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1958 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?
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Thyroid gland
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Is an afferent or efferent pupillary defect described as B/L pupillary constriction when light is shined in the unaffected eye and B/L paradoxical dilation when light is shined in the affected eye?
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Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an efferent pupillary defect (CN III)
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What is the name of the spinal cord passing within the subarachnoid space and forming the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?
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Cauda equina
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Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Pulls the arytenoids cartilages closer to the thyroid
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relaxing the vocal ligaments and thereby decreasing the pitch
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Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Tenses the vocal ligaments
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increasing the distance between the cartilages
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Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Adducts the vocal ligaments
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closes the air passageway during swallowing
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Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Only muscle to abduct the vocal cords
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Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles
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Where does the parotid (Stensen's) duct enter the oral cavity?
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Opposite the second upper molar tooth
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From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Common and internal carotid arteries
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Third aortic arch MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
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From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Degenerates
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Fifth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
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From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Stapes artery
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Second MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
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From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Maxillary artery
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First MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
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From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Arch of the aorta and right subclavian artery
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Fourth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
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From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Right and left pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus
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Sixth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
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What abdominal muscle contributes to the anterior layer of the rectus sheath
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forms the inguinal ligament
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Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Adduct the thigh and flex the hip
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Medial compartment of the thigh
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Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the foot
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flex the toes
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Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Dorsiflex the foot
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extend the toes
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Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Flex the hip and extend the knee
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Anterior compartment of the thigh
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Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Extend the hip and flex the knee
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Posterior compartment of the thigh
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Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the foot and evert the foot
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Lateral compartment of the leg
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What are the five branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
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STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
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Name the correct artery. • The right recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.
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Right brachiocephalic artery
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Name the correct artery. • The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.
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Arch of the aorta
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The inferior mesenteric artery drains into it.
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The splenic vein
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Are the quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver functionally part of the left or right lobe?
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Functionally they are part of the left lobe of the liver because they receive their blood supply from the left hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part of the right lobe of the liver.
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What bones make up the acetabulum?
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Pubis
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What is the anatomic positioning of the right and left gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass through the diaphragm?
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LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)
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What vessel is lacerated in an epidural hematoma?
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Middle meningeal artery
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True or false? Below the arcuate line
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all the aponeurotic fibers run anterior to the rectus abdominis.
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What ocular muscle • Adducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
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Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
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What ocular muscle • Elevates and adducts the eyeball?
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Superior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
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What ocular muscle • Depresses and abducts the eyeball?
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Superior Oblique (CN IV) (LR6 SO4)3
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What ocular muscle • Elevates and abducts the eyeball?
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Inferior Oblique (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
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What ocular muscle • Abducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
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Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6 SO4)3
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What ocular muscle • Depresses and adducts the eyeball?
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Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
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Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic control?
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Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
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Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus nerve lesion?
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A left CN X lesion results in the uvula deviating to the right. (Uvula points away from the affected side.)
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Is a subdural hematoma an arterial or venous bleed?
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Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the cerebral veins where they enter the superior sagittal sinus.
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Which CNs are found in the midline of the brainstem?
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CN I
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What muscles insert in or on the intertubercular groove of the humerus?
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Lady between two Majors: latissimus dorsi
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What nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
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Chorda tympani of CN VII
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What part of the heart forms • The right border?
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Right atrium
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What part of the heart forms • Left border?
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Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium
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What part of the heart forms • Apex?
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Tip of the left ventricle
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What part of the heart forms • Base?
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Left atrium and tip of the right atrium
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What part of the heart forms • Superior border?
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Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and left auricles
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What part of the heart forms • Anterior wall?
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Right ventricle
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What part of the heart forms • Posterior wall?
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Left atrium
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What part of the heart forms • Diaphragmatic wall?
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Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle
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What nerves carry the sensory and motor components of the blink reflex?
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CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the motor component of the blink reflex.
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What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval window?
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Stapedius muscle
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Name the components of the femoral canal
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working laterally to medially.
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What muscle is most superior in the orbit?
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Levator palpebrae superioris
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What portion of the pericardium adheres to the tunica adventitia of the great vessels?
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Fibrous pericardium
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What two veins form the portal vein?
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The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein.
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What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor components of the light reflex?
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CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor component through parasympathetic stimulation.
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Arrange the following layers in the correct sequence through which a needle must pass in a lumbar puncture. • Skin • Subarachnoid space • Interspinous ligament • Dura mater • Deep fascia • Epidural space • Superficial fascia • Interlaminar space • Supraspinous ligament • Arachnoid mater
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During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the interlaminar space in the midline of L3-L4
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What ocular ganglion is affected if the pupil on the affected side sluggishly responds to light with normal accommodation?
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Ciliary ganglion producing a tonic pupil
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What is the name for the most prominent spinous process?
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Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases
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What muscles make up the rotator cuff?
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SITS—Subscapularis
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What is the function of white rami communicantes?
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They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.
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What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Suprascapular nerve
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Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
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What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Upper subscapularis nerve
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Subscapularis
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What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Thoracodorsal nerve
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Latissimus dorsi
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What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Long thoracic nerve
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Serratus anterior
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What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Flex the wrist and digits
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pronate the wrist and the LOAF (Lumbricales
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What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Flex the shoulder
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flex the elbow
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What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris
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flexor digiti profundus (pinky and ring fingers)
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What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Supinate the wrist
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extend the wrist and digits
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What abdominal muscle runs horizontally
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contributes to the posterior rectus sheath
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Which CNs act as the sensory and motor components of the gag reflex?
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The sensory limb is via CN IX
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Which kidney is lower? Why?
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The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity because of the amount of space the liver occupies.
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What two regions of the vertebral column are considered primary curvatures?
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Thoracic and sacral
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What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?
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Hemiazygous vein
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At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?
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When it crosses the teres major
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What direction would the tongue protrude in a left CN XII lesion?
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Left CN XII lesion would result in the tongue pointing to the left (points at the affected side).
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At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?
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C4 (the upper border of the thyroid cartilage)
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True or false? Males are more likely to develop femoral hernias than females.
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False. Females are more likely to develop femoral hernias then males (remember Female's Femoral).
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In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?
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Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
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Where is the cupola of the lung in relation to the subclavian artery and vein?
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The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian venipuncture.
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True or false? The first cervical vertebra has no vertebral body.
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True. The odontoid process of C2 acts as the vertebral body of C1 allowing lateral rotation of the head.
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What is the largest muscle in the body?
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Gluteus maximus
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At what vertebral levels does the aortic arch begin and end?
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It both begins and ends at T4 (sternal angle [of Louis]).
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What artery travels with the following veins? • Great cardiac vein
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Left anterior descending artery
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What artery travels with the following veins? • Middle cardiac vein
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Posterior interventricular artery
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What artery travels with the following veins? • Small cardiac vein
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Right coronary artery
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The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel?
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Internal carotid artery
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What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T8 level?
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IVC Remember: 1 at T8
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What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T10 level?
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Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X) Remember: 1 at T8
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What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T12 level?
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Aorta
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Is the carotid sinus sensitive to pressure or oxygen?
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The carotid sinus is a pressure-sensitive (low) receptor
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What nerve or nerves supply general sensation and taste to the posterior third of the tongue?
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CN XI and X
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Which muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?
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Dilator pupillae muscle
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True or false? both the left and right lungs have an oblique fissure?
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True. on the right lung the oblique fissure divides the middle from the inferior lobe and the horizontal fissure further divides the middle from the upper lobe. On the left the oblique divides the superior from the inferior lobe.
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What are the three branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?
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1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
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What is the major difference between the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of the body?
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There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face.
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Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. • Shoulder
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Clavicle
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Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. • Elbow
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Humerus with ulna (major) and radius (minor)
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Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. • Wrist
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Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember
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What is the only laryngeal muscle innervated by the external laryngeal nerve?
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Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
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What seven structures are found in more than one mediastinum?
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Esophagus
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How many bronchopulmonary segments are on the right lung? Left lung?
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There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments on the right and 8 on the left.
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The duodenal-jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what?
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Ligament of Treitz
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What is the only tongue muscle innervated by CN X?
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Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII.
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What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior direction
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splits to contribute to the rectus sheath
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What are the five branches of the superior mesenteric artery?
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Inferior pancreaticoduodenal
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What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic splanchnic (parasympathetic) nerves that innervate the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?
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S2
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What connects the third and the fourth ventricles?
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Cerebral aqueduct
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What nerve and artery could be affected in a humeral neck fracture?
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Axillary nerve and posterior humeral artery
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What type of hernia is described as passing through the deep lateral ring of the inguinal canal?
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Indirect hernia passes in the inguinal canal; a direct hernia passes directly through Hesselbach's triangle.
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What two vessels come together to form the external jugular vein?
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1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein
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What is the only vein in the body with a high O2 content?
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The pulmonary vein
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What are the three branches of the celiac trunk?
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The left gastric
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What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube enter?
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Nasopharynx
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What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is innervated by CN V3?
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The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.
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How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?
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31 pairs
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What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?
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Anterior tibial artery
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What is the term for pupils that react normally to accommodation but have bilateral loss of constriction in response to light?
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Argyll Robertson pupils
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What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?
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Foramen of Monro
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What nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
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Lingual nerve of CN V3
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What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ?
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Visceral pleura
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What artery supplies the left ventricle
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left atrium
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Where are the tonsillar tissues?
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Waldeyer's ring
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What is the name of the superficial subcutaneous fascia of the abdomen containing fat?
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Camper's fascia; Scarpa's fascia is devoid of fat. (Remember campers are fat.)
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What are the three anatomic characteristics that differentiate the large bowel from the small bowel and the rectum?
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1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages
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What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photoreceptors?
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The optic disk is the blind spot.
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At the level of rib 6
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the internal thoracic artery divides into what two arteries?
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What is the name of inflammation of the prepatellar bursa?
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Housemaid's knee
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What nerve roots constitute the cervical plexus?
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C1 through C4
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Heart and pericardium
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Middle
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Descending aorta
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Posterior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Thymus
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Superior and anterior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Phrenic nerve
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Superior and middle
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Esophagus
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Superior and posterior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Trachea
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Superior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Ascending aorta
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Middle
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Thoracic duct
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Superior and posterior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Azygos vein
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Superior and posterior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • SVC
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Superior and middle
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Splanchnic nerves
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Posterior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Aortic arch
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Superior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • IVC
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Middle
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Vagus nerve
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Posterior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Brachiocephalic vein
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Superior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Pulmonary artery and veins
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Middle
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Left common carotid artery
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Superior
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Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Left subclavian artery
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Superior
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What is the only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
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Adrenal medulla
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The left subclavian artery is a branch of what artery?
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The left is a branch of the aortic arch
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What are the four muscles of mastication?
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1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
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With what thoracic vertebra or vertebrae does rib 7 articulate?
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Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.
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What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric artery?
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Left colic
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What is the only valve in the heart with two cusps?
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Mitral (bicuspid) valve
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What are five clinical signs of portal HTN?
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Caput medusa
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What three muscles constitute the erector spinae?
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1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Love Science" muscles)
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What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?
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Median nerve
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What vascular injury may result from a supracondylar fracture of the femur?
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The popliteal artery
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What nerve and artery could be affected in a midshaft humeral fracture?
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Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery
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Name the 10 retroperitoneal organs.
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. Duodenum (all but the first part) 2. Ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Supra renal glands (adrenals) 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. IVC D CUPS DAKRI is the mnemonic
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Ventral rami of what cervical nerves constitute the phrenic nerve?
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C3
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What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs?
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Ampulla
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What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?
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Foramen of Winslow
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen magnum
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CN XI
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen spinosum
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Middle meningeal artery
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen rotundum
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CN V2
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen ovale
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CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Jugular foramen
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CN IX
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Carotid canal
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Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Stylomastoid foramen
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CN VII
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Hypoglossal canal
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CN XII
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Internal auditory meatus
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CN VII and VIII
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Optic canal
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CN II and ophthalmic artery
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Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Cribriform plate
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CN I
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What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?
|
Subclavian vein
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What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit?
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Motor aspect
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A motor lesion to the right CN V results in deviation of the jaw to which side?
|
A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of mastication
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What two arteries join to form the superficial and deep palmar arches of the hand?
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Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is the main supplier)
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What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum?
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Round and ovarian ligaments
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What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Tibial nerve
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L4 to S3 (L2 to L4
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What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Common peroneal nerve
|
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4
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What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Femoral nerve
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L2 to L4 (L2 to L4
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What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Obturator nerve
|
L2 to L4 (L2 to L4
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What three structures are in contact with the left colic flexure? With the right colic flexure?
|
Left: stomach
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What three muscles constitute the pes anserinus?
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1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous
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What is the only pharyngeal muscle not innervated by CN X?
|
Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X.
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What vessels carry deoxygenated blood into the lungs from the right ventricle?
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The right and left pulmonary arteries
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|
Fracture of the fibular neck
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resulting in foot drop
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What vein is formed by the union of the right and left brachiocephalic veins?
|
Superior vena cava
|
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If inserting a needle to perform a pleural tap or insertion of a chest tube
|
do you use the inferior or the superior border of a rib as your landmark? Why?
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What muscle laterally rotates the femur to unlock the knee?
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Popliteus
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What chamber of the eye lies between the iris and the lens?
|
Posterior chamber
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What artery supplies the right atrium
|
right ventricle
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What four branches of the brachial plexus arise prior to the first rib?
|
1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius
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What vertebral level is marked by the xiphoid process?
|
T9
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What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of eversion; inversion
|
dorsiflexion
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What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of flexion of the knees and toes
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plantarflexion
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What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of knee extension
|
weakened hip flexion
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What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of abduction of the hip resulting in Trendelenburg gait
|
Superior gluteal nerve
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What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of flexion of the knee and all function below the knee
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weakened extension of the thigh
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What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of adduction of the thigh
|
Obturator nerve
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What nerve lesion presents with ape or simian hand as its sign?
|
Median nerve lesion
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What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?
|
Deltoid
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What is the first branch of the abdominal artery?
|
Inferior phrenic artery
|
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What vessel does the right gonadal vein drain into?
|
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly
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What two muscles do you test to see whether CN XI is intact?
|
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
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What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body and sinus reflexes?
|
CN IX and X
|
|
At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?
|
T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the sternal angle (angle of Louis).
|
|
What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?
|
Resorb CSF into the blood
|
|
Damage to what nerve will give you winged scapula?
|
Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery.
|
|
What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?
|
Nucleus pulposus
|
|
What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal sling (muscle of continence)?
|
Puborectalis
|
|
What are the five branches of the median cord of the brachial plexus?
|
Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar
|
|
What bone houses the ulnar groove?
|
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)
|
|
What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Nasopharynx?
|
Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves
|
|
What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Oropharynx?
|
Glossopharyngeal nerve
|
|
What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Laryngopharynx?
|
Vagus nerve
|
|
What protective covering adheres to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?
|
Pia mater
|
|
What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits?
|
Urinary trigone
|
|
What is the term when the brachial artery is compressed
|
resulting in ischemic contracture of the hand?
|
|
What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart?
|
Chordae tendineae
|
|
What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?
|
Internal iliac nodes
|
|
What bursa is inflamed in clergyman's knee?
|
Infrapatellar bursa
|
|
What muscle is the chief flexor of the hip?
|
Psoas major
|
|
What component of the ANS
|
when stimulated
|
|
What muscles in the hand adduct the fingers?
|
The Palmar interosseus ADducts
|
|
What type of cerebral bleed is due to a rupture of a berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis?
|
Subarachnoid hematoma
|
|
What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?
|
1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)
|
|
What structure of the knee is described thus? • C-shaped shock absorber; aids in attachment of the tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament
|
Medial meniscus
|
|
What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents posterior displacement and has medial-to-lateral attachment on the tibia
|
Posterior cruciate ligament
|
|
What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents adduction
|
Lateral collateral ligament
|
|
What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents anterior displacement and has lateral-to-medial attachment on the tibia
|
ACL
|
|
What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents abduction
|
Medial collateral ligament
|
|
What branches of CN X are the sensory and motor components of the cough reflex? Be specific.
|
The sensory component is through the superior laryngeal nerve
|
|
What nerves provide sensory innervation above the vocal cords? Below the vocal cords?
|
The internal laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information from above the vocal cords while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information below.
|
|
From what pharyngeal groove is the external auditory meatus derived?
|
First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Corpus cavernosus
|
corpus spongiosum
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Scrotum
|
Labioscrotal swelling
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Urinary bladder
|
urethra
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Testes
|
seminiferous tubules
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Ventral part of the penis
|
Urogenital folds
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Gubernaculum testes
|
Gubernaculum
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Epididymis
|
ductus deferens
|
|
Which PG is associated with maintaining a PDA?
|
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin
|
|
When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? When does it go back into the embryo?
|
6 weeks 10 weeks
|
|
What results when the palatine prominences fail to fuse with the other side?
|
Cleft palate
|
|
What is the term for a direct connection between the intestine and the external environment through the umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists?
|
Vitelline fistula
|
|
Where do the primordial germ cells arise?
|
From the wall of the yolk sac
|
|
What disorder is due to a 5--reductase deficiency
|
resulting in testicular tissue and stunted male external genitalia?
|
|
Does the zygote divide mitotically or meiotically?
|
The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotically.
|
|
During what embryonic week does the intraembryonic coelom form?
|
Third week
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon
|
mesencephalon
|
|
What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole
|
abortion
|
|
What syndrome is due to a deficiency of surfactant?
|
Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.
|
|
How many oogonia are present at birth?
|
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.
|
|
What right-to-left shunt occurs when the aorta opens into the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk opens into the left ventricle?
|
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.
|
|
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Left umbilical vein
|
Ligament teres
|
|
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Foramen ovale
|
Fossa ovale
|
|
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Right and left umbilical arteries
|
Medial umbilical ligaments
|
|
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Ductus arteriosus
|
Ligamentum arteriosum
|
|
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Ductus venosus
|
Ligamentum venosum
|
|
Mandibular hypoplasia
|
down-slanted palpebral fissures
|
|
What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?
|
SHIP: Shifting of the aorta
|
|
What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the ventral surface of the penis?
|
Hypospadia
|
|
What CN is associated with the • First pharyngeal arch?
|
CN V
|
|
What CN is associated with the • Second pharyngeal arch?
|
CN VII
|
|
What CN is associated with the • Third pharyngeal arch?
|
CN IX
|
|
What CN is associated with the • Fourth pharyngeal arch?
|
CN X
|
|
What CN is associated with the • Fifth pharyngeal arch?
|
None; it degenerates.
|
|
What CN is associated with the • Sixth pharyngeal arch?
|
CN X
|
|
What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid colon and rectum?
|
Hirschsprung's disease (colonic gangliosus)
|
|
What immunologic syndrome is due to a pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure?
|
DiGeorge's syndrome
|
|
What embryonic structure
|
around day 19
|
|
What is the term for failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum?
|
Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the scrotum within 3 months of birth.
|
|
Is a membranous septal defect more commonly interventricular or interatrial?
|
Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal defect.
|
|
What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when a pharyngeal fistula is formed?
|
The second pharyngeal pouch and groove
|
|
How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG assays in the blood? In urine?
|
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.
|
|
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Middle ear
|
First M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
|
|
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Superior parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body of the thyroid
|
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
|
|
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Inferior parathyroid gland and thymus
|
Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
|
|
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Palatine tonsil
|
Second M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
|
|
What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the dorsal surface of the penis?
|
Epispadia
|
|
True or false? In females
|
meiosis II is incomplete unless fertilization takes place.
|
|
What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?
|
Muscles of the internal eye
|
|
What disorder is associated with jaundice
|
white stools
|
|
What hormone
|
produced by the syncytiotrophoblast
|
|
How many mature sperm are produced by one type B spermatogonium?
|
Four
|
|
All primary oocytes in females are formed by what age?
|
They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life.
|
|
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk
|
Truncus arteriosus
|
|
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The sinus venarum
|
coronary sinus
|
|
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The right and left ventricles
|
Primitive ventricle
|
|
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The aortic vestibule and the conus arteriosus
|
Bulbus cordis
|
|
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The right and left atria
|
Primitive atrium
|
|
After a longstanding left-to-right shunt reverses
|
causing cyanosis
|
|
True or false? The thyroid gland is an embryologic foregut derivative.
|
True. The thyroid gland
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Collecting ducts
|
calyces
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Urinary bladder and urethra
|
Urogenital sinus
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • External genitalia
|
Phallus
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Nephrons
|
kidney
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Median umbilical ligament
|
Urachus
|
|
True or false? The epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and the urethra are embryologic hindgut derivatives.
|
TRUE
|
|
Name the four ventral mesentery derivatives.
