T-6 Closed Bank

Front 1

_______ altitude is the altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available

Back 1

Critical

Front 2

True or false: Although there is no limit for operation at maximum continuous power, sustained operation at maximum power may significantly reduce engine service life

Back 2

True

Front 3

Maximum ______ speed is the maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length

Back 3

Abort

Front 4

Increase takeoff speeds by ____% of the gust increment up to a maximum of 10 knots

Back 4

50

Front 5

The engine has been flat-rated to produce _____ shafts horsepower

Back 5

1100

Front 6

The SCU will activate the red Oil PX annunciator if oil pressure falls below _______ psi when the engine is above ________ power

Back 6

40, IDLE

Front 7

The SCU will activate the red OIL PX annunciator if the oil pressure drops below ______ psi at idle power.

Back 7

15

Front 8

During an auto Starr or normal operation with the ignition switch set to _____, the PMU will energize and de-energize the ignighters as required

Back 8

NORM

Front 9

True or false: when the ignition control toggle switch is set to ON, or when the ignighters are activated in the AUTO mode, a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated

Back 9

True

Front 10

Power for the starter control (START) is provided through the _____ bus.

Back 10

Battery

Front 11

Power for the ignition system (IGN) is provided through the ____bus.

Back 11

Battery

Front 12

The _____ and the _____ automatically control the propeller blade angle (pitch) and propeller speed (Np)

Back 12

PMU, PIU

Front 13

The chip detector is mounted in the _____ to detect metal contamination in the oil

Back 13

RGB

Front 14

The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ______ rpm (100% Np) during most flight conditions

Back 14

2000

Front 15

True or false: With the PMU not functioning, Np may peak above 100% during power changes and then return to the governed range

Back 15

True

Front 16

The PMU provides two operating modes, ground and flight, which are controlled by the _____

Back 16

Weight on wheels switch the main landing gear struts

Front 17

In ground mode, the engine idle N1 is ____% and in the flight mode idle is normally _____%

Back 17

60-61 , 67

Front 18

Illumination of both the ____ and ____ annunciators indicates the system is in the manual mode

Back 18

PMU FAIL, PMU STATUS

Front 19

True or fals: Engine starts are reccomended with the PMU in the manual mode.

Back 19

False

Front 20

A PMU STATUS light in flight indicates

Back 20

Weight on wheels switch fault and /or mismatch

Front 21

The PMU is normally powered by_____.

Back 21

Permanent magnet alternator (PMA)

Front 22

If the auto balance system shuts off without reducing the fuel imbalance to____ pounds or less, the auto balance system may be reset to provide an additional ____ minutes to balance the fuel load.

Back 22

30, 2

Front 23

During inverted flight, the inverted flight fuel pickup provides ____of fuel supply and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system

Back 23

A minimum 15 seconds

Front 24

True or false: When correcting a fuel imbalance, set the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to whichever wing tank is "lighter"

Back 24

True

Front 25

If a probe fails, _____ will continue to provide an accurate indication of minimum fuel level.

Back 25

The low fuel warning lights

Front 26

True or false: The pilot applying the most pedal force determines the amount of braking being used.

Back 26

True

Front 27

If the hydraulic pressure in the emergency accumulator drops below _____psi, an amber EHYD PX LO annunciator will illuminate

Back 27

2400 (+/-150)

Front 28

A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately ____seconds

Back 28

6

Front 29

True or false: pulling the emergency landing gear extension handle will extend the gear and flaps.

Back 29

False

Front 30

Normal cockpit indications when the emergency extension system is used are:

Back 30

Three green gear lights and two red main gear lights, red light in the gear handle (a and c)

Front 31

The wheel brake system ____affected by failure of the aircraft hydraulic system.

