Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
770 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What category is the Saab 340 Certified?
|
Transport category… FAR part 25
|
|
What is the max taxi weight of the Saab 340B?
|
29,300 lbs
|
|
What is the max takeoff weight of the Saab 340B?
|
29,000 lbs
|
|
What is the max landing weight of the Saab 340B?
|
28,500 lbs
|
|
What is the max zero fuel weight of the Saab 340B?
|
26,500 lbs
|
|
What is the max Cargo Weight for C1?
|
1125
|
|
What is the max Cargo Weight for C2?
|
850
|
|
What is the Max Combined Cargo Weight?
|
1725
|
|
What is the max torque for takeoff with APR or Go Around Power?
|
107%
|
|
What is the max torque for takeoff?
|
100%
|
|
What is max continuous power (torque) with one engine inop?
|
100%
|
|
What is the max transient torque for 12 seconds?
|
112%
|
|
What is the max ITT for takeoff with APR or Go Around Power?
|
950°C for 2 minutes followed by
940°C for 3 additional minutes (5min total) |
|
What is the max ITT for takeoff?
|
927°C for 2 minutes followed by
917°C for 3 additional minutes (5min total) |
|
What is the max continuous power (ITT) with one engine inop?
|
940°C
|
|
What is the max transient ITT for 12 seconds?
|
965°C
|
|
What is the max ITT during engine starting?
|
965°C
|
|
What is the max Engine RPM for takeoff with APR or Go Around Power?
|
Red line (102%)
|
|
What is the max Engine RPM for takeoff?
|
Green arc (101%)
|
|
What is the max continuous Engine RPM with one engine inop?
|
Red line (102%)
|
|
What is the max transient Engine RPM for 12 seconds?
|
Red line (105%)
|
|
What is the max prop RPM for Takeoff / Takeoff + APR / Go Around / Max continuous power?
|
Red line (1396 PRPM)
|
|
What is the max transient prop RPM for 12 seconds?
|
1572 PRPM
|
|
What is the MINIMUM prop RPM between ground idle and flight idle with the propeller unfeathered?
|
950 PRPM
|
|
What is the normal operating range for engine oil pressure?
|
Green arc (30-100 psi)
|
|
What is the engine oil pressure range when between ground idle and flight idle with the propeller unfeathered?
|
20-100 psi
|
|
What is the max engine oil pressure at starting an initial ground idle operation with extremely cold oil?
|
200 psi
|
|
What is the normal operating range for engine oil temperature?
|
Green arc (35-122°C)
|
|
What is the max engine oil temp allowed for 15 minutes?
|
132°C
|
|
What is the normal operating range for prop oil pressure?
|
Green arc (25-140 psi)
|
|
What is the minimum prop oil pressure with prop unfeathered?
|
25psi
|
|
Can you conduct ground operations with prop oil pressure in the yellow arc while unfeathered (5-25 psi and 140-225 psi)?
|
No
|
|
What is the operating range for prop oil pressure with the prop feathered?
|
Yellow arc (5-25 psi)
|
|
What is the normal operating range for prop oil temperature?
|
Green arc (45-77°C)
|
|
What is the max propeller temperature between ground idle and flight idle with the propeller unfeathered?
|
Red line (77°C)
|
|
What is the max propeller oil temperature for 15 minutes?
|
93°C
|
|
What is the Minimum oil temp for engine starting?
|
-40°C
|
|
How many start attempts can you make before the 25 minute cooling period?
|
2
(Start, 3 minute cool, start, 25 minute cool) |
|
How many motor attempts can you make before the 60 minute cooling period?
|
3 30 second motors
(Motor, 3 minute cool, motor, 3 minute cool, motor, 60 minute cool) |
|
What is the max time to light off (from initial Ng rotation to ITT rise) during a direct start?
|
20 seconds
|
|
What is the max time a starter/generator can be engaged?