|
1. The lesser omentum (consisting of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogastric ligaments) 2. Falciform ligament 3. Coronary ligament of the liver 4. Triangular ligament of the liver Liver is ventral; all other ligaments are dorsal mesentery derivatives.
|
|
Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of what embryonic disorder?
|
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa
|
|
The separation of 46 homologous chromosomes without splitting of the centromeres occurs during what phase of meiosis?
|
Meiosis I; disjunction with centromere splitting occurs during meiosis II.
|
|
Blood and its vessels form during what embryonic week?
|
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Glans clitoris
|
corpus cavernosus
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Gartner's duct
|
Mesonephric duct
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Ovary
|
follicles
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Uterine tube
|
uterus
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Labia majora
|
Labioscrotal swelling
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Labia minora
|
Urogenital folds
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Ovarian and round ligaments
|
Gubernaculum
|
|
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Urinary bladder
|
urethra
|
|
What direction does the primitive gut rotate? What is its axis of rotation?
|
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.
|
|
What syndrome occurs when a 46XY fetus develops testes and female external genitalia?
|
Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)
|
|
Preeclampsia in the first trimester
|
hCG levels above 100
|
|
True or false? The foramen ovale closes just prior to birth.
|
False. It closes just after birth because the change in pulmonary circulation causes increased left atrial pressure.
|
|
At ovulation
|
in what stage of meiosis II is the secondary oocyte arrested?
|
|
What is the name for failed recanalization of the duodenum resulting in polyhydramnios
|
bile-containing vomitus
|
|
What remains patent in a hydrocele of the testis
|
allowing peritoneal fluid to form into a cyst?
|
|
True or false? The respiratory system is derived from the ventral wall of the foregut.
|
True. The laryngotracheal (respiratory) diverticulum is divided from the foregut by the tracheoesophageal septum. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
|
|
What is the name for failure of the allantois to close
|
resulting in a urachal fistula or sinus?
|
|
What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?
|
The mouth
|
|
What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of mesodermal origin?
|
Spleen
|
|
What tumor is derived from primitive streak remnants and often contains bone
|
hair
|
|
What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not return to the embryo?
|
Omphalocele and gastroschisis
|
|
True or false? For implantation to occur the zona pellucida must degenerate.
|
True. Remember
|
|
What results when the maxillary prominence fails to fuse with the medial nasal prominence?
|
Cleft lip
|
|
What is the direction of growth for the primitive streak
|
caudal to rostral or rostral to caudal?
|
|
During what embryonic week do somites begin to form?
|
Third week
|
|
In men
|
at what embryonic week do the primordial germ cells migrate to the indifferent gonad?
|
|
What embryonic week sees the formation of the notochord and the neural tube?
|
Third week
|
|
What right-to-left shunt occurs when only one vessel receives blood from both the right and left ventricles?
|
Persistent truncus arteriosus
|
|
What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?
|
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm
|
|
Where are the preganglionic neuron cell bodies
|
the CNS or the PNS?
|
|
Which three CNs send sensory information to the solitary nucleus?
|
CN VII
|
|
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Vertebral artery or anterior spinal artery occlusion
|
resulting in contralateral corticospinal tract and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilateral CN XII lesion
|
|
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Contralateral corticospinal and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilatera medial strabismus secondary to a lesion in CN VI
|
Medial pontine syndrome
|
|
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Slow-growing acoustic neuroma producing CN VII deficiencies
|
Pontocerebellar angle syndrome
|
|
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Occlusion of the PICA
|
resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia
|
|
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • AICA or superior cerebellar artery occlusion
|
resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia
|
|
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Posterior cerebral artery occlusion resulting in a contralateral corticospinal tract signs
|
contralateral corticobulbar signs to the lower face
|
|
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The midbrain?
|
CN III and IV
|
|
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The upper medulla?
|
CN IX
|
|
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • Pontomedullary junction?
|
CN VI
|
|
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The upper pons?
|
CN V
|
|
What is the only CN nucleus found in the cervical spinal cord?
|
Accessory nucleus
|
|
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Supplies the muscles of mastication?
|
Motor nucleus of CN V
|
|
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Receives sensory input (all but pain and temperature) from the face
|
scalp
|
|
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Forms the sensory component of the jaw jerk reflex?
|
Mesencephalic nucleus
|
|
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The flocculonodular lobe?
|
The lateral vestibular nucleus
|
|
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The vermis?
|
The fastigial nucleus
|
|
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The lateral cerebellar hemispheres?
|
The interposed nucleus
|
|
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The intermediate hemispheres?
|
The dentate nucleus
|
|
What is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex
|
and what is its neurotransmitter?
|
|
What three CNs are associated with conjugate eye movements?
|
CN III
|
|
What is the term to describe the soft
|
flabby feel and diminished reflexes seen in patients with acute cerebellar injury to the deep cerebellar nuclei?
|
|
What bedside test is used to differentiate a dorsal column lesion from a lesion in the vermis of the cerebral cortex?
|
The Romberg sign is present if the patient sways or loses balance when standing with eyes open. In a dorsal column lesion
|
|
Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is mainly responsible for outgoing (efferent) information?
|
Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the middle consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.
|
|
What tract carries unconscious proprioceptive information from the Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles to the cerebellum
|
helping monitor and modulate muscle movements?
|
|
What reflex
|
seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract
|
|
What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?
|
Ptosis (eyelid drooping)
|
|
What component of the inner ear • Contains perilymph and responds to angular acceleration and deceleration of the head?
|
Semicircular canal
|
|
What component of the inner ear • Contains endolymph and responds to head turning and movement?
|
Semicircular duct
|
|
What component of the inner ear • Contains endolymph and gravity receptors monitoring linear acceleration and deceleration of the head
|
noting changes in head position?
|
|
What is the name of demyelination of the corticospinal tract and the dorsal column in the spinal cord due most commonly to a vitamin B12 deficiency?
|
Subacute combined degeneration
|
|
What encephalopathy causes ocular palsies
|
confusion
|
|
Which thalamic nucleus receives auditory input from the inferior colliculus?
|
MGB
|
|
Where are the postganglionic neuron cell bodies
|
the CNS or the PNS?
|
|
What disease is a cavitation of the spinal cord causing bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the lesion?
|
Syringomyelia
|
|
What nucleus of the hypothalamus receives visual input from the retina and helps set the circadian rhythm?
|
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
|
|
Are white rami preganglionic or postganglionic fibers?
|
White rami are preganglionic fibers
|
|
What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing a decrease in body temperature and mediates the response to conserve heat?
|
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).
|
|
What CN transmits sensory information from the cornea?
|
CN V1
|
|
What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvis and the hindgut?
|
Lumbar splanchnics
|
|
Where are the cell bodies for the DCML and spinothalamic sensory systems?
|
The first sensory neuron is in the dorsal root ganglia. It carries ascending sensory information in the dorsal root of a spinal nerve
|
|
What term describes the reflex that increases the curvature of the lens
|
allowing near vision?
|
|
What CN carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the viscera of the neck
|
thorax
|
|
What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing an increase in body temperature and mediates the response to dissipate heat?
|
Anterior hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in hyperthermia.
|
|
What excitatory fibers arise from the inferior olivary nuclei on the contralateral side of the body?
|
Climbing fibers;
|
|
What four CN carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
|
CN III
|
|
Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges and spinal cord project through a vertebral defect
|
Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
|
|
Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges project through a vertebral defect
|
Meningocele All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
|
|
Name the form of spina bifida. • An open neural tube lying on the surface of the back
|
Myeloschisis All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
|
|
Name the form of spina bifida. • Defect in the vertebral arch
|
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
|
|
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the optic tract; output projects to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe
|
LGB (think EYES)
|
|
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the trigeminal pathways; output to primary somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe
|
Ventral posteromedial nucleus
|
|
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from globus pallidus and the cerebellum; output to the primary motor cortex
|
Ventral lateral nucleus
|
|
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from medial lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; output to the primary somatosensory cortex
|
Ventral posterolateral nucleus
|
|
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from globus pallidus and substantia nigra; output to primary motor cortex
|
Ventral anterior nucleus
|
|
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the amygdala
|
prefrontal cortex
|
|
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from inferior colliculus; output to primary auditory cortex
|
MGB (think EARS)
|
|
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the mammillary bodies via the mammillothalamic tract and the cingulated gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via the anterior limb of the internal capsule
|
Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuit of the limbic system)
|
|
What is the name of a thin brown ring around the outer edge of the cornea
|
seen in Wilson's disease?
|
|
What do UMNs innervate?
|
They innervate LMNs.
|
|
What area of the brain serves as the major sensory relay center for visual
|
auditory
|
|
Which of the colliculi help direct the movement of both eyes in a gaze?
|
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.
|
|
How do the corticobulbar fibres of CN VII differ from the rest of the CNs?
|
Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the LMN receives information from both the left and right cerebral cortex)
|
|
What syndrome is described by a lesion in the angular gyrus (area 39) resulting in alexia
|
agraphia
|
|
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Cervical vertebrae?
|
Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
|
|
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Thoracic vertebrae?
|
Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
|
|
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Lumbar vertebrae?
|
Five pairs through five lumbar vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
|
|
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Sacral vertebrae?
|
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
|
|
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Coccygeal vertebrae?
|
One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
|
|
What are the three sites where CSF can leave the ventricles and enter the subarachnoid space? (Name the lateral and the medial foramina.)
|
Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1 Medial foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral and M for Medial)
|
|
What CNs arise from • The midbrain?
|
CN III and IV
|
|
What CNs arise from • The pons?
|
CN V
|
|
What CNs arise from • The medulla?
|
CN IX
|
|
What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in the corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery
|
so that the person can comprehend the command but not execute it?
|
|
True or false? Glucose readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier.
|
False. Water readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier
|
|
What encapsulated group of nerve endings seen at the muscle-tendon junction responds to an increase in tension generated in that muscle? (This is dropping a box that is too heavy to carry.)
|
Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent neurons in response to an increase in force or tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.
|
|
What chromosome 4
|
AD disorder is a degeneration of GABA neurons in the striatum of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?
|
|
What syndrome is described as bilateral lesions of the amygdala and the hippocampus resulting in placidity
|
anterograde amnesia
|
|
By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together
|
what two pathways are you eliminating from proprioception?
|
|
What is the name of bilateral flaccid paralysis
|
hyporeflexia
|
|
What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The ventrolateral two-thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?
|
Anterior spinal artery
|
|
What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The cerebellum and the dorsolateral part of the medulla?
|
PICA
|
|
What syndrome causes inability to concentrate
|
easy distractibility
|
|
True or false? The presence of PMNs in the CSF is always abnormal.
|
True. Although the CSF normally contains 0 to 4 lymphocytes or monocytes
|
|
What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move CSF?
|
Ependymal cells
|
|
What is the most common site for an aneurysm in cerebral circulation?
|
The junction where the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm expands
|
|
What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates the frontal and the parietal lobes?
|
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
|
|
What is the name of violent projectile movements of a limb resulting from a lesion in the subthalamic nuclei of the basal ganglia?
|
Hemiballismus
|
|
What is the term for the type of pupil seen in neurosyphilis
|
and what ocular reflexes are lost?
|
|
True or false? Intrafusal fibers form muscle spindles.
|
True. Muscle spindles are modified skeletal muscle fibers. They are the sensory component of the stretch reflexes.
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Broca's area?
|
Areas 44 and 45
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary auditory cortex?
|
Areas 41 and 42
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary somatosensory cortex?
|
Areas 1
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Somatosensory association cortex?
|
Areas 5 and 7
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary motor cortex?
|
Area 4
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Premotor cortex?
|
Area 6
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Visual association cortex?
|
Areas 18 and 19
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Frontal eye fields?
|
Area 8
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary visual cortex?
|
Area 17
|
|
What Brodmann area is associated with • Wernicke's area?
|
Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40
|
|
What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?
|
Vitreous humor
|
|
What aphasia produces a nonfluent pattern of speech with the abilty to understand written and spoken language seen in lesions in the dominant hemisphere?
|
Expressive aphasia
|
|
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map
|
what area or lobe • Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?
|
|
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map
|
what area or lobe • Is involved in motor planning?
|
|
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map
|
what area or lobe • Controls balance and eye movements?
|
|
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map
|
what area or lobe • Controls distal musculature?
|
|
What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger
|
cleaning up cellular debris after injury?
|
|
What direct-pathway basal ganglia disease is described by masklike facies
|
stooped posture
|
|
What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres?
|
Middle cerebral artery
|
|
What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the production of ADH?
|
Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes insipidus.
|
|
True or false? High-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the base of the cochlea.
|
True. High-frequency sound waves stimulate the hair cells at the base of the cochlea
|
|
What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the satiety center
|
regulating food intake?
|
|
What cells of the retina sees in color and needs bright light to be activated?
|
Cones (C for color and cones)
|
|
What cell's axons are the only ones that leave the cerebellar cortex?
|
The Purkinje cell
|
|
What splanchnic carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the hindgut and the pelvic viscera?
|
Pelvic splanchnics (They all begin with P.)
|
|
Is nystagmus defined by the fast or slow component?
|
Nystagmus is named by the fast component
|
|
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left optic nerve lesion
|
Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal hemianopsia)
|
|
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Right calcarine cortex lesion
|
Left homonymous hemianopsia
|
|
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)
|
Left homonymous hemianopsia
|
|
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Optic chiasm lesion
|
Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia
|
|
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right lateral compression of the optic chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal carotid artery)
|
Right nasal hemianopsia
|
|
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left Meyer's loop lesion of the optic radiations.
|
Left homonymous hemianopsia
|
|
What is the function of the cerebellum?
|
Planning and fine-tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember
|
|
What is the name for inability to stop a movement at the intended target?
|
Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger-to-nose test.
|
|
If a lesion occurs before the onset of puberty and arrests sexual development
|
what area of the hypothalamus is affected?
|
|
What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally into a superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?
|
Calcarine sulcus
|
|
Do alpha-or gamma-motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers?
|
alpha-Motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers (a motor unit)
|
|
Contracting both medial rectus muscles simultaneously makes the images of near objects remain on the same part of the retina. What term describes this process?
|
Convergence
|
|
Will a unilateral lesion in the spinothalamic tract result in a contralateral or ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature?
|
Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal horn
|
|
What ganglion supplies the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary muscles of the eye?
|
Ciliary ganglion
|
|
In what tract does pain
|
temperature
|
|
What CN nucleus receives auditory information from both ears via the cochlear nuclei?
|
Superior olivary nucleus
|
|
What parasympathetic nucleus is found on the floor of the fourth ventricle and supplies preganglionic fibers innervating the terminal ganglias of the thorax
|
foregut
|
|
What sensory system is affected in the late spinal cord manifestation of syphilis?
|
Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high-step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.
|
|
What do LMNs innervate?
|
They innervate skeletal muscle.
|
|
What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the lower limbs in the spinal cord?
|
The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful)
|
|
True or false? CSF is a clear
|
hypertonic solution with higher concentrations of K + and HCO3-
|
|
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor
|
sensory
|
|
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor
|
sensory
|
|
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor
|
sensory
|
|
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor
|
sensory
|
|
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor
|
sensory
|
|
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor
|
sensory
|
|
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • Dorsal column tract?
|
Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the lesion
|
|
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • Corticospinal tract?
|
Ipsilateral loss below the level of the lesion
|
|
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • LMN?
|
Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis
|
|
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • Spinothalamic tract?
|
Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the level of the lesion
|
|
What area of the brain acts as the center for ipsilateral horizontal gaze?
|
PPRF
|
|
What aphasia is seen as an inability to comprehend spoken language and speaking in a word salad?
|
Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22
|
|
What is the function of the basal ganglia?
|
Initiate and manage gross skeletal muscle movement control
|
|
What artery is formed by the union of the two vertebral arteries?
|
The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary junction.
|
|
What disease is described by bilateral flaccid weakness of the upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral spastic weakness of the lower limbs (UMN) beginning at the cervical level of the spinal cord and progressing up or down the cord?
|
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.
|
|
Which dopamine receptor excites the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?
|
D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs through the D2 receptors.
|
|
Does the direct or indirect basal ganglia pathway result in a decreased level of cortical excitation?
|
Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition
|
|
What fissure of the cerebral cortex separates the frontal and temporal lobes rostrally and partially separates the parietal and temporal lobes?
|
Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius)
|
|
What area of the brain acts as the center for contralateral horizontal gaze?
|
Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)
|
|
In an adult
|
where does the spinal cord terminate and what is it called?
|
|
If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus
|
which way is the fast component directed
|
|
What area of the limbic system is responsible for attaching emotional significance to a stimulus?
|
Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.
|
|
What is the name of the tremor that occurs during movements and is absent while the person is at rest?
|
Intention tremor; it is a sign of cerebellar lesions. A tremor at rest (i.e.
|
|
What is the term for making up stories regarding past experiences because of an inability to retrieve them?
|
Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff's syndrome.
|
|
What frontal lobe cortex is associated with organizing and planning the intellectual and emotional aspect of behavior?
|
Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.
|
|
What is the largest nucleus in the midbrain?
|
The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and dopamine as its neurotransmitters.
|
|
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Left eye can't look to the left
|
Left abducens nerve
|
|
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Right eye can't look left
|
left eye nystagmus
|
|
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? Neither eye can look left with a slow drift to the right
|
Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral cortex
|
|
What area of the hypothalamus is the feeding center?
|
Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)
|
|
In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in hyperactive cortex with hyperkinetic
|
chorea
|
|
What happens to muscle tone and stretch reflexes when there is a LMN lesion?
|
The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or decreased reflexes
|
|
In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in an underactive cortex with hypokinetic
|
slow
|
|
What sided muscle weakness is seen in an UMN corticospinal tract injury above the pyramidal decussation?
|
Contralateral muscle weakness when above the decussation
|
|
What area of the retina consists of only cones and has the greatest visual acuity?
|
Fovea
|
|
What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the upper limbs in the spinal cord?
|
The fasciculus cuneatus
|
|
What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by diplopia
|
ataxia
|
|
What part of the ANS (i.e.
|
PNS or CNS) controls the constriction of the pupil in response to light?
|
|
With which CN are preganglionic parasympathetic axons arising from the Edinger- Westphal nucleus associated?
|
CN III
|
|
Ophthalmic artery is a branch of what artery?
|
Internal carotid artery
|
|
What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies project to?
|
The anterior nucleus of the thalamus
|
|
What cells contribute to the blood-brain barrier and proliferate in response to CNS injury?
|
Astrocytes
|
|
What causes slow writhing movements (athetosis)?
|
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
|
|
What area of the brain is responsible for emotion
|
feeding
|
|
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The papillary sphincter and ciliary muscle of the eye?
|
Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. Remember it like this:-ili-in ciliary ganglion looks like the III of CN III.)
|
|
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The parotid gland?
|
The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the -oti-is in both otic ganglion and parotid gland.)
|
|
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The submandibular and sublingual glands?
|
The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)
|
|
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The lacrimal gland and oral and nasal mucosa?
|
Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the only ganglion left.)
|
|
What neuronal cell bodies are contained in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord? (T1-L2)
|
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
|
|
What limb of the internal capsule is not supplied by the middle cerebral artery?
|
Anterior limb of the internal capsule is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.
|
|
What tract is responsible for voluntary refined movements of distal extremities?
|
Corticospinal tract
|
|
Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?
|
Rathke's pouch; they can result in compression of the optic chiasm.
|
|
Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?
|
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.
|
|
Name the three postganglionic sympathetic ganglia that receive input from thoracic splanchnics.
|
Celiac
|
|
What is the only CN to arise from the dorsal surface of the midbrain?
|
CN IV
|
|
What basic reflex regulates muscle tone by contracting muscles in response to stretch of that muscle?
|
The myotatic reflex is responsible for the tension present in all resting muscle.
|
|
Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal tract?
|
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
|
|
What nucleus
|
found in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord
|
|
The vertebral artery is a branch of what artery?
|
The subclavian artery
|
|
What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the mandibular division of CN V?
|
Tensor tympani
|
|
The fibers of nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus cross at the medullary decussation and ascend contralateral to what thalamic relay nucleus?
|
VPL nucleus sends its fibers to synapse in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.
|
|
What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by CN VII?
|
The stapedius muscle
|
|
What part of the inner ear contains the gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head?
|
Saccule and utricle
|
|
What nucleus supplies the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?
|
Edinger-Westphal nucleus (via CN III)
|
|
What reticular nuclei synthesize serotonin from L-tryptophan and plays a role in mood
|
aggression
|
|
Will a patient with a unilateral lesion in the cerebellum fall toward or away from the affected side?
|
Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward the side of the lesion.
|
|
A unilateral lesion in what nucleus will produce ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate?
|
Nucleus ambiguus
|
|
True or false? Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in reflexes.
|
True. They are the sensory component of a spinal reflex.
