schistosoma haematobium
|
|
Important points about Clonorchis sinensis
|
Fluke (trematode)
1. Undercooked fish 2. Inflammation of biliary tract |
|
Which worm: Undercooked fish
|
Clonorchis sinensis
|
|
Clonorchis sinensis: Treatment
|
Praziquantel
|
|
Which worm: B12 deficiency
|
Diphyllobothrium latum (tapeworm)
|
|
Which worm: Undercooked crab meat
|
Paragonimus westermani (fluke)
|
|
Important points about Pargonimus westermani
|
Trematode (fluke)
1. Undercooked crabmeat 2. Inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung 3. Hemoptysis |
|
Which worm: Hemoptysis
|
Paragonimus westermani (fluke)
|
|
Paragonimus westermani: Treatment
|
Praziquantel
|
|
Which worm: Microcytic anemia
|
Ancylostoma (aka hookworm) and Necator (both roundworms)
|
|
Which worm: Perianal pruritus
|
Enterobius vermicularis (aka pinworm, a roundworm)
|
|
Important points about Ancylostoma duodenale
|
Nematode (roundworm)
1. Aka hookworm 2. Larvae penetrate skin of feet 3. Intestinal infection can cause anemia |
|
Ancylostoma duodenale: Treatment
|
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
|
|
Important points about Ascaris lumbricoides
|
Nematode (roundworm)
1. Aka giant roundworm (Up to 1 foot in length!) 2. Eggs are visible in feces. 3. Intestinal infection |
|
Ascaris lumbricoides: Treatment
|
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
|
|
Important points about Enterobius vermicularis
|
Nematode (roundworm)
1. Aka pinworm 2. Food contaminated with eggs 3. Intestinal infection 4. Anal pruritus (scotch tape test) |
|
Enterobius vermicularis: Treatment
|
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
|
|
Important points about Strongyloides stercoralis
|
Nematode (roundworm)
1. Larvae in soil penetrate the skin 2. Intestinal infection |
|
Strongyloides stercoralis: treatment
|
Ivermectin/thiabendazole
|
|
Important points about Trichinella spiralis
|
Roundworm (nematode)
1. Undercooked meat, usually pork 2. Inflammation of muscle 3. Periorbital edema |
|
Trichinella spiralis: Treatment
|
Thiabendazole
|
|
Important points about Dracunculus medinensis
|
Nematode (roundworm)
1. In drinking water 2. Skin inflammation and ulceration |
|
Dracunculus medinensis: Treatment
|
Niridazole
|