|
70 seconds
|
|
What is the max time a starter can be used for motoring?
|
30 seconds
|
|
What is the minimum battery temp for a battery start?
|
-20°C
|
|
What is the minimum battery voltage for a battery start?
|
24V
|
|
After a successful engine start, how long do you wait before you start the other engine?
|
1 minute
|
|
Can the FUEL TEMP LOW light be on for takeoff?
|
No
|
|
The XFEED and CONN VALVE switches shall be _____ and _____ during takeoff and landing in normal operation.
|
OFF, CLOSED
|
|
What three de-ice boot modes must be working before dispatch into know icing conditions?
|
-One Cycle,
-Continuous, -Manual |
|
What is the definition of icing conditions for Engine anti-ice operation?
|
+10°C or colder
AND visible moisture OR standing water, slush, or snow on the ground |
|
After exiting icing conditions, how long must the engine anti-icing equipment (intake) be left on?
|
At least 5 minutes
|
|
A runway with how much water / slush / wet snow is acceptable?
|
½”
|
|
A runway with how much dry snow is acceptable?
|
3”
|
|
When do you turn the propeller deice system to norm?
|
-5°C or colder
AND there is any ice accretion on any part of the aircraft |
|
When do you turn the propeller deice system to max?
|
-13°C or colder
UNLESS vibrations occur at warmer temperatures |
|
Can you turn the propeller heat to max if the temperature is between -10°C to -12°C?
|
Yes,
if unacceptable propeller vibration occurs. Use caution for runback ice |
|
What is the definition of icing conditions for operation of wing and stabilizer deicing boots and for adherence to minimum airspeed and AP/FD limitations for icing conditions?
|
+5°C or colder
AND: Any visible moisture, OR Any ice is on the aircraft, OR it is not certain there is no ice on the aircraft |
|
When should the deice boots be used?
|
-Icing conditions Until 400’ AFE, only at the first sign of ice accretion anywhere on the aircraft
-If SAT is below -40°C only if ice is accumulating on aircraft |
|
When can the deice boots be turned off?
|
+5°C and no ice on the windshield wiper
OR 3 cycles (9 minutes) after exiting icing conditions |
|
What is the max flap speed for flaps 7 or 15?
|
175 KIAS
|
|
What is the max flap speed for flaps 20?
|
165 KIAS
|
|
What is the max flap speed for flaps 35?
|
140 KIAS
|
|
What is gear retraction speed (Vlor)?
|
150 KIAS
|
|
What is gear extension speed (Vloe)?
|
200 KIAS
|
|
What is Emergency extension speed (Vloee)?
|
200 KIAS
|
|
What is max extended speed (Vle)?
|
200 KIAS
|
|
What is the Vmo up to 16,000’?
|
250 KIAS
|
|
What is Va?
|
180 KIAS
|
|
What is Vmm at flaps 0?
|
Vref 20 + 30
|
|
What is rough air penetration speed (Vra) up to 21,000’?
|
190 KIAS
|
|
What is Vra above 21,000’?
|
Vmo minus 30 knots
|
|
What is the minimum enroute speed with ice while level, holding, or in a descent?
|
160 KIAS
|
|
What is Vmm at flaps 0 with ice (below MSA)?
|
Vref 20 + 40
|
|
What speed is used for enroute climb with icing (below MSA)?
|
Vcl + 15
|
|
What is the minimum climb speed below MSA with ice while NOT maneuvering?
|
Vcl + 15
|
|
What is the minimum climb speed below MSA with ice while maneuvering?
|
Vmm + 10
|
|
What are the minimum flap speeds above MSA (climb, cruise, descent, hold, APPR)?
|
-Flap 0° = 160 KIAS
-Flap 7° = 150 KIAS -Flap 15° = 145 KIAS -Flap 20° = 140 KIAS -Flap 35° = 130 KIAS |
|
What is the minimum final approach speed while maneuvering with ice?