|
|
What ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1 to L1-2 and innervates smooth muscle
|
cardiac muscle
|
|
What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the foregut and the midgut?
|
Thoracic splanchnic fibers
|
|
Does light or darkness regulate the pineal gland?
|
Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the retinal-suprachiasmatic- pineal pathway.
|
|
Name the three hormones produced by pinealocytes.
|
Melatonin
|
|
Is the pH of CSF acidotic
|
alkalotic
|
|
What ascending sensory system carries joint position
|
vibratory and pressure sensation
|
|
What reflex enables the eyes to remain focused on a target while the head is turning?
|
The vestibulo-ocular reflex
|
|
What cells of the retina see in black and white and are used for night vision?
|
Rods
|
|
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Discontinuous voluntary contraction
|
multinuclear striated unbranched fibers
|
|
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Continuous involuntary contraction
|
uninuclear striated branched fibers
|
|
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Involuntary contraction
|
uninuclear nonstriated fibers
|
|
What segment of the small intestine is associated with Brunner's glands?
|
Duodenum
|
|
Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders?
|
Mitochondria-linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.
|
|
What part of a neuron receives information?
|
Dendrites receive information
|
|
What type of collagen is associated with the basement membrane?
|
Type IV collagen
|
|
What is the epithelial lining of the prostatic portion of the urethra?
|
Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium.
|
|
What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production and secretion?
|
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell
|
|
What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?
|
Cilia
|
|
True or false? The following are functions of hepatocytes: protein production
|
bile secretion
|
|
What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to parasitic worms?
|
Major basic protein
|
|
After fertilization
|
what cells of the corpus luteum • Secrete progesterone?
|
|
After fertilization
|
what cells of the corpus luteum • Secrete estrogen?
|
|
What is the largest organ in the body?
|
Integument (skin and its derivatives)
|
|
On what layer of the epidermis does all mitosis occur?
|
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)
|
|
What ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand?
|
The small subunit (40S) binds first.
|
|
What is the T-cell area of the spleen?
|
PALS
|
|
What element is needed for the proper alignment of tropocollagen molecules?
|
Copper (Cu+)
|
|
What type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral surface of cells closest to the apex and acts to seal off the outside environment from the rest of the body?
|
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
|
|
What organelle is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis?
|
Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.
|
|
What sweat gland type is associated with odor production and hair follicles and is found in the axilla?
|
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla
|
|
What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII?
|
Fungiform papillae
|
|
True or false? The portal tract of the liver lobule is the first area to be oxygenated in the liver.
|
True. (Remember
|
|
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development
|
spermatid
|
|
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development
|
spermatid
|
|
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development
|
spermatid
|
|
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development
|
spermatid
|
|
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development
|
spermatid
|
|
What are the four functions of SER?
|
Steroid synthesis
|
|
Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the gastrointestinal tract?
|
IgA
|
|
What area of the lymph node is considered the thymic-dependent area?
|
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells
|
|
What type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?
|
Heterochromatin
|
|
Both submandibular and sublingual glands are innervated by CN VII (facial) and produce mucous and serous secretions. Which one mainly produces serous secretions?
|
Submandibular gland produces mainly serous and the sublingual gland produces mainly mucous secretions.
|
|
What is the only neuroglial cell of mesodermal origin?
|
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.
|
|
Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?
|
Outside the cell
|
|
What are the four posttranslational modifications done by the Golgi apparatus?
|
1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2. Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate amino acids
|
|
What is the epithelial cell lining the nasopharynx?
|
Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
|
|
What are the three epidermal derivatives?
|
1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
|
|
What are the long microvilli in the inner ear and male reproductive tract called?
|
Stereocilia
|
|
True or false? The central vein of the liver lobule is the first area affected during hypoxia.
|
True. Blood flows from the portal tracts (distal) to the central vein (proximal)
|
|
What cell of the male reproductive system produces testosterone?
|
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
|
|
Myelin is produced by which cells in the PNS? In the CNS?
|
In the PNS
|
|
What cell type of the epidermis functions as antigen-presenting cells?
|
Langerhans cells (found in the stratum spinosum)
|
|
What cell type is found in the peripheral white pulp of the spleen?
|
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.
|
|
What area of the female reproductive tract is lined by stratified squamous epithelium rich in |glycogen?
|
The vagina
|
|
What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized by presence of Hassall's corpuscles
|
and absence of germinal centers and B cells?
|
|
What cell transports IgA
|
is secreted by plasma cells
|
|
What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce PTH?
|
Chief cells
|
|
What skin type on the palms and soles is characterized by the absence of hair follicles and presence of stratum lucidum?
|
Thick skin
|
|
What is the name of hydrophilic pores that allow the direct passage of ions and particles between two adjacent cells?
|
Gap junctions
|
|
What type of lysosome is formed when lysosome fuses with a substrate for breakdown?
|
Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive and secondary as active)
|
|
What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure?
|
Microvillus
|
|
What are the four components of the basement membrane?
|
1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen
|
|
What organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the cell?
|
Free polysomes. Membrane-associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.
|
|
What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes IF?
|
Parietal cells (Remember
|
|
What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes pepsinogen?
|
Chief cells
|
|
What hormone
|
produced by the granulose cell
|
|
What cells of the nephron function as sodium concentration sensors of the tubular fluid?
|
Macula densa
|
|
What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?
|
Euchromatin
|
|
What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?
|
Parafollicular C cells
|
|
True or false? The nucleus is the site of transcription.
|
True. Transcription (conversion of DNA to RNA)
|
|
How many days after the LH surge is ovulation?
|
One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the estrogen peak.
|
|
In what layer of the epidermis is melanin transferred from melanocytes to keratinocytes?
|
Stratum spinosum
|
|
What cells of the epidermis
|
derived from the neural crest
|
|
What substance do the JG cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?
|
Renin
|
|
What is the rule of one-third regarding muscle type of the esophagus?
|
Upper third skeletal muscle
|
|
What papillae are responsible for sweet taste?
|
Circumvallate papillae
|
|
What area of the lymph node contains germinal centers?
|
The outer cortex contains most of the germinal centers and therefore also most B cells.
|
|
True or false? The gallbladder functions to produce bile.
|
False. The gallbladder does not produce bile
|
|
True or false? Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane excites the neuron.
|
True. Hyperpolarization inhibits the postsynaptic membrane.
|
|
In the alveoli
|
what cell type is • for gas exchange?
|
|
In the alveoli
|
what cell type is • responsible for producing surfactant?
|
|
In the alveoli
|
what cell type is • part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
|
|
Which trophoblast layer of the placenta remains until the end of pregnancy?
|
Syncytiotrophoblast. (The cytotrophoblast gets incorporated into the syncytiotrophoblast.)
|
|
What is the first epidermal layer without organelles and nuclei
|
Stratum lucidum
|
|
What area of the small intestine is characterized by Peyer's patches?
|
Ileum
|
|
What lymphoid organ has the following characteristics: outer and inner cortical areas
|
encapsulation
|
|
What area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of ADH?
|
Collecting ducts
|
|
What is the name of RER in neurons?
|
Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in neuron cell bodies
|
|
What hormone causes milk letdown?
|
Oxytocin
|
|
What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier?
|
1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries
|
|
What cell type of the epidermis originates from the neural crest?
|
Melanocytes
|
|
If no fertilization occurs
|
how many days after ovulation does the corpus luteum begin to degenerate?
|
|
What area of the spleen consists of splenic cords of Billroth and phagocytoses RBCs?
|
Red pulp (Remember
|
|
What is the name of the protein coat that surrounds the nuclear envelope?
|
Vimentin
|
|
What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
|
Filiform papillae
|
|
What is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?
|
Stratum corneum (keratinized)
|
|
What syndrome is characterized by dynein arm abnormality resulting in chronic sinusitis
|
recurrent pulmonary infections
|
|
What are the functions of the zonula occludens and the zonula adherens
|
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
|
|
What is the name of the SER of striated muscle?
|
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
|
|
Where do sperm go for maturation?
|
Ductus epididymis
|
|
When is the first arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?
|
Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and 22nd week in utero)
|
|
What is the longest and most convoluted segment of the nephron?
|
PCT
|
|
What cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin?
|
Keratinocytes
|
|
What segment of the gastrointestinal tract lacks villi
|
has crypts
|
|
What two areas of the skin do not contain sebaceous glands?
|
Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles
|
|
Which of the following is not part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system: trachea
|
bronchi
|
|
Where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation found?
|
The inner membrane of the mitochondria (cristae)
|
|
What lymphoid organ is characterized by germinal centers
|
plasma cells that secrete IgA
|
|
What generate anterograde transport of information in a neuron?
|
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
|
|
What is the only glycosaminoglycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?
|
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)
|
|
What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
|
Osteoclasts
|
|
What three factors do Sertoli cells produce for normal male development?
|
Inhibin
|
|
What epidermal layer's function is to release lipids to act as a sealant?
|
Stratum granulosum
|
|
What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not?
|
An internal elastic lamina
|
|
Do the duct or the acini cells of the pancreas secrete HCO3-?
|
Duct cells secrete HCO3-
|
|
What cell of the duodenum contains high concentrations of lysozymes and has phagocytic activity?
|
Paneth cells
|
|
What maintains the osmotic gradient that is critical to the concentrating ability of the kidney?
|
The venae recta maintain the gradient via countercurrent flow.
|
|
Are the JG cells of the nephron a part of the afferent or efferent arteriole?
|
Afferent arteriole
|
|
What cell of the duodenum secretes CCK?
|
Enteroendocrine (EE) cells; they also secrete secretin.
|
|
What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone?
|
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
|
|
What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female reproductive cycle?
|
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)
|
|
What is the second arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?
|
Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian follicle)
|
|
What ribosomal subunit sizes do eukaryotic cells have?
|
60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the nucleus.
|
|
What term describes how an action potential is propagated along an axon?
|
Saltatory conduction
|
|
What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14 days long?
|
The secretory phase is progesterone-dependent and 14 days long
|
|
A single mRNA strand translated by a ribosome is termed what?
|
Polysome. Ribosomes read from the 5' to the 3' end of the mRNA.
|
|
What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin
|
MIF
|
|
What histone binds two nucleosomes together?
|
H1 histones
|
|
What is the major inorganic component of bone?
|
Hydroxyapatite
|
|
What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?
|
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
|
|
Where does Beta-oxidation of very long chain fatty acids begin?
|
In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is completed in the mitochondria.
|
|
What organelles make ATP
|
have their own dsDNA
|
|
How do delusions
|
illusions
|
|
What syndrome is characterized by sweating
|
insomnia
|
|
What is the legal age to be deemed competent to make decisions?
|
18 years old (except if emancipated)
|
|
With what stage of sleep is enuresis associated?
|
Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can occur at any stage in the sleep cycle and is usually associated with a major stressor being introduced into the home.
|
|
When more than one explanation can account for the end result
|
what form of bias occurs?
|
|
Increased levels of what neurotransmitter
|
in the hippocampus
|
|
How does ceasation of barbiturate use affect sleep?
|
By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep
|
|
What type of correlation compares two ordinal variables?
|
Spearman correlation
|
|
What syndrome is characterized by bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion
|
placidity
|
|
What is the term for having fantasies or dressing in female clothes for sexual arousal by heterosexual men?
|
Transvestite fetishism
|
|
What disorder is described as having • Unconscious symptoms with unconscious motivation?
|
Somatoform disorder
|
|
What disorder is described as having • Conscious symptoms with conscious motivation?
|
Malingering
|
|
What disorder is described as having • Conscious symptoms with unconscious motivation?
|
Factitious disorder
|
|
What is the term for the ability of a test to measure something consistently?
|
Reliability (think of it as "nice grouping" or "precise")
|
|
What cerebral vessel size is affected in patients with vascular dementia?
|
Small to medium-sized cerebral vessels
|
|
What is the name of the program that deals with codependency and enabling behaviors for family members of alcohol abusers?
|
Al-Anon
|
|
What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Needing a highly structured environment with constant supervision?
|
Profound (I.Q. range < 20)
|
|
What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Having the ability to communicate and learn basic habits but training is usually not helpful?
|
Severe (range 20-34)
|
|
What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Being self-supportive with minimal guidance and able to be gainfully employed (includes 85% of the mentally retarded)?
|
Mild (50-70)
|
|
What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Can work in sheltered workshops and learn simple tasks but need supervision?
|
Moderate (35-49)
|
|
Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Taking others' beliefs
|
thoughts
|
|
Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Returning to an earlier stage of development (e.g.
|
enuresis)
|
|
Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Inability to remember a known fact (aware of forgetting)
|
Blocking
|
|
Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Psychic feelings converted to physical symptoms
|
Somatization
|
|
What is the term for ejaculation before or immediately after vaginal penetration on a regular basis?
|
Premature ejaculation
|
|
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children • See death as irreversible?
|
Concrete operations (6-12 years)
|
|
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children • Have abstract thinking?
|
Formal operations (> 12 years)
|
|
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children • Lack law of conservation and be egocentric?
|
Preoperational (2-6 years)
|
|
Is it acceptable to lie
|
even if it protects a colleague from malpractice?
|
|
What happens to prevalence as duration increases?
|
Prevalence increases. (Note: Incidence does not change.)
|
|
With what stage of sleep are nightmares associated?
|
REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening dreams that we recall.
|
|
What is the statistical term for the proportion of truly nondiseased persons in the screened population who are identified as nondiseased?
|
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
|
|
In the elderly
|
what happens to total sleep time
|
|
What happens to dopamine levels when we awaken?
|
Dopamine levels rise with waking; dopamine is associated with wakefulness.
|
|
What is the primary risk factor for suicide?
|
Previous suicide attempt
|
|
What is defined as a general estimate of the functional capacities of a human?
|
IQ
|
|
What dementia is associated with dilated ventricles with diffuse cortical atrophy
|
decreased parietal lobe blood flow
|
|
What is the term for a deficiency or absence of sexual fantasies or desires?
|
Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
|
|
What phobia is described as the fear of open spaces?
|
Agoraphobia. It also means having a sense of humiliation or hopelessness.
|
|
What antidepressant
|
which recently was approved for general anxiety disorder
|
|
What judgment states that the decision
|
by rights of autonomy and privacy
|
|
What ethnic group has the highest adolescent suicide rate?
|
Native Americans
|
|
What are the three microscopic pathologic changes seen in Alzheimer's disease?
|
Senile plaques
|
|
When does most REM sleep occur
|
in the first or second half of sleep?
|
|
What is the name of the benzodiazepine antagonist used in the treatment of an overdose?
|
Flumazenil
|
|
What type of test asks a patient to draw a scene
|
attempting to find out the individual's unconscious perceptions in his or her life?
|
|
What is the biochemical trigger for REM sleep?
|
Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway begins in the pons and regulates REM sleep.)
|
|
What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to the patient
|
then asks for recall of as many as possible?
|
|
What are the three characteristics of ADHD?
|
1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
|
|
Is suicidal ideation a component of normal grief?
|
It is rare with normal grief; however
|
|
In what stage of sleep is it easiest to arouse a sleeping individual?
|
During REM sleep
|
|
What scale separates things into groups without defining the relationship between them?
|
Nominal scale (categorical
|
|
What specifies how accurately the sample values and the true values of the population lie within a given range?
|
Confidence interval. It is a way of admitting estimation for the population.
|
|
If the family member of a patient asked you to withhold information
|
would you?
|
|
What AD dementia has a defect in chromosome 4
|
onset between the ages of 30 and 40
|
|
What percentage of children born to HIV-positive mothers will test positive for HIV at birth?
|
100%
|
|
Name the reaction that appears in babies who are temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins around 6 months of age
|
peaks around 8 months
|
|
Which drug is used to treat opioid withdrawal
|
ADHD
|
|
What chromosome is autism linked to?
|
Chromosome 15
|
|
What type of correlation is defined as • Two variables that go together in the same direction?
|
Positive correlation
|
|
What type of correlation is defined as • Two variables with no linear relation to one another?
|
Zero correlation
|
|
What type of correlation is defined as • One variable that diminishes in the presence of the other?
|
Negative correlation
|
|
When the results of a test are compared to findings for a normative group
|
what form of reference does the objective test use?
|
|
What hypothesis states that the findings of a test are a result of chance?
|
Null hypothesis (what you hope to disprove)
|
|
What is the term to describe the inability to feel any pleasant emotions?
|
Anhedonia
|
|
What is the term for involuntary constriction of the outer third of the vagina to prevent penile penetration?
|
Vaginismus; it is the female counterpart of premature ejaculation.
|
|
What is the term for the same results achieved again on testing a subject a second or third time?
|
Test-retest reliability
|
|
At what age does a child develop • Endogenous smile?
|
At birth (reflex)
|
|
At what age does a child develop • Exogenous smile?
|
8 weeks (response to a face)
|
|
At what age does a child develop • Preferential smile?
|
12 to 16 weeks (in response to mother's face)
|
|
Per Freud
|
with what part of the unconscious are sex and aggression (instincts) associated?
|
|
What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?
|
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is blocked
|
|
What type of questions should you begin with when a patient seeks your medical opinion?
|
It is best to begin with open-ended questions
|
|
What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response
|
the reinforcement is given • On a set time schedule?
|
|
What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response
|
the reinforcement is given • After a set number of responses?
|
|
What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response
|
the reinforcement is given • Varying in time?
|
|
What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response
|
the reinforcement is given • Varying in the number of responses?
|
|
At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration?
|
Phallic stage (4-6 years)
|
|
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 130
|
Very superior (<2.5% of the population)
|
|
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 110 to 119
|
High average
|
|
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 80 to 89
|
Low average
|
|
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is 70 to 79
|
Borderline
|
|
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 90 to 109
|
Average
|
|
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • Below 69
|
Mentally disabled
|
|
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 120 to 129
|
Superior
|
|
At what stage of sleep is GH output elevated?
|
Stage 4
|
|
Can incidence
|
prevalence
|
|
Can incidence
|
prevalence
|
|
Can incidence
|
prevalence
|
|
Can a physician commit a patient?
|
NO!! Remember
|
|
What are the five pieces of information considered necessary for fully informed consent?
|
1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of the procedure 3. Risks of the procedure 4. The nature of the procedure (what you are doing) 5. The alternative to this procedure and its availability (Don't forget the last one; this is where physicians get in trouble.)
|
|
What is the term for the number of individuals who have an attribute or disease at a particular point in time?
|
Prevalence rate
|
|
What is the term for the degree to which a test measures what it is intended to measure?
|
Validity (remember
|
|
What Freudian psyche component is described as • The urges
|
sex aggression
|
|
What Freudian psyche component is described as • The conscience
|
morals
|
|
What Freudian psyche component is described as • Reality
|
rationality
|
|
What medication is used to help alcoholics avoid relapse by decreasing glutamate receptor activity?
|
Acamprosate (the number of glutamate receptors increases with chronic alcohol abuse)
|
|
What is the term for new made-up words?
|
Neologisms. Thomas Jefferson noted
|
|
What rate removes any difference between two populations
|
based on a variable
|
|
Can committed mentally ill patients refuse medical treatment?
|
Yes. The only civil liberty they lose is the freedom to come and go as they please.
|
|
What is the term for any stimulus that increases the probability of a response happening?
|
Reinforcement
|
|
Does REM deprivation interfere with performance on simple tasks?
|
No
|
|
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Gets others to assume responsibility
|
is subordinate
|
|
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Orderly
|
inflexible
|
|
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Sensitive to criticism
|
shy
|
|
What is the term for a complete aversion to all sexual contact?
|
Sexual aversion disorder
|
|
What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with • Dopamine receptors?
|
Type I symptoms (positive); schizophrenics have them
|
|
What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with • Muscarinic receptors (ACh)?
|
Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy persons have them
|
|
What general pattern of sleep is described by slowing of EEG rhythms (high voltage and slower synchronization)
|
muscle contractions
|
|
Is spousal abuse a mandatory reportable offense?
|
No
|
|
What is the key issue surrounding teenagers' maturation?
|
Formation of an identity through issues of independence and rebellion; they define who they are.
|
|
What is the relationship between chance of error and • Standard deviation?
|
As the standard deviation increases
|
|
What is the relationship between chance of error and • Sample size?
|
As sample size increases
|
|
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Colorful
|
dramatic
|
|
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • In a constant state of crisis
|
promiscuous
|
|
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Criminal behavior; lacking friends
|
reckless
|
|
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Grandiose sense of self-importance; demands constant attention; fragile self-esteem; can be charismatic
|
Narcissistic
|
|
In what organ system would you attempt to localize a sign for shaken baby syndrome"? What do you look for?
|
Look for broken blood vessels in the baby's eyes.
|
|
What case is known as "let nature take its course"?
|
Infant Doe. Generally
|
|
If the P value is less than or equal to .05
|
what do you do to the null hypothesis?