Back 31

Is not

Front 32

Normal flap operation and indications are unavailable anytime:

Back 32

The battery bus has failed or when the aux battery is the only source of electrical power (either a or b)

Front 33

The trim system control circuits give_____ priority if trim selection conflicts between cockpits

Back 33

The rear cockpit

Front 34

The _____senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position

Back 34

Trim Aid Device (TAD)

Front 35

If the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the area labeled FULL AC or FULL AD:

Back 35

The system is fully serviced

Front 36

When flying solo, failure to secure the rear seat oxygen regulator will result in the loss of ability to:

Back 36

Deactivate OBOGS from the front seat

Front 37

To preclude unnecessary wear to nose wheel steering and tire_____nose wheel steering prior to executing sharp turns with differential braking

Back 37

Disengage

Front 38

Any fault discovered during the ____ check is reason for a ground abort

Back 38

OVER SPEED GOVERNOR

Front 39

Do not delay Ejection while attempting airstart below_____feet AGL.

Back 39

2000

Front 40

If an airstart is successful, useful power will be available after approximately ____seconds from starter engagement.

Back 40

40

Front 41

The emergency oxygen bottle provides approximately _____minutes of oxygen

Back 41

10

Front 42

Illumination of the L FUEL LO annunciator indicates that approximately _____ pounds of usable fuel remains in the left wing tank

Back 42

110

Front 43

Recommend minimum altitudes for Ejection are _____feet AGL for controlled Ejection , and _____ feet AGL for uncontrolled ejection.

Back 43

2000, 6000

Front 44

Maximum oil pressure during start is ____psi

Back 44

200

Front 45

Do not connect external power if the battery voltage is below _____volts

Back 45

22

Front 46

Maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence is ____KIAS

Back 46

207

Front 47

Maximum permissible crosswind for a wet runway is _____knots

Back 47

10

Front 48

Taxi over arresting cables at _____. Steer to avoid nose and main gear contact with cable support donuts.

Back 48

As slow as possible

Front 49

The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed _____knots

Back 49

40

Front 50

If the flaps are set to any position other than UP, the speed brake will:

Back 50

Retract if already extended and remain retracted if the pilot attempts to extend it after the flaps are extended (b and c above)

Front 51

Best glide speed in clean configuration is approximately _____ KIAS with a sink rate of _____ feet per minute and a glide ratio of 2.0NM/1000feet

Back 51

125, 1350

Front 52

A stick shaker activated by the angle of attack system, provides artificial stall warning in each cockpit a minimum of _____knots before the stall is reached

Back 52

5

Front 53

While landing gear position has little effect on the stall characteristics, extending the _____flaps aggravates the roll-out tendency at the stall

Back 53

Flaps

Front 54

Above _____% torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll- off at stall

Back 54

60

Front 55

_____are the motions of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following a stall and prior to the incipient spin

Back 55

Post-Stall gyrations

Front 56

A (n) _____is characterized by oscillations in pitch, roll, and yaw attitudes and rates

Back 56

Incipient spin

Front 57

The incipient spin phase of the aircraft lasts approximately ____turns

Back 57

2

Front 58

A spiral is rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady - steady in that airspeed is _____through 160KIAS and motions are oscillatory

Back 58

Increasing

Front 59

Spins below 10,000 feet MSL are prohibited due to high stresses on the _____ which occur during the spin maneuver with the _____.

Back 59

Propeller, propeller RPM below 80%

Front 60

True or false: Ailerons have a pronounced effect on spin characteristics

Back 60

True

Front 61

True or false: With ailerons held in the direction of spin rotation, roll and yaw become noticeably oscillatory

Back 61

Ttue

Front 62

True or false: With aileron held full opposite to direction of spin rotation, roll and yaw oscillations are damped out and the spin appears to reach steady state in all axes

Back 62

True

Front 63

True or false: Intentional inverted departures and spins are permitted

Back 63

False

Front 64

During spin recovery, pitch control inputs well forward of neutral may result in _____.

Back 64

A loss of oil pressure and engine damage

Front 65

Controls neutral spin recoveries have been demonstrated and generally spin rotation will cease within______ additional turns after neutralizing controls in each axis.

Back 65

2

Front 66

During an erect spin recovery, spin rotation will abruptly cease with the aircraft in a steep nose down attitude within_____turns after applying controls

Back 66

1.5

Front 67

If rolling pullouts at greater than +2G are uncoordinated, limit roll input to _____ lateral stick.