|
|
What disorder is characterized by an alternating pattern of depressed mood with periods of hypomania for more than 2 years?
|
Cyclothymia (nonpsychotic bipolar). Patients are ego syntonic.
|
|
What projective test asks the patient to tell a story about what is going on in the pictures
|
evaluating the conflicts
|
|
What has proved to be the best way to extinguish enuresis?
|
Bell pad
|
|
What scale assesses a rank order classification but does not tell the difference between the two groups?
|
Ordinal scale (e.g.
|
|
What is associated with prolonged lithium use?
|
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)
|
|
What scale has a true zero point
|
graded into equal increments
|
|
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Triangle
|
6 years old
|
|
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Cross
|
4 years old
|
|
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Diamond
|
7 years old
|
|
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Square
|
5 years old
|
|
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Circle
|
3 years old
|
|
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Rectangle
|
4.5 years old (Alphabetic order except with a diamond last: circle
|
|
What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison population?
|
Antisocial personality
|
|
What is the first formal IQ test used today for children aged 2 to 18?
|
Stanford-Binet Scale
|
|
What type of foods should patients taking MAOIs avoid? Why?
|
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g.
|
|
What form of anxiety
|
appearing at 6 months
|
|
What are the three stages that children aged 7 months to 5 years go through when they are separated from a primary caregiver for a long time?
|
1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment
|
|
What five things are checked in the APGAR test?
|
1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR
|
|
What are the top three causes of infant mortality?
|
Birth defects
|
|
Do newborns have a preference for still or moving objects?
|
Moving objects
|
|
What is the name of the 12-step program believed to be the most successful for the treatment of alcohol abuse?
|
Alcoholics Anonymous
|
|
How can you differentiate between a medial temporal lobe and a hippocampal lesion based on memory impairment?
|
Long-term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.
|
|
What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual side effect is priapism?
|
Trazodone
|
|
What is the central issue regarding the Roe vs. Wade decision (legalization of abortion)?
|
The patient decides about the health care she does or does not get even if it harms the fetus. This also means she can refuse blood transfusions even if it harms the fetus.
|
|
What part of the ANS is affected in the biofeedback model of operant conditioning?
|
The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system.
|
|
The proportion of truly diseased persons in the screened population who are identified as diseased refers to?
|
Sensitivity (it deals with the sick)
|
|
How far below ideal body weight are patients with anorexia nervosa?
|
At least 15%
|
|
True or false? According to social learning theory
|
people who believe that luck
|
|
What is the term for an inhibited female orgasm?
|
Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.)
|
|
What are the four exceptions to requirements for informed consent?
|
1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency
|
|
What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain before
|
after
|
|
What type of bias is it when the sample population is not a true representative of the population?
|
Selection bias
|
|
In what stage of sleep is it hardest to arouse a sleeping individual?
|
During stage 3 and 4 (remember
|
|
What is the period between falling asleep and REM sleep called?
|
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.
|
|
What case is best known for use of the "best interest standard"?
|
Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon). The substituted standard could not apply because the patient had never been competent
|
|
What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?
|
Disulfiram
|
|
According to Freud
|
what facet of the psyche represents the internalized ideals and values of one's parents?
|
|
What pineal hormone's release is inhibited by daylight and increased dramatically during sleep?
|
Melatonin. It is a light-sensitive hormone that is associated with sleepiness.
|
|
What somatoform disorder is described as • Having a F:M ratio of 20:1
|
onset before age 30
|
|
What somatoform disorder is described as • La belle indifférence
|
suggestive of true physical ailment because of alteration of function?
|
|
What somatoform disorder is described as • Unrealistic negative opinion of personal appearance
|
seeing self as ugly?
|
|
What somatoform disorder is described as • Preoccupied with illness or death
|
persisting despite reassurance
|
|
What somatoform disorder is described as • Severe
|
prolonged pain that persists with no cause being found
|
|
What statistical test compares the means of many groups (>2) of a single nominal variable by using an interval variable?
|
One-way ANOVA
|
|
What disease is described by the following characteristics: multiple motor and vocal tics
|
average age of onset 7
|
|
In Parkinson's disease
|
what area of the basal ganglia has a decreased amount of dopamine?
|
|
What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opioids?
|
Enkephalins
|
|
What disorder
|
experienced more than half of the time for a 6-month period
|
|
What percent of sexual abuse cases are committed by family members?
|
50%. The uncles and older siblings are the most likely perpetrators
|
|
Kaiser-Fleischer rings
|
abnormal copper metabolism
|
|
To what does failure to resolve separation anxiety lead?
|
School phobia
|
|
What is the term to describe the average?
|
Mean
|
|
How does L-tryptophan affect sleep?
|
It increases REM and total sleep time.
|
|
Should information flow from the patient to the family or vice versa?
|
Your duty is to tell the patient
|
|
Can parents withhold treatment from their children?
|
Yes
|
|
What is the name of the hypothesis you are trying to prove?
|
Alternative hypothesis (what is left after the null has been defined)
|
|
What percent of unwed mothers are teenagers?
|
50%
|
|
What happens to REM
|
REM latency
|
|
What 11-amino acid peptide is the neurotransmitter of sensory neurons that conveys pain from the periphery to the spinal cord?
|
Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by blocking substance P.)
|
|
True or false? In a positively skewed curve the mean is greater than the mode.
|
True. In positively skewed distributions the mode is less than the median is less than the mean.(Remember to name a skewed distribution: the tail points in the direction of its name. positive skew tails point to the positive end of a scale.)
|
|
What is the term to describe jumping from one topic to the next without any connection?
|
Loose association
|
|
What is the leading cause of school dropout?
|
Pregnancy
|
|
Name the four components of the narcoleptic tetrad.
|
1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic hallucinations (while falling asleep) 3. Sleep attacks with excessive daytime sleepiness 4. Cataplexy (pathognomonic) Narcolepsy is a disorder of REM sleep
|
|
What happens to cortisol levels in sleep-deprived individuals?
|
Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease in sleep-deprived individuals.
|
|
What is the period between going to bed and falling asleep called?
|
Sleep latency
|
|
What disorder is characterized by a depressed mood and a loss of interest or pleasure for more than 2 years?
|
Dysthymia
|
|
What form of conditioning is defined as a new response to an old stimulus resulting in a consequence?
|
Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a response)
|
|
What pituitary hormone is inhibited during sleep?
|
TSH. 5-HT and prolactin increase during sleep
|
|
Based on operant conditioning
|
what type of reinforcement is described when • Adding a stimulus stops a behavior?
|
|
Based on operant conditioning
|
what type of reinforcement is described when • Removing a stimulus stops a behavior?
|
|
Based on operant conditioning
|
what type of reinforcement is described when • Adding a stimulus reinforces a behavior?
|
|
Based on operant conditioning
|
what type of reinforcement is described when • Removing a stimulus reinforces a behavior?
|
|
What is the formula to calculate IQ?
|
(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score
|
|
What happens to NE levels in • Major depression?
|
Decrease (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same)
|
|
What happens to NE levels in • Bipolar disorder?
|
Increase (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same)
|
|
What law was adopted to shield physicians from liability when helping at the scene of an accident?
|
Good Samaritan Law. (Physicians are not required to stop and help.)
|
|
What is the term for the number of new events occurring in a population divided by the population at risk?
|
Incidence rate
|
|
What is the term to describe inability to recall the past and possible assumption of a completely new identity?
|
Dissociative fugue. (Patients are unaware of memory loss.)
|
|
What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Pairing noxious stimuli to an inappropriate behavior?
|
Aversive conditioning
|
|
What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Forcing patients to confront their fears by being exposed to them until they are extinguished?
|
Exposure
|
|
What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Triage of a hierarchy of fears (from least to most)
|
then teaching muscle relaxation techniques in the presence of those fears until the subject is not afraid anymore?
|
|
Failure to accurately recall the past leads to what form of bias?
|
Recall bias. These problems arise in retrospective studies.
|
|
Regarding neuroleptics
|
what is the relationship between potency and anticholinergic side effects?
|
|
What potentially lethal side effect of clozapine should be monitored with frequent blood drawing?
|
Agranulocytosis; approximately 2% develop this side effect.
|
|
True or false? Being college educated increases a man's risk of having premature ejaculation.
|
True; also
|
|
What is the term for the rate measured for a subgroup of a population?
|
Specific rate (e.g.
|
|
In what stage of psychosexual development
|
according to Freud
|
|
Where is lithium metabolized and excreted?
|
95% in the kidneys; that's why adequate Na+ and fluid intake is essential.
|
|
At what age do children begin to understand the irreversibility of death?
|
At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age they view death as a form of punishment.
|
|
What are the three benzodiazepines that do not undergo microsomal oxidation?
|
Oxazepam
|
|
What neuropsychologic test has five basic scales testing for the presence and localization of brain dysfunction?
|
The Halsted-Reitan battery. It consists of finger oscillation
|
|
What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by • Childlike behaviors
|
unorganized speech and behaviors
|
|
What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by • Stuporous mute echopraxia and automatic obedience
|
waxy flexibility with rigidity of posture?
|
|
What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by • Delusions of persecution and/or grandeur
|
auditory hallucinations
|
|
If a patient cannot pay
|
can you refuse services?
|
|
Does alcoholism increase the rate of suicide?
|
Yes. It increases the rate of suicide to nearly 50 times that of the general population.
|
|
What is the term for the dementia characterized by decremental or patchy deterioration in cognitive function due to a cerebrovascular accident?
|
Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a stepwise deterioration in cognitive function.
|
|
What is the term for the difference between the highest and the lowest score in a population?
|
Range
|
|
How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol intoxication?
|
Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal
|
|
How many attacks are needed over how much time before panic disorder is diagnosed?
|
Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember
|
|
What axis I disorder is characterized by pronoun reversal
|
preference for inanimate objects
|
|
What major side effect of neuroleptics is characterized by pill rolling
|
shuffling gait
|
|
If you report a suspected case of child abuse and are wrong
|
are you protected from legal liability?
|
|
Can advance directives be oral?
|
Yes
|
|
Increased self-esteem
|
flight of ideas
|
|
Is marital satisfaction higher for couples with or without children?
|
Without children (but don't think about this one for too long)
|
|
At what age does IQ stabilize?
|
From age 5 onward IQ stabilizes.
|
|
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Nonfluent speech
|
telegraphic and ungrammatical; lesion in Brodmann's area 44; unimpaired comprehension
|
|
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Lesion in the prefrontal cortex; inability to speak spontaneously; unimpaired ability to repeat
|
Transcortical aphasia
|
|
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Lesion is in the parietal lobe or arcuate fibers because the connection between Broca's and Wernicke's area is severed; word comprehension preserved; inability to write or speak the statement (can't tell you what you said)
|
Conduction aphasia
|
|
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Both Broca's and Wernicke's areas damaged by lesion in the presylvian speech area; trouble repeating statements; poor comprehension with telegraphic speech
|
Global aphasia
|
|
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Lesion in Brodmann area 22; impaired comprehension; incoherent rapid
|
fluent speech; verbal paraphrasias; trouble repeating statements
|
|
What rare form of dementia is associated with personality changes and affects the frontal and temporal lobes?
|
Pick's disease
|
|
Which drug is used to treat respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids?
|
Naloxone or naltrexone
|
|
What rate is indicated by 1-specificity?
|
False-positive rate
|
|
When does most of the NREM sleep (stage 3 and 4) occur
|
in the first or second half of sleep?
|
|
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Disappearance of alpha waves
|
appearance of theta waves
|
|
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Delta waves
|
Stage 3 and 4
|
|
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Sawtooth waves
|
random low voltage pattern
|
|
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Alpha waves
|
Being awake
|
|
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Sleep spindles
|
K-complexes
|
|
What is the drug of choice for treating ADHD?
|
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
|
|
True or false? Prolactin levels can serve as a rough indicator of overall dopamine activity.
|
True. PIF is dopamine in the tuberoinfundibular system.
|
|
What is the term for failure to give up infantile patterns of behavior for mature ones?
|
Fixation (arrested development)
|
|
Is masturbation considered an abnormal sexual practice?
|
No. It is abnormal only if it interferes with normal sexual or occupational function.
|
|
Which benzodiazepine has the longest half-life?
|
Flurazepam
|
|
In the classical conditioning model
|
when a behavior is learned
|
|
What is the most abundant neuron in the cerebellum?
|
The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is glutamic acid
|
|
Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: • Separating oneself from the experience. The facts are accepted but the form is changed for protection.
|
Dissociation
|
|
Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: • Use of explanations to justify unacceptable behaviors.
|
Rationalization
|
|
Outburst to cover up true feelings (emotion is covered
|
not redirected).
|
|
Use of an outlet for emotions (stuff flows downhill).
|
Displacement
|
|
Fact without feeling (la belle indifférence)
|
Isolation of affect
|
|
Replacing normal affect with "brain power"
|
Intellectualization
|
|
Unconsciously forgetting(forgetting that you forgot something!)
|
Repression
|
|
Fixing impulses by acting out the opposite of an unacceptable behavior
|
Undoing
|
|
Setting up to be let down (it is unconscious; if conscious
|
you're just rude)
|
|
A complete opposite expression of your inward feeling (e.g.
|
arguing all the time with someone you are attracted to when your feelings are not known)
|
|
Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Odd
|
strange; has magical thinking; socially isolated
|
|
Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Socially withdrawn
|
seen as eccentric but happy to be alone
|
|
Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Baseline mistrust; carries grudges; afraid to open up; uses projection as defense mechanism; lacks hallucinations or delusions
|
Paranoid
|
|
What statistical method do you use when analyzing • Cross-sectional studies?
|
Chi-square.
|
|
What statistical method do you use when analyzing • Cohort studies?
|
Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort studies deal with incidence.)
|
|
What statistical method do you use when analyzing • Case control studies?
|
Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.)
|
|
If a patient asks you a question and you do not know the answer
|
do you tell a white lie or simply not respond?
|
|
True or false? There is a strong positive correlation between IQ and academic achievement.
|
True. IQ correlates well with education and academic achievement but is not a predictor of success.
|
|
What is the term for headaches
|
inability to concentrate
|
|
What is the term for a schizophrenic episode lasting longer than 30 days with full return to former functioning capacity?
|
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
|
|
What is the primary method of nonverbal communication of emotional states?
|
Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)
|
|
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • In the population?
|
Crude mortality rate
|
|
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • From a specific cause per population?
|
Cause-specific mortality rate
|
|
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • From a specific cause per all deaths?
|
Proportionate mortality rate
|
|
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • From a specific cause per number of persons with the disease?
|
Case fatality rate
|
|
Does being a female physician increase or decrease the risk of suicide?
|
Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide nearly four times the general population.
|
|
Are sexually abused females more likely to have learning disabilities than the general population?
|
Yes
|
|
What form of bias is due to false estimates of survival rates?
|
Lead-time bias (remember
|
|
The probability that a person with a positive test result is truly positive refers to what value?
|
Positive predictive value
|
|
Objective tests that base the result of the examination on a preset standard use what form of reference?
|
Criterion-referenced tests. You need a certain number correct to pass (e.g.
|
|
True or false? A patient can refuse a feeding tube.
|
True. It is considered medical treatment
|
|
What are the CAGE questions?
|
Cut down (ever tried and failed?) Annoyed (criticism makes angry?) Guilty (about drinking behavior?) Eye opener (drinking to shake out the cobwebs?)
|
|
What type of scale is graded into equal increments
|
showing not only any difference but how much?
|
|
With what stage of sleep are bruxisms associated?
|
Teeth grinding is associated with stage 2 sleep.
|
|
What rate is indicated by 1- sensitivity?
|
False-negative rate
|
|
What drug is being given to HIV-positive mothers during labor and to the children after birth to decrease the risk of mother-to-child HIV transmission?
|
Nevirapine; it cuts the rate from 20% to 10%. AZT is also used
|
|
What is the name of depression and mania alternating within a 48-to 72-hour period?
|
Rapid cycling bipolar disorder
|
|
Aroused EEG pattern (fast low voltage and desynchronization)
|
saccadic eye movements
|
|
What is the teratogenic effect associated with lithium?
|
Epstein-cardiac anomaly of the tricuspid valve
|
|
What is the triad of NPH?
|
Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia (NPH wet
|
|
True or false? Only men have refractory sexual periods.
|
Sad but true. Some women can have multiple successive orgasms.
|
|
In which syndrome does a person present with intentionally produced physical ailments with the intent to assume the sick role?
|
Münchhausen's syndrome (factitious disorder)
|
|
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Preparing for an upcoming event
|
Anticipation
|
|
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Helping others without expecting any return
|
Altruism
|
|
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Converting an unacceptable impulse to a socially acceptable form (Hint: it is the most mature of all defense mechanisms)
|
Sublimation
|
|
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Forgetting on purpose (so you can actually remember it)
|
Suppression
|
|
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Easing anxiety with laughter
|
Humor
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Speech; critical for personality
|
concentration
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Language
|
memory
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Intellectual processing of sensory information
|
with the left (dominant) processing verbal information
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Initiation and control of movements
|
Basal ganglia
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Skill-based memory
|
verbal recall
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Important for REM sleep; origin of NE pathway
|
Pons
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Motivation
|
memory
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Recall of objects
|
distances
|
|
What is the degree to which two measures are related? Does it imply causation?
|
Correlation. No
|
|
What is the most common form of dementia?
|
Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type
|
|
What is the only drug that does not have an intoxication?
|
Nicotine (but it sure has a nasty withdrawal!)
|
|
What is the term to describe homosexuals who • Are comfortable with their own person and agree with their sense of self?
|
Ego syntonic
|
|
What is the term to describe homosexuals who • Are uncomfortable with their own person and disagree with their sense of self?
|
Ego dystonic
|
|
Which benzodiazepine has the shortest half-life?
|
Triazolam
|
|
What statistical test compares the means of groups generated by two nominal variables by using an interval variable?
|
Two-way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several variables at the same time.
|
|
What are the two ways to leave the prevalence pot?
|
Recovery and death
|
|
What aspects of sleep are affected during benzodiazepine use?
|
REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease.
|
|
What is the term to describe a man who has • Never been able to achieve an erection?
|
Primary erectile disorder
|
|
What is the term to describe a man who has • The ability to have an erection sometimes and other times not?
|
Selective erectile disorder
|
|
What is the term to describe a man who has • Used to be able to achieve an erection but now cannot?
|
Secondary erectile disorder (Male erectile disorder is the same as impotence.)
|
|
What stage of sleep is associated with somnambulism?
|
Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs most often in the first third of sleep.
|
|
What are the three surrogate criteria?
|
1. What did the patient want? 2. What would the patient say? 3. What is in the patient's best interests?
|
|
True or false? Four-fifths of those who attempt suicide first give a warning.
|
True; 80% have visited a doctor in the previous 6 months. And 50% within the last month!
|
|
Can a patient refuse life-saving treatment for religious reasons?
|
Yes. (Remember
|
|
What form of bias occurs when the experimenter's expectation inadvertently is expressed to the subjects
|
producing the desired effects? How can it be eliminated?
|
|
What type of hallucination occurs during awakening?
|
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during awakening
|
|
When attempting to make up sleep
|
what stage of sleep is recovered?
|
|
What is backward masking
|
and is there a positive correlation with schizophrenic patients?
|
|
True or false? Being single increases your risk of suicide.
|
False. Separation
|
|
True or false? Serious psychiatric illness is more common after abortion than childbirth.
|
False. Childbirth carries five times as much risk of serious psychiatric illness as abortion.
|
|
What type of error is made if you accept the null hypothesis when it is false?
|
Type II error (beta error). (Remember it as saying something doesn't work when it does.)
|
|
Most sleep time is spent in what stage of sleep?
|
Stage 2
|
|
In a negatively skewed curve is the mean greater than the mode?
|
Yes. In a negatively skewed distribution the mean is greater than the median is greater than the mode.
|
|
What axis I disorder is characterized by a clinically significant syndrome that affects social
|
occupational
|
|
What type of personality test is the Rorschach inkblot test
|
objective or projective?
|
|
What statistical test checks to see whether the groups are different by comparing the means of two groups from a single nominal variable?
|
The T-test (used when comparing two groups)
|
|
What antipsychotic movement disorder can occur at any time and is characterized by a subjective sense of discomfort that brings on restlessness
|
pacing
|
|
What form of depression is due to abnormal metabolism of melatonin?
|
Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light therapy)
|
|
What three circumstances allow a child to be committed to institutional care?
|
1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others. 2. The child is unable to self-care daily at the appropriate developmental level. 3. The parents or guardians have no control over the child or will not promise to ensure the child's safety even though they refuse hospitalization.
|
|
What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Reinforcing successive attempts that lead to the desired goal (gradual improvement)?
|
Shaping (successive approximation)
|
|
What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Having a stimulus take over the control of the behavior (unintentionally)?
|
Stimulus control
|
|
What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Providing the person with information regarding his or her internal responses to stimuli with methods of controlling them?
|
Biofeedback
|
|
What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Removing a reinforcement (without the patient knowing) gradually over time to stop a condition?
|
Fading
|
|
What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Stopping the reinforcement that is leading to an undesired behavior?
|
Extinction
|
|
The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Psychosocial and environmental problems (stressors)?
|
Axis IV
|
|
The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Medical or physical ailments?
|
Axis III
|
|
The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Personality and mental disorders?
|
Axis II
|
|
The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Global assessment of function?
|
Axis V
|
|
The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Clinical disorders (e.g.
|
schizophrenia)?
|
|
Should you refer a patient to a form of folk medicine even if you don't believe in it?
|
Actually
|
|
In regard to motor development during infancy
|
choose the motor response that happens first. • Release or grasp
|
|
In regard to motor development during infancy
|
choose the motor response that happens first. • Proximal or distal progression
|
|
In regard to motor development during infancy
|
choose the motor response that happens first. • Radial or ulnar progression
|
|
In regard to motor development during infancy
|
choose the motor response that happens first. • Palms up or down
|
|
What are the strongest determinants of gender identity?
|
Parental assignment and culture (not biology)
|
|
With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated?
|
NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams that we are unable to recall.
|
|
What type of bias is it when the information is distorted because of the way it is gathered?
|
Measurement bias
|
|
What term describes senseless repetition of words or phrases?
|
Verbigeration
|
|
Who decides competency and sanity?
|
The courts. These are legal
|
|
Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: • Everything in the world is perceived as either good or bad . No middle ground; it is all extremes.
|
Splitting
|
|
Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: • Not allowing reality to penetrate because afraid of becoming aware of painful aspect of reality.
|
Denial
|
|
Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: • Person takes his or her own feelings
|
beliefs
|
|
Which is the conditioned response
|
the conditioned stimulus
|
|
What three actions should take place when one person threatens the life of another? (Hint: think of the Tarasoff decision.)
|
1. Notify police. 2. Try to detain the person making the threat. 3. Notify the threatened victim.
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects
|
symptoms
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects
|
symptoms
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects
|
symptoms
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects
|
symptoms
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects
|
symptoms
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects
|
symptoms
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects
|
symptoms
|
|
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects
|
symptoms
|
|
What hormone's release is strongly associated with stage 4 sleep?
|
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24-hour period is during stage 4 sleep.
|
|
What is the male-to-female ratio for committing suicide?
|
M:F 4:1 committing
|
|
What is the term for the total percentage of correct answers selected on a screening test?
|
Accuracy (think of it as all the trues
|
|
What type of error is made if you reject the null hypothesis when it is true?
|
Type I error (alpha error). (Remember it as saying something works when it doesn't.) The chance of a type I error occurring is the P value.
|
|
If one event precludes another event
|
their probabilities are combined by what method?
|
|
True or false? Marriage emancipates a child less than 17 years old.
|
True; military service and independent self-care by a child over 13 years old also emancipate.
|
|
What term describes the inability to recall personal information
|
commonly associated with trauma?
|
|
What is the most stressful event as determined by the Holmes and Rahe scale?
|
The death of a spouse. The higher the score
|
|
What renal side effect is commonly seen in patients taking lithium?
|
Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop polyuria and polydipsia.
|
|
What statistical test
|
using nominal data only
|
|
What is the term for repetitive actions blocking recurring bad thoughts?
|
Compulsions. They are actions done to fix the bad thoughts. Obsessions are the thoughts.
|
|
True or false? A patient has to prove his or her competency.
|
False. You need clear evidence the patient is not competent; if you are unsure
|
|
True or false? Panic attacks can be induced by hyperventilation or carbon dioxide.
|
True. Yohimbine
|
|
In what study
|
for ethical reasons
|
|
Shuffling gait
|
cogwheel rigidity
|
|
Anhedonia
|
lack of motivation
|
|
What form of dementia is characterized by onset at age 40 to 50
|
rapid progression
|
|
The most frequent number occurring in a population is what?
|
Mode
|
|
Movement disorders are associated with what dopamine pathway (what part of the brain)?
|
Nigrostriatal pathways (basal ganglia)
|
|
What neurotransmitter is associated with sedation and weight gain?
|
Histamine
|
|
The probability that a person with a negative test result is truly disease free refers to what value?
|
Negative predictive value
|
|
What are the five Kübler-Ross stages of death and dying? Must they be completed in order?
|
Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance No
|
|
What P value defines whether the hull hypothesis should or should not be rejected?
|
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis
|
|
What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep?
|
Prolactin
|
|
What is the most widely used class of antidepressants?
|
SSRIs
|
|
What happens to prevalence as the number of long-term survivors increases?
|
Prevalence increases. (Remember
|
|
What is the primary predisposing factor for vascular dementia?
|
Hypertension
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • Sexual urges toward children?
|
Pedophilia
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual pleasure from watching others having sex
|
grooming
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • Having a recurrent desire to expose the genitals to strangers?
|
Exhibitionism
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual pleasure from other peoples' pain?
|
Sadism
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual pleasure from being abused or in pain?
|
Masochism
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • Having sex with cadavers?
|
Necrophilia
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • Sexual fantasies or practices with animals?
|
Zoophilia
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • Combining sex with defecation?
|
Coprophilia
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • Combining sex with urination?
|
Urophilia
|
|
What paraphilia is defined as • A male rubbing his genitals on a fully clothed female to achieve orgasm?
|
Frotteurism
|
|
Name the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junctions for all of the voluntary muscles in the body.
|
ACh; think about the ANS.
|
|
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • α1-Blockers?
|
Impaired ejaculation
|
|
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • Serotonin?
|
Inhibited orgasm
|
|
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • β-Blockers?
|
Impotence
|
|
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • Trazodone?
|
Priapism
|
|
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • Dopamine agonists?
|
Increased erection and libido
|
|
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • Neuroleptics?
|
Erectile dysfunction
|
|
What is the term for the point on a scale that divides the population into two equal parts?
|
Median (think of it as the halfway point)
|
|
True or false? Pregnancy ensures emancipation.
|
FALSE
|
|
True or false? Paranoid and catatonic schizophrenia are good prognostic predictors.
|
True. Being female
|
|
What happens to prevalence as incidence increases?
|
Prevalence increases.
|
|
What type of correlation compares two interval variables?
|
Pearson correlation
|
|
What term is defined as a patient unconsciously placing his or her thoughts and feelings on the physician in a caregiver or parent role?
|
Transference. When it is from the physician to the patient it is called countertransference.
|
|
What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests • The efficacy and occurrence of side effects in large group of patient volunteers?
|
Phase III. It is considered the definitive test.
|
|
What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests • The safety in healthy volunteers?
|
Phase I
|
|
What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests • The protocol and dose levels in a small group of patient volunteers?
|
Phase II
|
|
In biostatistics
|
what are the three criteria required to increase power?
|
|
If the occurrence of one event had nothing to do with the occurrence of another event
|
how do you combine their probabilities?
|
|
What type of random controlled test is least subjective to bias?
|
Double-blind study. It is the most scientifically rigorous study known.
|
|
Why isn't the incidence of a disease decreased when a new treatment is initiated?
|
Because incidence is defined as new events; treatment does not decrease the number of new events. It does decrease the number of individuals with the event (prevalence would decrease).
|
|
What are the three posttranscriptional modifications?
|
1. 7-methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3. Removal of introns
|
|
What AA is the major carrier of nitrogen byproducts from most tissues in the body?
|
Glutamine
|
|
What two AAs have a pKa of 4?
|
Aspartic acid and glutamic acid
|
|
How many acetyl CoAs per glucose enter into the TCA cycle?
|
2 acetyl CoA per glucose
|
|
What topoisomerase makes ssDNA cuts
|
requires no ATP
|
|
In prokaryotes
|
what is the name of the RNA sequence that ribosomes bind to so translation can occur?
|
|
Name the pattern of genetic transmission: both M and F are affected; M-to-M transmission may be present; both parents must be carriers; the trait skips generations; two mutant alleles are needed for disease; and affected children may be born of unaffected adults?
|
Autosomal recessive
|
|
What factors are needed for translation in prokaryotes?
|
Elongation factor-G and GTP
|
|
What three AAs must patients with maple syrup urine disease not eat?
|
Isoleucine
|
|
How many high-energy bonds are used to activate an AA?
|
2 ATPs
|
|
What water-soluble vitamin deficiency results in pellagra?
|
Niacin (B3)
|
|
What glycolytic enzyme has a high Vmax
|
high Km
|
|
How many ATPs are generated per acetyl coenzyme A (CoA)?
|
12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle (Krebs cycle)
|
|
What cytoplasmic pathway produces NADPH and is a source of ribose 5-phosphate?
|
HMP shunt
|
|
What is the main inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
|
Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
|
|
Where on the codon and anticodon does the wobble hypothesis take place?
|
3'end of the codon (third position) on mRNA and 5' end of the anticodon (first position) on tRNA.
|
|
What DNA excision and repair enzyme is deficient in patients with xeroderma pigmentosum?
|
Excision endonuclease
|
|
What form of bilirubin is carried on albumin?
|
Unconjugated (indirect)
|
|
What are the two ketogenic AAs?
|
Leucine and lysine
|
|
Which organisms have polycistronic mRNA?
|
Prokaryotes. Polycistronic and prokaryotes both start with P.
|
|
As what compound do the carbons for fatty acid synthesis leave the mitochondria?
|
Citrate
|
|
What four substances increase the rate of gluconeogenesis?
|
1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA 4. ATP
|
|
With what three enzymes is thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP) associated?
|
1. α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3. Transketolase Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) functions as a coenzyme vital to tissue respiration. It is required for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-coenzyme A
|
|
What test uses very small amounts of DNA that can be amplified and analyzed without the use of Southern blotting or cloning?
|
PCR
|
|
What apoprotein is required for the release of chylomicrons from the epithelial cells into the lymphatics?
|
apo B-48
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the covalent bonding of the AA's carboxyl group to the 3' end of tRNA?
|
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
|
|
What must be supplemented in patients with medium-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency?
|
Short-chain fatty acids
|
|
What form of AA is found only in collagen?
|
Hydroxyproline
|
|
In a diabetic patient
|
to what does aldose reductase convert glucose?
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in cholesterol metabolism?
|
HMG-CoA reductase
|
|
What is the term for the pH at which the structure carries no charge?
|
pI (isoelectric point)
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in gluconeogenesis?
|
Fructose-1
|
|
What is the drug of choice in treating a patient with hyperuricemia due to underexcretion of uric acid?
|
Probenecid
|
|
What enzyme deficiency results in darkening of the urine when exposed to air?
|
Homogentisate oxidase deficiency is seen in patients with alcaptonuria.
|
|
In eukaryotes
|
what transcription factor binds to the TATA box before RNA polymerase II can bind?
|
|
What enzyme produces an RNA primer in the 5'-3' direction and is essential to DNA replication because DNA polymerases are unable to synthesize DNA without an RNA primer?
|
Primase
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty acid synthesis?
|
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
|
|
Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the following information: • Replicates mitochondrial DNA
|
DNA polymerase-γ
|
|
Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the following information: • Synthesizes the lagging strand during replication
|
DNA polymerase-α
|
|
Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the following information: • Synthesizes the leading strand during replication
|
DNA polymerase-δ
|
|
What is the order of fuel use in a prolonged fast?
|
1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat
|
|
Which way will the O2 dissociation curve shift with the addition of 2
|
3-bisphosphoglycerate (2
|
|
What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by the following? • 5-FU
|
Thymidylate synthase
|
|
What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by the following? • Methotrexate
|
Dihydrofolate reductase
|
|
What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by the following? • Hydroxyurea
|
Ribonucleotide reductase
|
|
What is found in the R group if the AA is acidic? Basic?
|
If a carboxyl group is the R group
|
|
What gluconeogenic mitochondrial enzyme requires biotin?
|
Pyruvate carboxylase
|
|
What factors are needed for translocation in eukaryotes?
|
EF-2 and GTP
|
|
DNA replication occurs during what phase of the cell cycle?
|
S phase
|
|
What is the end product of purine catabolism?
|
Uric acid
|
|
What causes transcription to stop in eukaryotes?
|
The poly(A) site on the DNA
|
|
What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: • FADH2
|
Succinate dehydrogenase
|
|
What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: • GTP
|
Succinyl CoA synthetase
|
|
What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: • NADH (hint: 3 enzymes)
|
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
|
|
What form of alcohol causes blindness?
|
Methanol (wood alcohol)
|
|
How many base pairs upstream is the prokaryotic TATA box promoter?
|
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream
|
|
What are the two essential fatty acids?
|
Linoleic acid and linolenic acid
|
|
During a prolonged fast
|
why is the brain unable to use fatty acids?
|
|
What type of jaundice is seen in Rotor's syndrome?
|
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia
|
|
If a sample of DNA has 30% T
|
what is the percent of C?
|
|
From where is the energy for gluconeogenesis derived?
|
β-Oxidation of fatty acids
|
|
Name the type of mutation: • The deletion or addition of a base
|
Frameshift
|
|
Name the type of mutation: New codon specifies a different AA
|
Missense
|
|
Name the type of mutation: • Unequal crossover in meiosis with loss of protein function
|
Large segment deletions
|
|
Name the type of mutation: • New codon specifies for the same AA
|
Silent
|
|
Name the type of mutation: • New codon specifies for a stop codon
|
Nonsense
|
|
What form of bilirubin can cross the blood-brain barrier?
|
Unconjugated free bilirubin
|
|
What AA is broken down into N2O
|
causing an increase in cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) of smooth muscle
|
|
What three things are needed to produce a double bond in a fatty acid chain in the endoplasmic reticulum?
|
NADPH
|
|
What are the vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors?
|
Factors II
|
|
Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3' or the 5' end?
|
3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' end.
|
|
How many codons code for AAs? How many for termination of translation?
|
61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA
|
|
What is the enzyme for the oxidative reaction in glycolysis?
|
Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase
|
|
What substrate builds up in Tay-Sachs disease?
|
GM2 ganglioside Caused by a deficiency of β-hexosaminidase A
|
|
What pattern of genetic transmission is characterized by no transmission from M
|
maternal inheritance
|
|
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis?
|
Glycogen synthase
|
|
What sphingolipid is formed by the union of serine and palmitoyl CoA?
|
Sphingosine
|
|
What causes an increase in bone mineralization and Ca2+ along with PO4- absorption from the GI tract and kidney tubules?
|
Vitamin D
|
|
What two sugars can be used to produce cerebrosides?
|
Glucose and galactose
|
|
What group of eukaryotic regulatory proteins has a major factor in controlling the gene expression embryonically?
|
Homeodomain proteins
|
|
What causes the lysis of RBCs by oxidizing agents in a G-6-PD deficiency?
|
The lack of glutathione peroxidase activity results in a decrease in NADPH production
|
|
All AAs have titration plateaus at what pH values?
|
pH of 2 and 9
|
|
What cytoplasmic organelle carries the enzymes for elongation and desaturation of fatty acyl CoA?
|
SER
|
|
What is the binding site for RNA polymerase?
|
The promoter indicates where transcription will begin.
|
|
What vitamin is necessary for epithelial health?
|
Vitamin A is responsible for vision and epithelial health.
|
|
What lipoprotein is formed if an IDL particle acquires cholesterol from a HDL particle?
|
LDL
|
|
What structure of a protein describes the interaction among subunits?
|
Quaternary structure
|
|
What is the only factor of enzyme kinetics that the enzyme affects?
|
Ea (activation energy)
|
|
Is the Lac operon activated or inactivated in the presence of both glucose and lactose?
|
Inactivated; glucose results in decreased cAMP levels and therefore blocks protein binding between cAMP and CAP.
|
|
At the end of each round of β-oxidation
|
what is released?
|
|
What is the rate-limiting enzyme on glycolysis?
|
Phosphofructokinase-1 and costs 1 ATP
|
|
What enzyme of heme synthesis is deficient in the autosomal dominant disorder acute intermittent porphyria?
|
Uroporphyrinogen-I synthase
|
|
What enzyme is blocked by disulfiram?
|
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
|
|
Deficiencies in what enzyme result in insoluble glycogen synthesis formation?
|
α-1
|
|
What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with the following: • Initiation
|
eIF-2 in the P site
|
|
What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with the following: • Elongation
|
eEF-1
|
|
What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with the following: • Termination
|
No enzymes are needed. When the stop codon reaches the A site
|
|
What AA undergoes N-glycosylation?
|
Asparagine
|
|
What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP (5-Phosphoribosyl-1-Pyrophosphate)?
|
Orotic acid (purine metabolism)
|
|
What intermediate of cholesterol synthesis anchors proteins in the membranes and forms CoA?
|
Farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP)
|
|
What AA is a phenol?
|
Tyrosine
|
|
What hormone is activated in adipose tissue when blood glucose levels decrease?
|
Hormone-sensitive lipase
|
|
How many NADPHs are used per addition of acetyl CoA into a fatty acid chain?
|
2 NADPHs per acetyl CoA
|
|
What factors are needed for elongation in eukaryotes?
|
EF-1 and GTP
|
|
What purine base is contained in inosine monophosphate?
|
Hypoxanthine (remember
|
|
What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into the urea cycle?
|
Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4-
|
|
What two requirements must be met for the Lac operon to be activated?
|
Lactose must be present and glucose must be absent
|
|
Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period of cellular growth (translation and transcription) before DNA synthesis
|
G1 phase (gap 1)
|
|
Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period of cellular growth (translation and transcription) after DNA synthesis
|
G2 phase (gap 2)
|
|
Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period of DNA replication (preparing for mitosis)
|
S phase
|
|
Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Cells cease replicating (i.e.
|
nerve cell)
|
|
True or false? RBCs anaerobically use glucose in both the well-fed and fasting states.
|
True. Remember
|
|
What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the substrate level phosphorylation?
|
Succinyl CoA synthetase
|
|
What apoprotein on HDL activates lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)?
|
apo A-1
|
|
What three AAs are used to synthesize the purine ring?
|
1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine
|
|
How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmic NADH oxidation using the glycerol phosphate shuttle?
|
2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in patients with PKU?
|
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
|
|
What three steps of the TCA cycle generate NADH?
|
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
|
|
What two enzymes of heme synthesis are inhibited by lead?
|
ALA dehydrogenase and ferrochelatase
|
|
What enzyme
|
induced by insulin and activated by apo C-II
|
|
What is the most common genetic deficiency resulting in hemolytic anemia?
|
G-6-PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase deficiency is second.
|
|
Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • AA deficiency
|
Negative
|
|
Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Growth
|
Positive
|
|
Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Pregnancy
|
Positive
|
|
Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Uncontrolled DM
|
Negative
|
|
Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Starvation
|
Negative
|
|
Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Infection
|
Negative
|
|
Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Recovery from injury
|
Positive
|
|
Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Kwashiorkor
|
Negative
|
|
Why is the liver unable to metabolize ketone bodies?
|
Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase (thiophorase).
|
|
What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Gs protein to increase cAMP?
|
Cholera toxin
|
|
What two vitamins are inactivated when they come in contact with acetaldehyde?
|
Thiamine and folate
|
|
Name the end product or products: • Fatty acid synthesis
|
Palmitate
|
|
Name the end product or products: • Fatty acid oxidation
|
Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in odd chain fatty acids)
|
|
What is the term for production of a DNA copy from an RNA molecule?
|
Reverse transcription
|
|
What two monosaccharides are produced when lactose is hydrolyzed?
|
Galactose and glucose
|
|
What mineral is required for cross-linking of collagen molecules into fibrils?
|
The enzyme lysyl oxidase requires Cu2+and O2 to function properly.
|
|
What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? • DNA
|
Southern blot
|
|
What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? • Protein
|
Western blot
|
|
What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? • RNA
|
Northern blot
|
|
How many high-energy bonds does the cycle of elongation cost?
|
Four high energy bonds
|
|
What enzyme of purine synthesis is inhibited by allopurinol and 6-mercaptopurine?
|
PRPP aminotransferase
|
|
True or false? The urea cycle takes place in both the cytoplasm and the mitochondria.
|
True. Remember
|
|
What is the only fatty acid that is gluconeogenic?
|
Propionic acid
|
|
What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis of the Okazaki fragments
|
3' exonuclease activity
|
|
In what organelle does the TCA cycle occur?
|
Mitochondria
|
|
Do genomic or cDNA libraries contain introns
|
exons
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in selective T cell immunodeficiency?
|
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
|
|
True or false? Adipose tissue lacks glycerol kinase.
|
True. Adipose depends on glucose uptake for dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) production for triglyceride synthesis.
|
|
In what form is excess folate stored in the body?