Back 67

1/2

Front 68

Full rudder deflection above_____KIAS will exceed the limits for the rudder control system.

Back 68

150

Front 69

The potential for lighting strikes increases near_____.

Back 69

The freezing level

Front 70

True or false: Flights through thunderstorms or other areas of extreme turbulence should be avoided due to the possibility of engine flameout, structural failure, or damage due to hail, lighting, and violent up/down drafts

Back 70

True

Front 71

Hydroplaning can occur above _____knots for the nose tire

Back 71

85

Front 72

Hydroplaning can occur above ____knots for the main tires

Back 72

115

Front 73

True or false: Mishaps have occured due to inadvertent lifting of the PCL idle cut off gate during flight

Back 73

True

Front 74

Thr firewall shutoff handle mechanically operates cables that:

Back 74

Cut off fuel to the engine

Cutting off hydraulic fluid to the engine

Cut off bleed air from the engine

(All of the above)

Front 75

Auxiliary power is supplied by a _____ auxiliary battery, located in the left avionics compartment.

Back 75

24 VDC, 5 AMP

Front 76

During normal operation, the hydraulic system operates all of the following except:

Back 76

Wheel brakes

Front 77

Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until

Back 77

Either speed brake switch is moved forward to retract

The flaps are extended

The PCL is move to MAX

(Any of the above )

Front 78

The internal front and rear cockpit CFS handles operate CFS explosives for _____ transparencies. Either external ground egress handle will activate the explosives for _____ transparencies

Back 78

Respective, both

Front 79

When the ISS mode selector is set to the both positions , gas signals transfer between seats, and _____seat (s) eject first regardless of which seat initiates the ejection

Back 79

Rear

Front 80

The first indication of icing may be the start of ice accumulation on the _____

Back 80

Forward canopy bow and at the base of the windshield

Front 81

True or false: The radar altimeter is only displayed when the radar altitude is less than 2500 feet and the aircraft bank angle is less than 30 degrees or the pitch angle is less than 15 degrees up or down

Back 81

True

Front 82

True or false: OBOGS operation with mask down or lose fitting may induce OBOGS fail warning

Back 82

True

Front 83

The following fuel is not approved for NAVY T-6B aircraft

Back 83

JP-8+100

Front 84

With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats eject if an unpainted ejection handle is pulled

Back 84

Even if the other seat is pinned

Front 85

Landing gear retraction with the nose gear jack pad not properly stowed____

Back 85

May result in structural damage or landing gear malfunction

Front 86

Of the emergency ground egress door is locked, ground personnel _____be able to operate canopy fracturing system (CFS) is an emergency

Back 86

Will not

Front 87

Do not rotate the propeller by hand to reduce IOAT. Rotating the propeller without oil pressure can damage the _____. Slow and limited hand rotation of the propeller for inspection purposes is _____.

Back 87

Engine, acceptable

Front 88

After turning the generator switch on during the before taxi xhexklist, allow approximately _____ seconds before turning on the AVIONICS MASTER switch to allow battery amperage to ____.

Back 88

10, stabilize

Front 89

If nose wheel shimmy occurs after nose wheel contacts to runway:

Back 89

Apply back stick pressure to relieve the weight on the nose wheel

Front 90

When airborne emergency occurs, which basic rule does not apply?

Back 90

Expeditious execution of critical action items

Front 91

The cockpit ____depress urine when power to the battery bus is lost

Back 91

Will

Front 92

While stabilized at 125 KIAS in a clean configuration, if engine power is insufficient to produce a rate of decent less than 1500ft/m

Back 92

Set the PCL to OFF

Front 93

Normal oil pressure during steady state conditions is _____psi.