|
N-5-methyl THF
|
|
What is the term for taking an mRNA molecule and arranging the AA sequence forming a protein?
|
Translation
|
|
What enzyme is blocked by hydroxyurea?
|
Ribonucleotide reductase
|
|
What protein carries free fatty acids to the liver?
|
Albumin
|
|
What substrate is built up in Niemann-Pick disease?
|
Sphingomyelin
|
|
True or false? Methylation of bacterial DNA prevents restriction endonuclease from cutting its own chromosomes.
|
True. Restriction endonucleases cut only unmethylated DNA.
|
|
What two AAs have a pKa of 10?
|
Lysine and tyrosine
|
|
What is the only enzyme in the body that uses N-5-methyl folate?
|
Homocysteine methyl transferase
|
|
How can you differentiate vitamin K from vitamin C deficiency by bleeding time and PT levels?
|
Vitamin K deficiency has normal bleeding time and increased PT
|
|
What is the term for a unit of DNA that encodes a particular protein or RNA molecule?
|
A gene (a rather simple definition but accurate)
|
|
Is the coding or the template strand of DNA identical to mRNA (excluding the T/U difference)?
|
The coding strand is identical to mRNA
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in acute intermittent porphyria?
|
Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase
|
|
What five cofactors and coenzymes are required by pyruvate dehydrogenase?
|
1. TTP 2. Lipoic acid 3. Coenzyme A from pantothenate 4. NAD(H) (from niacin or tryptophan) 5. FADH2 (from riboflavin)
|
|
What pattern of genetic transmission affects only M and has no M-to-M transmission
|
and mother is usually an unaffected carrier?
|
|
To what does aldose reductase convert galactose?
|
Galactitol
|
|
Name three purine bases that are not found in nucleic acids.
|
Xanthine
|
|
What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated with cheilosis and magenta tongue?
|
Riboflavin (B2)
|
|
What is the precursor of all sphingolipids?
|
Ceramide
|
|
What three substances stimulate glycogenolysis?
|
1. Ca2+ : calmodulin ratio 2. Epinephrine 3. Glucagon
|
|
What is the primer for the synthesis of the second strand in production of cDNA from mRNA?
|
The hairpin loop made by reverse transcriptase at the 3' end of the first strand is the primer.
|
|
What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?
|
EF-Tu or EF-ts and GTP
|
|
What restriction endonuclease site is destroyed in sickle β-globin allele?
|
MstII; changing codon 6 (from A to T) destroys the restriction site.
|
|
What complex is needed for propionyl CoA carboxylase?
|
Biotin
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the reversible oxidative deamination of glutamate and produces the TCA cycle intermediate α-ketoglutarate?
|
Glutamate dehydrogenase
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in congenital erythropoietic porphyria?
|
Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase
|
|
What is the drug of choice for treating a patient with hyperuricemia due to overproduction of uric acid?
|
Allopurinol
|
|
What is the maximum rate possible with a given amount of enzyme?
|
Vmax
|
|
From what do catalase
|
superoxide dismutase
|
|
What signals are used to direct an enzyme to a lysosome?
|
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the urea cycle?
|
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
|
|
What liver enzyme
|
for triglyceride synthesis
|
|
What organ functions to keep blood glucose levels normal through both well-fed and fasting states and produces ketones in response to increased fatty acid oxidation?
|
Liver
|
|
What pattern of inheritance does G-6-PD deficiency follow?
|
X-linked recessive
|
|
What is the term for conversion of a dsDNA molecule to the base sequence of an ssRNA molecule?
|
Transcription (C comes before L in the alphabet
|
|
Via what cell surface receptor does HDL cholesterol from the periphery enter hepatoceles?
|
Scavenger receptor (SR-B1)
|
|
Which shuttle is used to bring fatty acyl CoA from the cytoplasm for ketogenesis?
|
Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II
|
|
What enzyme is blocked by 5-FU?
|
Thymidylate synthetase
|
|
What disease has a genetically low level of UDPglucuronate transferase
|
resulting in elevated free unconjugated bilirubin?
|
|
What AA has a pKa of 13?
|
Arginine
|
|
What X-linked recessive disorder is characterized by hyperuricemia
|
spastic cerebral palsy
|
|
How many ATPs per glucose are generated from glycolysis in RBCs?
|
2 ATPs
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in glycogenolysis?
|
Glycogen phosphorylase
|
|
Would a G-C or an A-T rich dsDNA sequence have a higher melting point? Why?
|
G-C rich sequences
|
|
As what AAs do muscles send nitrogen to the liver?
|
Alanine and glutamine
|
|
What sphingolipid cannot be produced without sialic acid and amino sugars?
|
Ganglioside
|
|
What happens to affinity if you increase Km?
|
Affinity decreases; they are inversely proportional.
|
|
What type of bilirubin is found in neonatal jaundice?
|
Indirect or unconjugated
|
|
What two AAs do not have more than one codon?
|
Methionine (start) and tryptophan are the only two AAs with only one codon.
|
|
What bonds are broken by exonucleases?
|
External 3'
|
|
How can a genetic deficiency of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase be differentiated from an ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency?
|
Uracil and orotic acid levels increase with ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency and are normal in carbamoyl phosphate synthetase deficiency.
|
|
Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo E
|
IDL
|
|
Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo B-100
|
LDL
|
|
Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo E
|
apo B-100
|
|
Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo A-1
|
apo E
|
|
Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo E
|
apo C-II
|
|
True or false? There is no hormonal control to the TCA cycle.
|
True. The energy status of the cell dictates if the cycle is running or relaxing.
|
|
What are the three tissues where triacylglycerols are produced?
|
1. Liver 2. Muscle 3. Adipose tissue
|
|
What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Gi to increase cAMP?
|
Pertussis toxin
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in heme synthesis?
|
δ-ALA synthase
|
|
What cycle is responsible for converting to glucose in the liver the lactate produced in the RBCs?
|
Cori cycle
|
|
What enzyme is used to remove the hairpin loop during production of cDNA from mRNA?
|
S1 nuclease
|
|
Does a saturated fatty acid have double bonds?
|
No
|
|
What pyrimidine base is found • Only in RNA?
|
Uracil
|
|
What pyrimidine base is found • Only in DNA?
|
Thymine
|
|
What pyrimidine base is found • In both DNA and RNA?
|
Cytosine
|
|
What two AAs require vitamin C for hydroxylation?
|
Proline and lysine
|
|
What is the only organ in the body that can produce ketone bodies?
|
The liver (in the mitochondria)
|
|
What determines the rate of reaction?
|
The energy of activation
|
|
What is the term for the number of trinucleotide repeats increasing with successive generations and correlating with increased severity of disease?
|
Anticipation
|
|
What enzyme is blocked by methotrexate/ trimethoprim?
|
Dihydrofolate reductase
|
|
What fructose metabolism enzyme is deficient in patients with vomiting
|
apathy
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in purine synthesis?
|
PRPP aminotransferase
|
|
What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated with poor wound healing
|
easy bruising
|
|
What three substrates control the enzyme PEPCK for the conversion of oxaloacetate (OAA) to pyruvate in the cytoplasm?
|
1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. GTP
|
|
What genetic defect is characterized by coarse facial features
|
gingival hyperplasia
|
|
What two glycolytic enzymes catalyze the substrate-level phosphorylations?
|
3-Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)
|
|
What pathway uses HMG CoA synthetase in the cytoplasm?
|
Cholesterol biosynthesis
|
|
Where in the body is heme converted to bilirubin?
|
RES(Reticular endothelial system)
|
|
What protein is required by prokaryotic RNA polymerases to initiate transcription at the promoter region of DNA?
|
Sigma factor
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in pyrimidine synthesis?
|
Aspartate transcarbamylase
|
|
What are the two actions of calcitonin?
|
It increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney and increases bone mineralization.
|
|
What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following? • Selective T-cell immunodeficiency
|
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
|
|
What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following? • SCID
|
Adenosine deaminase
|
|
What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following? • Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
|
HGPRT
|
|
In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle
|
where it is converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before being taken back to the liver?
|
|
What is the primary end product of pyrimidine synthesis?
|
UMP
|
|
What pyrimidine base is produced by deaminating cytosine?
|
Uracil
|
|
What AA is classified as basic even though its pK is 6.5 to 7?
|
Histidine
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in hereditary protoporphyria?
|
Ferrochelatase
|
|
What elongation factor is inactivated by ADP ribosylation
|
preventing translation?
|
|
Is linolenic acid an omega-3 or omega-6 fatty acid?
|
Omega-3; linoleic is omega-6
|
|
How many ATPs per glucose are generated in glycolysis?
|
38 ATPs if aerobic
|
|
Name the three ketone bodies.
|
Acetoacetate
|
|
What three bases are pyrimidines?
|
1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. Thymidine
|
|
Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • The most abundant form of RNA in the cell
|
rRNA
|
|
Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotes and functions to remove introns from mRNA
|
snRNA
|
|
Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • Only type of RNA that is translated
|
mRNA
|
|
Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • Carries AA to the ribosome for protein synthesis
|
tRNA
|
|
Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • RNA molecules with enzymatic activity
|
Ribozymes
|
|
Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and are precursors of mRNA
|
hnRNA
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? • von Gierke's disease
|
Glucose-6-phosphatase
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? • Pompe's disease
|
Lysosomal α-1
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? • McArdle's disease
|
Muscle glycogen phosphorylase
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? • Hers' disease
|
Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase
|
|
In prokaryotes
|
what is the term for a set of structural genes that code for a select group of proteins and the regulatory elements required for the expression of such gene?
|
|
What are the two most common AAs found in histones?
|
Lysine and arginine
|
|
What five pathways use SAM (S-adenosylmethionine) as the methyl donor?
|
1. Epinephrine synthesis 2. Phosphatidyl choline 3. Creatine 4. Methylation of cytosine 5. N-methyl cap of mRNA
|
|
What complex of the ETC contains Cu2+?
|
Complex 4
|
|
How many ATPs per glucose are produced by pyruvate dehydrogenase?
|
6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates per glucose are produced
|
|
What is the size of the prokaryotic ribosome?
|
70S ribosomes in prokaryotes and 80S ribosomes in eukaryotes
|
|
What type of fatty acid is associated with a decrease in serum triglycerides and cardiovascular disease?
|
Omega-3 fatty acids
|
|
What disease is produced by a deficiency in the enzyme tyrosinase?
|
Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the enzyme tyrosinase.
|
|
In what form are triglycerides sent to adipose tissue from the liver?
|
VLDLs
|
|
What determines the rate of a reaction?
|
The energy of activation (Ea)
|
|
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of the HMP shunt?
|
G-6-PD
|
|
What vitamin is necessary for the transfer of one amino group from a carbon skeleton to another?
|
Pyridoxal phosphate is derived from vitamin B6 and is needed to transfer the amino groups of one carbon skeleton to another.
|
|
What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and PO4?
|
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also
|
|
What protein catalyzes the formation of the last PDE bond between the Okazaki fragments to produce a continuous strand?
|
DNA ligase
|
|
What type of damage to the kidneys is caused by drinking ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?
|
Nephrotoxic oxylate stones
|
|
What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency may result from eating raw eggs?
|
Biotin (only if eaten in large quantities)
|
|
Regarding the Lac operon
|
for what do the following genes code? • Z gene
|
|
Regarding the Lac operon
|
for what do the following genes code? • Y gene
|
|
Regarding the Lac operon
|
for what do the following genes code? • I gene
|
|
Regarding the Lac operon
|
for what do the following genes code? • A gene
|
|
What attaches to protons and allows them to enter into the mitochondria without going through the ATP-generating system?
|
2
|
|
1-α-Hydroxylase activity is increased in response to what two physiologic states? (hint: think of vitamin D activity)
|
Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia
|
|
What is the major ketone body produced during alcoholic ketoacidosis?
|
β-Hydroxybutyrate
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the TCA cycle?
|
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
|
|
Name the pattern of genetic transmission characterized thus: both M and F are affected; M may transmit to M; each generation has at least one affected parent; and one mutant allele may produce the disease.
|
Autosomal dominant
|
|
What bonds are broken by endonucleases?
|
Internal 3'
|
|
Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: • Found in liver and pancreatic β-cells
|
GLUT 2
|
|
Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: • Found in skeletal muscle and adipose tissues
|
GLUT 4
|
|
Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: • Found in most tissues
|
including brain and RBCs
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty acid oxidation?
|
Carnitine acyltransferase-I
|
|
What enzyme of the TCA cycle also acts as complex II of the ETC?
|
Succinate dehydrogenase
|
|
What is the term for chemicals that keep the pH constant despite the formation of acids and bases during metabolism?
|
Buffers (remember that buffers are best when they are used in a pH range near its pK)
|
|
In the mitochondria
|
what complex is needed for pyruvate carboxylase to catalyze the reaction from pyruvate to OAA?
|
|
How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmic NADH oxidation using the malate shuttle?
|
3 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation
|
|
What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • Fatty acid synthesis
|
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
|
|
What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • β-Oxidation
|
Carnitine acyltransferase I
|
|
What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • Ketogenolysis
|
HMG CoA synthase
|
|
What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • Cholesterol synthesis
|
HMG CoA reductase
|
|
What direction does RNA polymerase move along the template strand of DNA during transcription?
|
3'-5' direction
|
|
True or false? Histidine activates the histidine operon.
|
False. Histidine operon is activated when there are low intracellular levels of histidine.
|
|
What organ is responsible for the elimination of excess nitrogen from the body?
|
The kidneys excrete the excess nitrogen from the body as urea in the urine.
|
|
What is the only way to increase maximum velocity (Vmax)?
|
Increase enzyme concentrations
|
|
Name the two purine bases found in both DNA and RNA.
|
Adenine and guanine
|
|
What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? • Tetracycline
|
EF-Tu and EF-Ts of the 30S ribosomal subunit
|
|
What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? • Erythromycin
|
EF-G of the 50S subunit
|
|
What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? • Streptomycin
|
IF-2 of the 30S subunit
|
|
True or false? DNA polymerases can correct mistakes
|
whereas RNA polymerases lack this ability.
|
|
What are the two precursors of heme?
|
Glycine and succinyl-CoA
|
|
What two factors cause PTH to be secreted?
|
A decrease in Ca2+ and an increase in PO4-
|
|
What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP shunt? Are the reactions they catalyze reversible or irreversible?
|
Transketolase and transaldolase. The reactions they catalyze are reversible.
|
|
What are the five AAs that are both ketogenic and glucogenic?
|
Isoleucine
|
|
What artificial sweetener must patients with PKU avoid?
|
Aspartame
|
|
Cri-du-chat syndrome results in a terminal deletion of the short arm of what chromosome?
|
Chromosome 5
|
|
What substrate gets built up in Gaucher's disease?
|
Glucosyl cerebroside
|
|
What protein prevents ssDNA from reannealing during DNA replication?
|
Single-strand DNA binding protein
|
|
What type of jaundice is seen in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
|
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia
|
|
What type of DNA library is made from the mRNA from a tissue expressing a particular gene?
|
cDNA libraries are derived from mRNA
|
|
What is the most common cause of vitamin B6 deficiency?
|
Isoniazid treatment
|
|
What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Gaucher's disease?
|
Glucocerebrosidase
|
|
What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Niemann-Pick disease?
|
Sphingomyelinase
|
|
What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Tay-Sachs disease?
|
Hexosaminidase A
|
|
What are the three exceptions to the rule of codominant gene expression?
|
Barr bodies in females
|
|
How many kilocalories per gram are produced from the degradation of fat? CHO? Protein?
|
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism
|
|
What is the only way to increase the Vmax of a reaction?
|
Increase the concentration of enzymes
|
|
From which two substances are phospholipids made?
|
Diacylglycerols and phosphatidic acid
|
|
What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into the TCA cycle?
|
Succinyl CoA
|
|
What vitamin is an important component of rhodopsin?
|
Vitamin A
|
|
What is the term to describe the 5'-3' sequence of one strand being the same as the opposite 5'-3' strand?
|
Palindrome
|
|
What gluconeogenic enzyme is absent in muscle
|
accounting for its inability to use glycogen as a source for blood glucose?
|
|
What is the term for vitamin D deficiency prior to epiphyseal fusion?
|
Rickets prior to fusion
|
|
In what disease is there a genetic absence of UDP-glucuronate transferase
|
resulting in an increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?
|
|
What enzyme requires molybdenum as a cofactor?
|
Xanthine oxidase
|
|
At what three sites can the HMP shunt enter into glycolysis?
|
1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
|
|
What is the term for the pH range where the dissociation of H+ occurs?
|
pK (think of it as where half is base and half is acid)
|
|
What regulates the rate of ketone body formation?
|
The rate of β-oxidation
|
|
What are the eight liver-specific enzymes?
|
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1
|
|
How many bases upstream is the eukaryotic TATA box promoter?
|
There are two eukaryotic upstream promoters. The TATA box is -25 base pairs upstream; the CAAT box is -75 bases upstream.
|
|
What is needed to initiate translation?
|
IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)
|
|
What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
|
16S subunit
|
|
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Barbiturates
|
Complex I
|
|
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Antimycin A
|
Cytochrome b/c1
|
|
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Cyanide
|
Cytochrome a/a3
|
|
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Oligomycin
|
Fo/F1 complex
|
|
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Atractyloside
|
ATP/ADP Translocase
|
|
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • CO
|
Cytochrome a/a3
|
|
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Rotenone
|
Complex I
|
|
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Azide
|
Cytochrome a/a3
|
|
What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • Serotonin
|
Tryptophan
|
|
What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • GABA
|
Glutamate
|
|
What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • Histamine
|
Histidine
|
|
What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • Creatine
|
Glycine/arginine
|
|
What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • NAD
|
Tryptophan
|
|
What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • N2O
|
Arginine
|
|
What two enzymes are vitamin B12-dependent
|
Homocysteine methyl transferase and methylmalonyl CoA transferase
|
|
What two post-transcriptional enzymes in collagen synthesis require ascorbic acid to function properly?
|
Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases
|
|
What three organs participate in production of vitamin D?
|
1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
|
|
What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated with neural tube defects in the fetus?
|
Folic acid
|
|
What phase of Interphase is haploid (N)?
|
G1 phase; G2 and S phase are diploid (2N).
|
|
What neurotransmitter inhibits the optic nerve bipolar cell and shuts off in response to light?
|
Glutamate
|
|
Which of the following—DNA methylating enzymes
|
scaffolding proteins
|
|
Name the pattern of genetic transmission characterized thus: both M and F affected; no M-to-M transmission; affected M passes trait to all daughters
|
every generation; affected F passes trait to both sons and daughters; a single mutant allele can produce the disease.
|
|
What fat-soluble vitamin is connected to selenium metabolism?
|
Vitamin E
|
|
Why are eukaryotes unable to perform transcription and translation at the same time like prokaryotes?
|
In eukaryotes transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm.
|
|
What is determined by the secondary structure of an AA?
|
The folding of an AA chain
|
|
What three vitamin deficiencies are associated with homocystinemia?
|
Folate
|
|
If the pH is more acidic than the pI
|
does the protein carry a net positive or net negative charge?
|
|
What form of continuous DNA
|
used in cloning
|
|
What is the start codon
|
and what does it code for in eukaryotes? Prokaryotes?
|
|
What parasite found in raw fish can produce vitamin B12 deficiency?
|
Diphyllobothrium latum
|
|
Methylating uracil produces what pyrimidine base?
|
Thymine
|
|
Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: • Synthesizes tRNA
|
snRNA
|
|
Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: • Synthesizes hnRNA
|
mRNA
|
|
Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: • Synthesizes 28S
|
18S and 5.8S rRNAs
|
|
What is the primary screening test used to detect HIV-infected individuals? Confirmatory test?
|
ELISA is used as a screening test because it is very sensitive; Western blot is used as a confirmatory test because it detects antibodies (protein) to the HIV virus.
|
|
How many covalent bonds per purine-pyrimidine base pairing are broken during denaturation of dsDNA?
|
None. Denaturation of dsDNA breaks hydrogen bonds
|
|
How many hydrogen bonds link A-T? C-G?
|
A-T are linked by 2 hydrogen bonds
|
|
What DNA replication enzyme breaks the hydrogen bond of base pairing
|
forming two replication forks?
|
|
What test is done to diagnose CGD?
|
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.
|
|
What is the valence of an Ig molecule equal to?
|
The number of Ags that the Ab can bind
|
|
What is the name of the process that ensures that each B cell produces only one heavy-chain variable domain and one light chain?
|
Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell produces only one Ab.
|
|
What is the major Ab of the primary immune response?
|
IgM
|
|
What form of immunity is responsible for removal of intracellular infections?
|
Cell-mediated immunity
|
|
True or false? Direct fluorescent Ab test is used to detect Abs in a patient?
|
False. Direct tests detect Ags; indirect tests detect Abs.
|
|
What is the triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
|
Thrombocytopenia
|
|
What complement factor deficiency leads to • Increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?
|
C3 deficiency
|
|
What complement factor deficiency leads to • Recurrent gonococcal infections?
|
C5-C8 deficiency
|
|
What complement factor deficiency leads to • Leukocyte adhesion deficiency with poor opsonization?
|
C1
|
|
What complement factor deficiency leads to • Hereditary angioedema?
|
C1 inhibitor (C1-INH)
|
|
Which IgG cannot activate complement?
|
IgG4
|
|
Name the T-cell CD marker: • Essential for Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding)
|
CD40 ligand
|
|
Name the T-cell CD marker: • Interacts with MHC class I molecules
|
CD8
|
|
Name the T-cell CD marker: • Expressed on all T cells and is needed as a signal transducer for the T cell receptor
|
CD3
|
|
Name the T-cell CD marker: • Interacts with MHC class II molecules
|
CD4
|
|
Name the T-cell CD marker: Is a costimulatory molecule in T cell activation
|
CD28
|
|
What three cells are essential for T-cell differentiation in the thymus?
|
Dendritic cells
|
|
What is the only specific Ag-presenting cell?
|
B cells; macrophages and dendritic cells are nonspecific.
|
|
What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
|
Rigors
|
|
What is the name of the B cell that secretes Ig?
|
Plasma cell (mature B lymphocyte)
|
|
What would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with papain?
|
There would be two Fab and Fc regions.
|
|
What is the bone marrow maturation time for a phagocytic cell?
|
14 days
|
|
Which leukotrienes are associated with the late-phase inflammatory response?
|
LTC4 and LTD4
|
|
What is the term for the strength of the association between Ag and an Ab?
|
Affinity (one of each)
|
|
True or false? More Ag is needed to produce a secondary immune response than a first immune response.
|
False. Fewer Ags are needed to trigger a secondary response.
|
|
What is the term for the strength of association between multiple Abbinding sites and multiple antigenic determinants?
|
Avidity (more than one binding site)
|
|
What Ig mediates ADCC via K cells
|
opsonizes
|
|
What test is used to detect anti-RBC Abs seen in hemolytic anemia?
|
Coombs test
|
|
What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class I Ags?
|
CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic) Remember
|
|
What cell surface marker is found on activated helper T cells?
|
CD40
|
|
What are the five Ig isotypes?
|
IgA
|
|
Which integrin mediates the adhesion to endothelial cells for migration in and out of the blood during an immune response?
|
Beta2-integrins
|
|
What type of hypersensitivity is an Ab-mediated response against our own cells
|
receptors
|
|
What is the term to describe the limited portion of an Ag that is recognized by an Ab?
|
Antigenic determinant (epitope)
|
|
What cytokine do Th1 cells secrete to inhibit Th2 cell function?
|
INF-gamma
|
|
What three cells are essential for T-cell maturation?
|
Thymic epithelial cells
|
|
What is the term for a single isolated antigenic determinant?
|
Hapten (not immunogenic)
|
|
What are the two opsonizing factors?
|
The Fc region of IgG and C3b
|
|
What is the most common Ig deficiency?
|
IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI disturbances.
|
|
What is the name of the B cell-rich area of the spleen?
|
Primary follicle (in the white pulp)
|
|
What IL
|
produced by macrophages
|
|
What Ig prevents bacterial adherence to mucosal surfaces?
|
IgA
|
|
What are the three rules of clonal selection?
|
1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection of hypervariable regions
|
|
What is a plasma cell's life expectancy?
|
7 to 14 days
|
|
What are defined by Ag-binding specificity?
|
Idiotypes
|
|
What type of binding occurs with one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?
|
Affinity
|
|
What molecule that is needed to trigger T cell activation is noncovalently linked to TCR?
|
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation
|
|
What is the term for Ags that activate B cells without T-cell signaling?
|
Thymus-independent Ags
|
|
What are the three rules governing a secondary immune response?
|
1. Covalent bonding between the hapten and carrier 2. B-cell exposure to hapten twice 3. T-cell exposure to carrier twice
|
|
What type of hypersensitivity is a T cell-mediated response to Ags that are not activated by Ab or complement?
|
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type because of the 48-96 hour latency)
|
|
Name the macrophages by location: • Liver
|
Kupffer cells
|
|
Name the macrophages by location: • Lungs
|
Alveolar macrophages
|
|
Name the macrophages by location: • CNS
|
Microglial cells
|
|
Name the macrophages by location: • Kidney
|
Mesangial macrophages
|
|
What is the first human disease successfully treated with gene therapy?
|
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
|
|
What receptors are the best markers for NK cells?
|
CD16 and CD56
|
|
True or false? Ag-Ab binding is irreversible
|
False. It is reversible because the Ags and Abs are not linked covalently.
|
|
What three major cell lines participate in the acquired immune system?
|
T cells
|
|
What test is used to screen for HIV?
|
ELISA. It detects anti-p24 IgG.
|
|
During what stage of B-cell development is IgM first seen on the surface?
|
Immature B cells
|
|
What Ig is responsible for Antibody-Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity of parasites
|
has a high-affinity Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils
|
|
True or false? B-cell Ag receptors can be secreted.
|
True. B cell antigen receptors are Abs.
|
|
Are more Abs produced in a primary or a secondary immune response?
|
More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary immune response (shorter lag period).
|
|
By which process do Abs make microorganisms more easily ingested via phagocytosis?
|
Opsonization
|
|
What MHC class acts to remove foreign Ags from the body?
|
MHC class II Ags. This is accomplished via CD4 T cells.
|
|
What disorder is characterized by autoantibodies to IF?
|
Pernicious anemia
|
|
What cytokines do Th2 cells secrete to inhibit Th1 cell function?
|
IL-4
|
|
What is the term for the number of Ag-binding sites on an Ig?
|
Valence
|
|
Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen?
|
RBCs. That is why it is called red pulp.
|
|
What is the name of the pathway that produces leukotrienes?
|
Lipoxygenase pathway
|
|
What is the term to describe basophils that have left the bloodstream and entered a tissue?
|
Mast cells
|
|
What are the three major functions of secretory IgA?
|
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases
|
|
What IL is important in myeloid cell development?
|
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)
|
|
What is the term for different classes and subclasses of the same gene products?
|
Isotypes
|
|
What is the first Ab a baby makes?
|
IgM
|
|
What test
|
by using specific Abs to different receptors
|
|
What is the name of the T cell-rich area of the spleen?
|
PALS (Parietolateral lymphocytic sheath)
|
|
What three complement fragments are also anaphylatoxins?
|
C3a
|
|
Name the B-cell CD marker: • Required for class switching signals from T cells
|
CD40
|
|
Name the B-cell CD marker: • Receptor for EBV
|
CD21; it is a complement receptor for cleaved C3
|
|
Name the B-cell CD marker: • Used clinically to count B cells in blood
|
CD19
|
|
What immunologic test checks for a reaction between Abs and a particular Ag? (hint: ABO typing)
|
Agglutination test
|
|
Which leukotriene is chemotactic for neutrophils?
|
LTB4
|
|
What Ig is associated with mucosal surfaces and external secretions?
|
IgA
|
|
What are the genetic variants of a molecule within members of the same species?
|
Allotypes
|
|
What cytokine do CD4 T cells secrete to activate B cells when the specific peptide in the groove of the MHC II molecule interacts with the TCR?
|
IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the second step in the immune response
|
|
Which protein prevents internal binding of self proteins within an MHC class II cell?
|
Invariant chain
|
|
What would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with pepsin?
|
There would be a Fab' region; thus
|
|
Why are patients with Chronic Granulomatous Disease not prone to develop infections from catalase-negative bacteria?
|
Catalase-negative bacteria secrete H2O2 as a byproduct (remember
|
|
What are the two chains of the TCR that are mainly found on the skin and mucosal surfaces?
|
gamma and delta chains
|
|
Which IL is associated with increases of IgG and IgE?
|
IL-4
|
|
What branch of the immune system is acquired in response to an Ag?
|
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.
|
|
True or false? T cells can recognize
|
bind
|
|
What type of hypersensitivity is a result of high circulating levels of soluble immune complexes made up of IgG or IgM Abs?
|
Type III hypersensitivity reaction
|
|
At what stage of B-cell development can IgM or IgD be expressed on the cell surface?
|
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG
|
|
What T cell deficiency syndrome is associated with facial anomalies
|
hypoparathyroidism
|
|
What is the stimulus for the classical pathway activation?
|
Ag-Ab complexes. The alternative pathway protects without use of Abs; the pathogen is the stimulus.
|
|
What is the first membrane-bound Ig on B cell membranes?
|
IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.
|
|
What region of the Ig does not change with class switching?
|
Hypervariable region
|
|
In MHC class II molecules
|
what chain blocks access to the peptide-binding groove during transportation within the cell
|
|
What chromosome codes for HLA gene products?
|
The short arm of chromosome 6
|
|
What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear in heterophil-positive mononucleosis?
|
T cells
|
|
What is the major Ig of the secondary immune response in the mucosal barriers?
|
IgA
|
|
What AR disorder is seen by age 1 to 2 with recurrent sinopulmonary infections
|
uncoordinated muscle movements
|
|
What are the four chemotactic agents?
|
1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides
|
|
What subset of CD4 helper T cells stimulate B-cell division and differentiation?
|
Th2
|
|
Which region of the variable domain comprises the Ag-binding site of the Ab?
|
Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)
|
|
True or false? The increased oxygen consumption after phagocytosis is for ATP production.
|
False; it is for the production of toxic metabolites.
|
|
What is the limited portion of a large Ag that will actually be recognized and bound to an Ab and that contains approximately five to six amino acids or four to five hexose units?
|
Antigenic determinant (epitope). (Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)
|
|
What complement factor or factors are associated with • Chemotaxis?
|
C5a
|
|
What complement factor or factors are associated with • Membrane attack complex (MAC)?
|
C5-C9
|
|
What complement factor or factors are associated with • Opsonization?
|
C3b
|
|
What complement factor or factors are associated with • Anaphylaxis?
|
C3a
|
|
What happens to the Ab specificity when class switching occurs in mature B cells?
|
As the isotype is switched
|
|
What IL down-regulates cell mediated immunity?
|
IL-10
|
|
Name the type of graft described by these transplants: • From one site to another on the same person
|
Autograft
|
|
Name the type of graft described by these transplants: Between genetically identical individuals
|
Isograft
|
|
Name the type of graft described by these transplants: • From one person to the next (the same species)
|
Allograft
|
|
Name the type of graft described by these transplants: • From one species to another
|
Xenograft
|
|
What is the name of the process in which cells migrate toward an attractant along a concentration gradient?
|
Chemotaxis
|
|
What are the two functions of the thymus in T-cell differentiation?
|
Hormone secretion for T-cell differentiation and T-cell education to recognize self from nonself
|
|
What is the name of the T cell-rich area of the lymph node?
|
Paracortex
|
|
What cell surface marker do all T cells have?
|
CD3
|
|
True or false? Patients with common variable hypogammaglobinemia have B cells in the peripheral blood.
|
True. Common variable hypogammaglobinemia first appears by the time patients reach their 20s and is associated with a gradual decrease in Ig levels over time.
|
|
What is the Ig associated with the primary immune response?
|
IgM
|
|
What MHC class of antigens do all nucleated cells carry on their surface membranes?
|
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.
|
|
What Ig is responsible for activation of complement
|
opsonization
|
|
What type of Ag do T cells recognize?
|
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
|
|
What Ig is the major protective factor in colostrum?
|
IgA
|
|
What is the second cell involved in the immune response?
|
The CD4 T cell; the APC is the first cell in the immune response.
|
|
What is the term for thymic induction of T cells with high-affinity Ag receptors for self that are programmed to undergo apoptosis?
|
Negative selection. This helps to prevent autoimmune diseases.
|
|
What five main oxidizing reactions are used to kill ingested organisms?
|
1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. Myeloperoxidase 5. Hypochlorous acid
|
|
What Ig is associated with ADCC for parasites?
|
IgE
|
|
True or false? RBCs do not have MHC class I Ags on their surface.
|
True. Remember
|
|
What Ig is associated with mast cell and basophil binding?
|
IgE. It attaches via receptor for the Fc region of the heavy epsilon chain
|
|
What IL do T cells secrete to induce T-and B-cell division?
|
IL-2. T cells express IL-2 receptors on their surface to induce self-expression.
|
|
Development of what T cell line follows low affinity for self-MHC class II Ags in the thymus?
|
CD4+T cells
|
|
What is the term for a substance secreted by a leukocyte in response to a stimulus?
|
Cytokine. If a cytokine affects another class of leukocytes
|
|
What subset of CD4 T cells is responsible for mast cell and eosinophil precursor proliferation?
|
Th2 cells
|
|
What are the four major functions of the acquired immune system?
|
1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify via cell division or complementation 3. Control the level of the response 4. Remove foreign material
|
|
What endotoxin receptor is the best marker for macrophages?
|
CD14
|
|
What is the term for the inherent ability to induce a specific immune response?
|
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance.
|
|
What molecule differentiates the MHC class I from II Ag? (Hint: it's in the light chain.)
|
The Beta-2-microglobin. It is the separately encoded Beta-chain for class I Ags.
|
|
What B cell disorder is characterized by pre-B cells in the bone marrow
|
no circulating B cells in plasma
|
|
What subtype of IgG does not bind to staphylococcal A protein?
|
IgG3
|
|
What mast cell mediator is a chemotactic agent?
|
Eosinophil chemotactic factor A
|
|
What is the major Ig of the secondary immune response?
|
IgG
|
|
What T-cell surface projection recognizes and reacts to foreign Ags (presented by APCs)?
|
TCR
|
|
What is the confirmatory test for HIV?
|
Western blot
|
|
What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from • Neutrophils?
|
Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)
|
|
What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from • Macrophages?
|
IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF-gamma also)
|
|
What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from • The blood serum? (Hint: it is a complement factor.)
|
C5a
|
|
What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from • Bacteria?
|
F-Met-Peptides
|
|
What cell surface marker is found on blood B cells?
|
CD19
|
|
What is the name of the B cell-rich area in the lymph node?
|
Primary follicle of the cortex
|
|
What are the four ways to down-regulate the immune system?
|
1. Decrease concentrations of Ag levels 2. Administer IgG in high concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells with Ag bound to IgG (complexes) 4. Turn off the original T or B cell with anti-Ab
|
|
What is the only Ig that crosses the placenta?
|
IgG
|
|
What is given to pregnant women within 24 hours after birth to eliminate Rh+ fetal blood cells from their circulation?
|
Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
|
|
What IL is essential for lymphoid cell development?
|
IL-7 (A 7 upside down is an L; L is for Lymphoid)
|
|
What type of cell can never leave the lymph node?
|
Plasma cell
|
|
Via what pathway is glycolysis increased after phagocytosis?
|
HMP shunt
|
|
What is the term for a delay in the onset of normal IgG synthesis seen in the fifth to sixth month of life?
|
Transient hypogammaglobinemia of infancy; it usually resolves by age 16 to 30 months.
|
|
What subset of CD4 helper T-cell function is helping the development of CD8 T cells?
|
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed-type hypersensitivity (type IV)
|
|
What is the term for the strength of the association between Ags and Abs?
|
Avidity. There is a positive correlation between valence numbers and avidity.
|
|
What type of Ag do B cells recognize?
|
Free
|
|
What Ig is associated with Ag recognition receptor on the surface of mature B cells?
|
IgD; IgM is also correct.
|
|
Which chromosome is associated with MHC genes?
|
Chromosome 6
|
|
What is the term for processing an APC's pinocytosed material by fusing with a lysosomal granule and cleaving the Ag into peptide fragments?
|
Ag processing; it is needed for class I molecules. Class II molecules have an invariant chain that protects them from breakdown.
|
|
What is the most common precipitin test used in clinical medicine?
|
Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig levels.
|
|
What Ig activates the complement cascade most efficiently?
|
IgM
|
|
What assay is used to identify MHC class I molecules?
|
Microcytotoxic assay
|
|
Which IL increases IgA synthesis?
|
IL-5. It also stimulates eosinophil proliferation.
|
|
What is the term for an immunogenic agent that is too small to elicit an immune response?
|
Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier
|
|
What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directed against ACh receptors?
|
Myasthenia gravis
|
|
What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directed against platelet integrin?
|
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
|
|
What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies against the type IV collagen in the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs?
|
Goodpasture syndrome
|
|
What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directed against the TSH receptor?
|
Graves disease
|
|
What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directed against RBC Ag I?
|
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
|
|
What Ig activates the alternate pathway
|
neutralizes bacterial endotoxins and viruses
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in patients with CGD?
|
NADPH oxidase is deficient
|
|
What subtype of IgG does not activate complement cascade?
|
IgG4
|
|
What two cell lines of the immune system do not belong to the innate branch?
|
T and B-cells belong to the adaptive branch
|
|
What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class II Ags?
|
CD4+ T cells (helper)
|
|
What T cell line arises from low affinity for self-MHC class I Ags in the thymus?
|
CD8+ T cells
|
|
What MHC class functions as a target for elimination of abnormal host cells?
|
MHC class I Ags (the endogenous pathway). This allows the body to eliminate tumor cells
|
|
What are the three polymorphonuclear leukocytes? Be specific.
|
Neutrophils
|
|
What disease is associated with the HLA-A3 allele
|
Primary Hemochromatosis
|
|
What diseases are associated with the HLA-B27 allele
|
Psoriasis
|
|
What disease is associated with the HLA-DR2 and HLA-DR3 alleles
|
Systemic lupus erythematosus
|
|
What diseases are associated with the HLA-DR3 allele
|
Sjogren's syndrome
|
|
What diseases are associated with HLA-DR4
|
Rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes (with HLA-DR3)
|
|
What does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it from other fungi?
|
It forms a germinal tube at 37°C.
|
|
What protozoal parasite results in dysentery with blood and pus in the stool
|
is transmitted via fecal-oral route
|
|
What is the most likely causative organism for a patient with folliculitis after spending time in a hot tub?
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
What two viruses get their envelope not from budding but from coding?
|
HIV and poxvirus
|
|
Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular carcinoma?
|
Hepatitis B
|
|
Gas gangrene is associated with which Clostridium species?
|
Clostridium perfrigens
|
|
Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the Upper Great Lakes
|
Ohio
|
|
Which parasitic organism
|
when it crosses the placenta
|
|
What staphylococcal species is positive for Beta-hemolysis and coagulase?