Back 93

90-120

Front 94

Maximum takeoff weight is

Back 94

6900

Front 95

When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding_____feet MSL, the manual override (MOR) handle should be used to manually separate from the seat and deploy the parachute

Back 95

8000

Front 96

Engine start should be aborted manually if

Back 96

PCL is moved or the ST READY green advisory message extinguisher during the start sequence

No rise in ITT is evident within 10 seconds after fuel flow indications (no start)

Red BATT BUS warning message illuminates during the start sequence

(All of the above)

Front 97

Do not attempt a battery powered ground start of the battery voltage is below _____volts

Back 97

23.5

Front 98

Maximum ITT for starting is _____.

Back 98

1000C for 5 seconds

Front 99

Clean symmetric acceleration limits are

Back 99

+7.0 to -3.5

Front 100

With gear and flaps extended symmetric acceleration limits are:

Back 100

+2.5 to 0.0

Front 101

Ground operation is limited to ambient temperatures of ____ to ____.

Back 101

-23 deg C, +43 deg C

Front 102

The potential for an icing encounter exists anytime the aircraft is operated in visible moisture at outside air temperatures of _____ degrees C or below.

Back 102

5

Front 103

After an engine failure in flight and the PMU FAIL warning is illuminated, a _____ airstart is required

Back 103

PMU OFF

Front 104

True or false: With PMU off, the igniters will not automatically activate and must be selected manually

Back 104

True

Front 105

Following a successful airstart the PCL should be advanced as required after N1 reaches ____.

Back 105

IDLE RPM ( approximately 67 %)

Front 106

During a spin, oil pressure may decrease below _____ psi with idle power.

Back 106

40

Front 107

After initial power-up, the OBOGS FAIL annunciator will be inhibited for _____ during OBOGS monitor warm-up

Back 107

3 minutes

Front 108

Maximum ramp weight is____pounds

Back 108

6950

Front 109

On engine starts, ensure the ST READY advisory remains illuminated for _____ seconds following PCL movement to the auto start range

Back 109

3

Front 110

During the over speed governor check, after placing the PMU switch off N1 should stabilize between _____ and _____

Back 110

60, 70%

Front 111

During a circling approach minimum recommended speed prior to a visual final for the runway (not the FAF) is _____ KIAS with gear down and flaps set to TO

Back 111

115

Front 112

The recommended airspeed for penetration through areas of known turbulence is _____KIAS

Back 112

180

Front 113

Final turn airspeed for a no-flap landing is _____

Back 113

120 KIAS or no slower than "on speed" AOA indication (both b and c)

Front 114

True or false: If mission requirement dictate an overnight stay and ground support equipment or personnel are not available, the pilot-in-command will be responsible for postflight and preflight inspections of the aircraft

Back 114

True

Front 115

True or false: LDG flaps are not recommended during gusty wind conditions

Back 115

True

Front 116

Oil level must be serviced within _____ minutes of engine shutdown

Back 116

30

Front 117

For most accurateresults, check oil level _____to _____ minutes after shutdown

Back 117

15, 20

Front 118

True or false: if the ST READY advisory extinguishes for any reason during the start sequence, the PMU will continue to provide automatic shutdown protection.

Back 118

False

Front 119

Failure to stow the _____ completely may prevent the flight controls from operating properly

Back 119

Gust lock

Front 120

If the ______ fails, the TCAS will be inoperative

Back 120

Radar altimeter

Front 121

True or false: Failure to ensure the ST READY light remains illuminated may result in engine damage due to loss of the automatic shutdown feature

Back 121

True

Front 122

True or false: it is acceptable for N1 to make little or no change when turning off the PMU, as long as it is in limits

Back 122

True

Front 123

With a BATT BUS FAILURE, the most notable failures will be the _____ and the _____and _____ MFDs

Back 123

UFCP, center, right

Front 124

On the ground, IDLE torque is _____to_____%

Back 124

3,8

Front 125

The auxiliary battery power level may be tested by turning the _____switch ON and then holding the AUX BAT test switch for a minimum of _____seconds and ensuring the test light remains illuminated only while the switch is held on.

Back 125

BAT, 5

Front 126

Do not touch the parking brake _____when actuating or releasing the parking brake. Injury may result from the_____.