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
What vector is associated with malaria?
|
Anopheles mosquito
|
|
What is the term for hyphae with constrictions at each septum that are commonly seen in Candida albicans?
|
Pseudohyphae
|
|
Which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid cyst disease?
|
Echinococcus multilocularis
|
|
Which hepatitis virus is in the Flaviviridae family?
|
Hepatitis C
|
|
What nonmotile gram-negative
|
non-lactose-fermenting facultative anaerobic rod uses the human colon as its only reservoir and is transmitted by fecal-oral spread?
|
|
What is the only Rickettsia that is stable in the environment?
|
Coxiella burnetii
|
|
Regarding the viral growth curve
|
is the internal virus present before or after the eclipse period?
|
|
What Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for hepatitis?
|
HBc Ab
|
|
What small gram-positive
|
non-spore-forming rod is a facultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is associated with unpasteurized milk products?
|
|
What is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral?
|
Poxvirus
|
|
Which organism causes trench mouth?
|
Fusobacterium
|
|
True or false? All of the following are inactivated vaccines available in the United States: influenza
|
Vibrio cholera
|
|
Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information: No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern; associated with cerebral malaria
|
Plasmodium falciparum
|
|
Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72-hour fever spike pattern
|
Plasmodium malariae
|
|
Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites with oval
|
jagged infected RBCs; 48-hour fever spike pattern
|
|
Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information: Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48-hour fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide
|
Plasmodium vivax
|
|
True or false? A positive PPD skin test indicates the patient has active pulmonary disease.
|
False. The PPD tests exposure to TB.
|
|
What viral infection is known to cause intracerebral calcifications?
|
CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a parasite.
|
|
What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?
|
HPVs 16 and 18
|
|
What motile
|
gram-negative spiral bacillus with flagella is oxidase positive
|
|
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion?
|
GP41
|
|
What Ag is needed to diagnose an infectious patient with hepatitis B?
|
HBeAg
|
|
Which organism causes multiple infections by antigen switching?
|
Borrelia recurrentis
|
|
What is the first Ag seen in an individual with hepatitis?
|
HBsAg (incubation period)
|
|
With which DNA virus are Guarnieri bodies associated?
|
Variola (smallpox)
|
|
What nematode is known as pinworms? What is the treatment?
|
Enterobius vermicularis; the treatment is albendazole.
|
|
What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the respiratory epithelium?
|
P1 protein
|
|
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Day care-associated diarrhea in infants
|
Rotavirus
|
|
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Watery diarrhea from beef
|
poultry
|
|
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Rice water stools
|
Vibrio cholera
|
|
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Diarrhea associated with raw or undercooked shellfish
|
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
|
|
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Bloody diarrhea associated with hamburger ingestion
|
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli
|
|
Which fungus is found worldwide on plants
|
is a cigar-shaped yeast in tissue form
|
|
Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?
|
Hepatitis A (infectious)
|
|
What gram-positive rod is distinguished by its tumbling motility?
|
Listeria
|
|
What is the vector for Leishmania infections?
|
The sandfly
|
|
What is the term of the viral growth period when no viruses can be found intracellularly?
|
Eclipse period
|
|
What organism causes Q fever?
|
Coxiella burnetii
|
|
What are the three naked RNA viruses?
|
1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3. Reovirus (Remember PCR)
|
|
HIV's capsid
|
core nucleocapsid
|
|
What facultative intracellular fungus is associated with hepatosplenomegaly?
|
Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of the RES and can result in hepatosplenomegaly.
|
|
What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?
|
Hepatitis E
|
|
Which gram-negative diplococcus ferments maltose?
|
Meningococcus (Gonococcus does not)
|
|
Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a prion?
|
No. Prions are infectious proteins
|
|
What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's disease?
|
Bacillus anthracis
|
|
What picornavirus is associated with hand-foot-and-mouth disease?
|
Coxsackie A
|
|
What is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic?
|
Schistosoma have separate males and females.
|
|
What water-associated organism is a weakly stained gram-negative rod that requires cysteine and iron for growth?
|
Legionella (think air conditioners)
|
|
With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?
|
EBV
|
|
True or false? Interferons are eukaryotic proteins that inhibit viral replication by being virus specific.
|
False. Interferons are produced by virally infected cells to inhibit viral replication via RNA endonucleases. They do not act directly on the virus
|
|
What is the vector for yellow fever?
|
Aedes mosquito
|
|
What small
|
facultative gram-negative intracellular rod's transmission is associated with unpasteurized dairy products and undulant fever?
|
|
True or false? All Proteus species are urease positive.
|
TRUE
|
|
Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? • Nails and skin only
|
Epidermophyton
|
|
Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? • Hair and skin only
|
Microsporum
|
|
Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? • Skin
|
hair
|
|
What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect to determine whether a patient is HIV positive?
|
P24
|
|
What genus of bacteria is described by catalase-positive
|
gram-positive cocci in clusters?
|
|
True or false? Vibrio parahaemolyticus require NaCl in its growth medium.
|
True. Staphylococcus aureus and group D enterococci also grow in high-salt media.
|
|
What virus causes small pink benign wartlike tumors and is associated with HIV-positive patients?
|
Molluscum contagiosum
|
|
What two bacteria are associated with drinking unpasteurized milk?
|
Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling motility)
|
|
What cestode causes cysticercosis?
|
Taenia solium
|
|
What DNA virus is associated with exanthem subitum (roseola)?
|
HHV 6
|
|
Which acid-fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite?
|
Mycobacterium leprae
|
|
What form of the Plasmodium species is ingested by mosquitoes?
|
Gametocytes
|
|
What small gram-negative aerobic rod requires Regan-Lowe or Bordet- Gengou medium for growth?
|
Bordetella pertussis
|
|
True or false? Streptococci have catalase.
|
False. Staphylococci have catalase; streptococci do not.
|
|
What three bacteria are positive to quellung reactive test?
|
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps
|
vomiting
|
|
True or false? All spore formers are gram positive.
|
TRUE
|
|
What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase enzyme?
|
Hepadnavirus
|
|
What enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the host?
|
Integrase
|
|
What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?
|
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
|
|
What gram-positive spore-forming anaerobic rod blocks the release of ACh at the NMJ
|
resulting in reversible flaccid paralysis?
|
|
Name three products of HIV's pol gene.
|
Protease
|
|
What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?
|
Hypnozoite
|
|
What small coagulase-positive
|
gram-negative rod with bipolar staining is a facultative intracellular parasite resulting in buboes?
|
|
What hemoflagellate species is the cause of Chagas disease?
|
Trypanosoma cruzi
|
|
To what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach?
|
ACh receptor
|
|
Which hepatitis virus is in the Picornaviridae family?
|
Hepatitis A
|
|
Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity?
|
Abs to HBsAg
|
|
What type of spore is defined as an asexual budding daughter yeast cell?
|
Blastoconidia
|
|
Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi
|
bacteria
|
|
Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi
|
bacteria
|
|
Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi
|
bacteria
|
|
Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi
|
bacteria
|
|
What mosquito is the vector for dengue fever?
|
Aedes (the same for yellow fever)
|
|
True or false? Gonococcus is encapsulated.
|
False. Meningococcus is encapsulated; Gonococcus is not.
|
|
What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?
|
Variola virus (Smallpox)
|
|
Regarding the viral growth curve
|
is the external virus present before or after the latent period?
|
|
What aerobic branching rod that is gram positive and partially acid-fast is associated with cavitary bronchopulmonary disease in immunosuppressed patients?
|
Nocardia asteroides
|
|
What obligate extracellular fungus is silver stain-positive and is associated with pneumonia in patients with AIDS?
|
Pneumocystis carinii
|
|
What Vi-encapsulated gram-negative motile anaerobic rod that produces H2S is associated with enteric fever
|
gastroenteritis
|
|
What is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a patient who was cut by an oyster shell?
|
Vibrio vulnificus
|
|
What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?
|
Calicivirus
|
|
Describe the organism based on the following information: • Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus; positive cAMP test; hydrolyzes hippurate
|
Streptococcus agalactiae
|
|
Describe the organism based on the following information: • Alpha-Hemolytic Streptococcus; lysed by bile; sensitive to Optochin
|
Pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae)
|
|
Describe the organism based on the following information: • Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus; not lysed by bile; not sensitive to Optochin
|
Streptococcus viridans
|
|
Describe the organism based on the following information: • Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus sensitive to bacitracin
|
Streptococcus pyogenes
|
|
What is the only nonmotile pathogenic Clostridium species?
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
If a virus has positive sense RNA
|
can it be used as mRNA or is a template needed?
|
|
Where do adult tapeworms develop
|
in the intermediate or definitive host?
|
|
Which streptococcal species is characterized by being catalase negative
|
turning bile esculin agar black
|
|
What three carcinomas are associated with EBV?
|
1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 3. Thymic carcinoma
|
|
Which organism causes trench fever?
|
Rochalimaea quintana (now called Bartonella quintana)
|
|
Based on the onset of the symptoms
|
how are bacterial conjunctivitis from Neisseria and Chlamydia differentiated?
|
|
What toxin
|
produced by Clostridium tetani
|
|
True or false? All of the following are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States: measles
|
mumps
|
|
What family do the following viruses belong to? • Ebola
|
Filovirus
|
|
What family do the following viruses belong to? • California encephalitis
|
Bunyavirus
|
|
What family do the following viruses belong to? • Hantavirus
|
Bunyavirus
|
|
What family do the following viruses belong to? • Rabies
|
Rhabdovirus
|
|
What family do the following viruses belong to? • RSV
|
Paramyxovirus
|
|
What family do the following viruses belong to? • Measles
|
Paramyxovirus
|
|
What microaerophile is a motile gram-negative curved rod with polar flagella that causes infectious diarrhea at low doses (<500)?
|
Campylobacter jejuni
|
|
What bacterium is diagnosed using the Dieterle silver stain?
|
Legionella
|
|
How many strains of Pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides are present in the vaccine?
|
The vaccine contains 23 capsular polysaccharides.
|
|
What nematode is known as whipworms? What is the treatment?
|
Trichuris trichiura is treated with albendazole.
|
|
Which Streptococcus pyogenes toxin is immunogenic?
|
Streptolysin O
|
|
A urethral swab of a patient shows gram-negative diplococci in PMNs; what organism do you diagnose?
|
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
|
|
A suspected dermatophyte infection is stained with KOH. What spore type do you expect to see?
|
Arthroconidia with hyphae
|
|
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with cough
|
coryza
|
|
Which M-protein strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with acute glomerulonephritis?
|
M12 strains
|
|
What are the three C's of measles?
|
1. Cough 2. Coryza 3. Conjunctivitis
|
|
What is the term given to arthropod-borne viruses?
|
Arboviruses (bunyavirus
|
|
Which organism causes Weil's disease?
|
Leptospira
|
|
What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?
|
Sporozoites
|
|
What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA?
|
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)
|
|
What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?
|
The tsetse fly
|
|
What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?
|
Reverse transcriptase
|
|
What non-spore-forming gram-positive aerobic rod produces bull neck
|
sore throat with pseudomembranes
|
|
What organism is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
|
Diphyllobothrium latum
|
|
What is the most serious form of tinea capitis
|
which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?
|
|
What are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes?
|
Snails
|
|
What are the four capsular polysaccharides used in the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?
|
Y
|
|
What is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?
|
Cryptococcus
|
|
What type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae?
|
Conidia
|
|
What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?
|
Plasmodium malariae; the others are tertian.
|
|
Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? • Red pigmentation
|
Serratia
|
|
Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? • Black-gray pigmentation
|
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
|
|
Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? • Pyocyanin (blue-green)
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? • Yellow pigmentation
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
Which carcinoma—Burkitt's lymphoma
|
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
|
|
What capsular serotype is associated with Escherichia coli- induced meningitis?
|
K1 capsule
|
|
What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?
|
HBsAg and HBeAg
|
|
In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection
|
which Abs do you see?
|
|
True or false? All streptococci are catalase-negative
|
TRUE
|
|
In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?
|
The first trimester
|
|
What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?
|
Vesicular stomatitis virus
|
|
Which gram-negative diplococcus grows on chocolate agar? Thayer- Martin medium?
|
Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar
|
|
Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a positive whiff test with KOH staining?
|
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)
|
|
Name the DNA virus • Linear dsDNA; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; replicates in the cytoplasm :
|
Poxvirus
|
|
Name the DNA virus • Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
|
Herpes virus
|
|
Name the DNA virus: • Linear dsDNA; naked; replicates in the nucleus
|
Adenovirus
|
|
Name the DNA virus: • ssDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
|
Parvovirus
|
|
Name the DNA virus: • Partially dsDNA circular; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; has RNA intermediate; replicates in the nucleus
|
Hepadnavirus
|
|
Name the DNA virus: • Circular dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
|
Papovavirus
|
|
What fungus is urease positive?
|
Cryptococcus
|
|
What bacterium is characterized by large boxcar-shaped gram-positive rods and is spore-forming
|
aerobic
|
|
Is the Salk polio vaccine inactivated?
|
Yes
|
|
True or false? All negative sense RNA viruses are enveloped.
|
True. They all have helical nucleocapsids and virion-associated polymerases too.
|
|
What urease-positive non-lactose-fermenting gram-negative rod with swarming-type motility is associated with staghorn renal calculi?
|
Proteus
|
|
What two viruses are associated with Reye's syndrome?
|
Varicella virus and influenza virus
|
|
Which organism releases endotoxins prior to cell death?
|
Neisseria meningitidis
|
|
Clue cells are associated with which organism that causes vaginal discharge?
|
Gardnerella vaginalis
|
|
What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?
|
Rhabdovirus
|
|
What fungus is characterized by India ink staining of the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black background?
|
Cryptococcus neoformans
|
|
What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to be infective?
|
HBsAg as its envelope
|
|
Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?
|
Hepatitis E (enteric)
|
|
What genus is known as the smallest free living bacteria? (hint: has no cell wall and has sterols in the membrane)
|
Mycoplasma
|
|
What three organs can be affected by Trypanosoma cruzi?
|
Heart
|
|
Which serotypes of HPV are associated with plantar warts?
|
HPV serotypes 1 and 4
|
|
What facultative gram-negative anaerobic rod is motile
|
ferments lactose
|
|
What is the only dsRNA virus?
|
Reovirus
|
|
What are the four segmented RNA viruses?
|
1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR
|
|
What type of Plasmodium affects • Only mature RBCs?
|
Plasmodium malariae
|
|
What type of Plasmodium affects • Only reticulocytes?
|
Plasmodium vivax
|
|
What type of Plasmodium affects • RBCs of all ages?
|
Plasmodium falciparum
|
|
What is the major cell membrane sterol found in fungi?
|
Ergosterol
|
|
What Ab is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?
|
HBeAb
|
|
What is the term for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase?
|
Reverse transcriptase
|
|
Which gram-positive bacteria infection of infancy is associated with ingestion of honey?
|
Clostridium botulinum
|
|
Which trematode is associated with bladder carcinoma in Egypt and Africa?
|
Schistosoma haematobium
|
|
Which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched with pigeon droppings?
|
Cryptococcus neoformans
|
|
What virus lies dormant in the • Trigeminal ganglia?
|
Herpes I
|
|
What virus lies dormant in the • Dorsal root ganglia?
|
Varicella
|
|
What virus lies dormant in the • Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?
|
Herpes II
|
|
What is the name of the exotoxin Shigella dysenteriae produces
|
which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition?
|
|
What protozoal parasite forms flasked-shaped lesions in the duodenum
|
is transmitted via fecal-oral route
|
|
What color do fungi stain with PAS? Silver stain?
|
Hot pink with PAS and grey to black with silver stain
|
|
A tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions and cellulitis; what is the most likely offending organism?
|
Mycobacterium marinum
|
|
Which dimorphic fungus is found as Arthroconidia in desert sand of the southwestern United States (e.g.
|
San Joaquin Valley)?
|
|
Which mycoplasma species is associated with urethritis
|
prostatitis
|
|
What tick is the vector for babesiosis?
|
Ixodes (also the vector for Lyme disease)
|
|
What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?
|
Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.
|
|
What organism would you suspect in a patient with diarrhea after eating rice?
|
Bacillus cereus
|
|
What small gram-negative facultative intracellular rod is transmitted to human host by Dermacentor tick bite?
|
Francisella tularensis
|
|
True or false? Cestodes have no GI tract.
|
True. They absorb nutrients from the host's GI tract.
|
|
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with parotitis
|
pancreatitis
|
|
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • IV drug abuser
|
>10 mm
|
|
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • Patient with AIDS
|
>5 mm
|
|
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • Recent immigrant from India
|
>10 mm
|
|
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • Healthy suburban male without any medical illnesses
|
>15 mm
|
|
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • Posttransplantation patient taking immunosuppressive agents
|
>5 mm
|
|
What are the only two picornaviruses that do not lead to aseptic meningitis?
|
Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus
|
|
Which cestode in raw or rare beef containing cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms?
|
Taenia saginata
|
|
What DNA viral disease is associated with aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia?
|
Parvovirus B-19
|
|
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?
|
GP120
|
|
What Enterobacteriaceae are prone to produce osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?
|
Salmonella
|
|
What organism is commonly associated with a cellulitis from an animal bite?
|
Pasteurella multocida
|
|
What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?
|
Chromomycosis
|
|
What is the reservoir for the togavirus?
|
Birds
|
|
What are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci are gram positive"?
|
Both Neisseria and Moraxella are gram-negative cocci.
|
|
What nematode is known as hookworms? What is the treatment?
|
Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.
|
|
What HIV structural gene produces GP120 and GP41?
|
env structural protein
|
|
Which hemoflagellate species causes kala azar?
|
Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis)
|
|
What DNA virus is associated with heterophile-negative mononucleosis?
|
CMV; remember
|
|
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri bodies?
|
Rabies
|
|
What large
|
spore-forming
|
|
What is the vector for Chagas disease?
|
The reduviid bug
|
|
What is the polarity (i.e.
|
5'-3' or 3'-5') of a positive sense RNA?
|
|
What viral infection is associated with black vomit?
|
Yellow fever (flavivirus)
|
|
What encapsulated gram-negative
|
lactose-fermenting rod is associated with pneumonia in patients with alcoholism
|
|
What is the essential reservoir host for Toxoplasma gondii?
|
The cat
|
|
What gram-positive anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the normal flora of the mouth and female genital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates?
|
Actinomyces israelii
|
|
What is the term for Candida infection of the oral mucosa?
|
Thrush
|
|
What is the term for fungi that can convert from hyphal to yeast forms?
|
Dimorphic
|
|
To what viral family does the polio virus belong?
|
Picornaviridae
|
|
Name at least three bacteria that use capsules to prevent immediate destruction from the host's defense system.
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
True or false? There are no persistent infections with naked viruses?
|
True. They lyse the host cell
|
|
What virus is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
|
JC virus
|
|
What bacterium is a gram-negative
|
oxidase-positive aerobic rod that produces a grapelike odor and pyocyanin pigmentation?
|
|
Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mononucleosis?
|
CMV
|
|
What bacterium found in poorly preserved canned food causes flaccid paralysis?
|
Clostridium botulinum
|
|
Which two negative sense RNA viruses have neuraminidase enzymes?
|
Mumps and influenza virus
|
|
What Staphylococcus aureus protein inhibits phagocytosis?
|
Protein A
|
|
Which four bacteria require cysteine for growth?
|
Pasteurella
|
|
What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?
|
Candida albicans
|
|
What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions?
|
Herpes virus I and II
|
|
Which streptococcal species is associated with dental caries and infective endocarditis in patients with poor oral hygiene?
|
Streptococcus viridans
|
|
What is the term for cestode-encysted larvae found in intermediate hosts?
|
Cysticerci
|
|
What fungus is characterized by hypopigmented spots on the thorax
|
spaghetti-and-meatball KOH staining
|
|
What nematode is known as threadworms? What is the treatment?
|
Strongyloides stercoralis is treated with thiabendazole.
|
|
What are known as jumping genes?
|
Transposons
|
|
What virus produces koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear?
|
HPV
|
|
Which dimorphic fungus is endemic in the Ohio
|
Mississippi
|
|
Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae family members—Yersinia
|
Klebsiella
|
|
What two HIV regulatory genes down-regulate MHC class I expression in the host?
|
nef and tat genes
|
|
What size ribosomes do fungi have?
|
80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)
|
|
What is the term for an abnormal amount of collagen type III that produces a large bulging scar
|
seen primarily in blacks?
|
|
True or false? Klinefelter syndrome cannot be diagnosed until puberty.
|
TRUE
|
|
What form of sunlight is the most carcinogenic?
|
Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight
|
|
What renal pathology involves uniform thickening of the glomerular capillary wall
|
granular appearance under the microscope
|
|
What enveloped RNA retrovirus infects CD4 T cells and uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
|
HIV
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in chronic granulomatous disease of childhood?
|
NADPH oxidase
|
|
What rare disorder presents as a large
|
hard
|
|
Rheumatic fever most commonly follows pharyngeal infections with what bacteria?
|
Group A β-hemolytic streptococci
|
|
What benign cardiac tumor is associated with tuberous sclerosis?
|
Rhabdomyoma
|
|
What are the rules of 10 regarding pheochromocytoma?
|
10% are bilateral
|
|
What vascular pathology is associated with HTN in the upper extremities
|
hypotension in the lower extremities
|
|
What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27-positive young females and presents with the triad of conjunctivitis
|
urethritis
|
|
What AD disease involves hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles in association with esophageal carcinoma?
|
Tylosis
|
|
A 20-year-old woman who was recently diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease goes to the ER with a tender
|
painful
|
|
What vasculitis is characterized by systemic vasculitis in small to medium- size vessels (except the lung); affecting young males; 30% HBsAg-positive; P-ANCA and autoantibodies against myeloperoxidase?
|
Polyarteritis nodosa
|
|
What malignant bone tumor is associated with familial retinoblastoma?
|
Osteosarcoma
|
|
What bilateral AR disorder seen in infancy as progressive renal failure has multiple small cysts at right angles to the cortical surface?
|
Polycystic kidney disease of childhood
|
|
In what syndrome does the patient have angiomatosis; renal cell carcinomas; pheochromocytomas; retinal
|
cerebellar
|
|
What is the term for hyperextension of the PIP and flexion of the DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Swan-neck deformities
|
|
What is the term for white retinal spots surrounded by hemorrhage? In what condition are they seen?
|
Roth spots
|
|
A 70-year-old man complains of urinary urgency
|
nocturia
|
|
What triad consists of endothelial injury
|
changes in laminar flow
|
|
What bone cell has receptors for PTH?
|
Osteoblasts (Remember
|
|
What type of peptic ulcer disease is characterized by the onset of burning epigastric pain immediately after eating?
|
Gastric ulcer
|
|
What is the term for normal cellular genes associated with growth and differentiation?
|
Proto-oncogenes
|
|
Blue sclera is seen in what hereditary bone disorder?
|
Osteogenesis imperfecta
|