Back 126

Handle shaft, sharp edges

Front 127

If the emergency accumulator is discharges, the EHYD PX LO caution will remain illuminated until the system pressurizes. Ensure light has extinguished prior to _____.

Back 127

Flight

Front 128

During normal operation of the landing gear, when_____down and locked, the inboard doors close and lock.

Back 128

The main and nose gear are

Front 129

If CFS handle actuation is known or suspected, do not close the canopy without inspection of the CFS _____ assemblies on the canopy sill for _____.

Back 129

Donor, firing plungers

Front 130

True or false: When the bleed air is turned on, an increase in airflow and cockpit pressure may occur as the environment control system attempts to regulate the cockpit

Back 130

True

Front 131

Holding the AOA test switch to LOW and HIGH, set s the AOA indicators to _____ and _____ respectively

Back 131

10.5 +/-4. 18.0+/-4

Front 132

Which MFD mode receives the list of intruders from the TCAS and initially filters the top three intruders reported by the TCAS and then filters within the selected altitude envelope?

Back 132

TSD

Front 133

True or false: If the LOW BATTERY POWER system alert message is displayed during the FMS initial startup, POS/DATE/TIME will need to be manually entered at each startup resulting in a partially capable FMS with degraded IAC performance

Back 133

False

Front 134

Ensure both parachute riser/inertial reel straps are pulled out ____and simultaneously to full extention. Attempting to test the locking ability of the straps ____the harness reel velocity lock mechanism.

Back 134

Slowly, may damage

Front 135

Using external power during engine starts provides for lower _____ during engine starts and preserves_____.

Back 135

ITT, battery life

Front 136

true or false: Proper checks of the OBOGS system during the Before Taxi checks requires placing the concentration lever to MAX, checking the light on, and returning the lever to NORMAL

Back 136

True

Front 137

If the OBOGS fail warning does not automatically clear securing the mask on the ground, _____. If____, no further action is required.

Back 137

Perform I-BIT check, I-BIT check passes

Front 138

When checking the brake wear indicators, if an indicator reads low, _____and recheck

Back 138

Reset the parking brake

Front 139

True or false: The descent check is intended to be executed prior to entering the terminal environment after aerobatics or after transiting 80 miles

Back 139

False

Front 140

True or false: Engaging the nose well steering during landing rollout may dampen nose wheel shimmy.

Back 140

False

Front 141

If engine power is insufficient to produce a rate of descent less than _____ft/min, set PCL to OFF

Back 141

1500

Front 142

True or false: BOOST PUMP switch ON is a critical action memory item step for the Low Fuel Pressure emergency procedure

Back 142

True

Front 143

Which of the following will cause the CHK ENG caution message to illuminate

Back 143

Hyd pressure is less than or equal to 1790 PSI

Front 144

In general amperage or voltage is continuously outside 28.0 to 28.5 volts with the PCL at _____while on the ground or in-flight, notify maintenance after the mission.

Back 144

80% N1 or greater

Front 145

Maximum rate of descent at touchdown with tires serviced to normal landing conditions pressure (185+/-5psi)

Back 145

600ft/min (3.7Gs)

Front 146

For the landing configuration and during the landing phase, with ice accumulation, approach speed must be increased by ____KIAS

Back 146

10

Front 147

A spiral is often mistaken for a spin. Anti spi controls may _____ effective in arresting a spiral and may actually _____the situation.

Back 147

Not be, aggravate

Front 148

Spin entry attitudes greater than, ____degrees nose high may result in low oil pressure and engine_____.

Back 148

50, damage

Front 149

Intentional spins in other than cruise configuration and idle power are_____.

Back 149

Prohibited

Front 150

Sustained operation in icing conditions is _____.

Back 150

Prohibited

Front 151

When ITT is less than____, the ITT gauge will display 0 deg C and _____in black letters on a white background

Back 151

0 deg C, RITT

Front 152

True or false: The top latch mechanism on the ejection seat shall be checked on preflight

Back 152

True

Front 153

The sight glass is ____to be used for checking oil level; only the ____is to be used for correct indication of oil level in the tank

Back 153

Not, dipstick