|
Vmm + 10
|
|
What is the minimum final approach speed while NOT maneuvering with ice?
|
Vref + 10
|
|
What is minimum speed for missed approach/go around below MSA with ice?
|
Vref + 20 KIAS
|
|
With all systems operating what types of flight is the Saab approved for?
|
Day and night VFR, IFR, Atmospheric icing conditions
|
|
What are the airport pressure altitude limits?
|
-1000 to +8000
|
|
What is the max tailwind component for TO and Landing?
|
10 knots
|
|
What is the max operating altitude for the Saab?
|
25,000’ pressure altitude
|
|
What is the minimum main battery temp for takeoff?
|
-20°C
|
|
What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?
|
7.5 psi
|
|
What is the maximum cabin differential pressure while operating in auto mode?
|
7.1 psi
|
|
When is the flight director not authorized for use during a takeoff?
|
When below 500’ AGL
or acceleration altitude, whichever is higher |
|
When is the use of Autopilot not authorized during takeoff?
|
Below 500’ AGL
or acceleration altitude, whichever is higher |
|
When is the use of Autopilot not authorized during a precision approach?
|
Below 200’AGL
|
|
When is the use of Autopilot not authorized on a non-precision app?
|
Below the MDA
|
|
When is the use of Autopilot not authorized during a visual approach?
|
Below 500’ AGL
|
|
When is the use of Autopilot not authorized during a Go-around?
|
Below 200’ AGL
|
|
During Icing conditions with Autopilot and/or FD engaged which vertical mode must be used?
|
IAS
|
|
When is the Yaw Damper not authorized for use?
|
-Takeoff,
-Go around, -Landing |
|
When is it prohibited to have flaps extended in flight?
|
While holding
|
|
When must final aircraft configuration be completed in IMC?
|
Prior to FAF (except for circling approaches, OEI, or ATC restrictions)
|
|
When must final aircraft configuration be completed in VMC?
|
500’ AGL
|
|
How long is the cargo fire protection for an aircraft with 1 or 2 bottles?
|
1 bottle = 35 minutes
2 bottles = 60 minutes |
|
Can the aircraft be moved on the ground while the AHRS is initializing?
|
No
|
|
What is the maximum difference between the 2 EADIs and the Standby Attitude indicator allowed for takeoff?
|
Less than 3 degree bank and pitch
|
|
Can you take off if the heading on the compass card is slewing away from the aircraft heading?
|
No
|
|
If a reduced power takeoff is performed with APR armed which speeds are used?
|
Speeds for the assumed temperature (far right column)
|
|
What is the maximum airspeed for windshield wiper use in low mode?
|
130 KIAS
|
|
What is the maximum airspeed for windshield wiper use in high mode?
|
160 KIAS
|
|
What is the maximum crosswind allowed for takeoff and landing?
|
35 knots (steady)
|
|
When is HP bleed air operation not authorized for cabin conditioning?
|
When OAT is at or between 0ºC and 20ºC
|
|
What is the maximum load for a DC generator?
|
600 Amps for 5 minutes
|
|
What is the nominal load for a DC generator?
|
400 Amps
|
|
At what battery temperature is a battery start not allowed?
|
57ºC
|
|
At what battery temperature is a cross generator start not allowed?
|
61ºC
|
|
What is the max battery temperature for takeoff?
|
64°C
|
|
At what battery temperature is takeoff not allowed?
|
65ºC
|
|
At what battery temperature does the BAT HOT LIGHT illuminate?
|
71ºC
|
|
What is the maximum voltage allowed for external power usage?
|
29.5 VDC
|
|
What are the minimum and maximum external power currents during engine start?
|
Min 1200 Amps
Max 1600 Amps |
|
What is the minimum O2 pressure for 2 or 3 crew members for a flight planned at or below 10,000’ MSL?
|
800 psi
|
|
What is the minimum O2 pressure for 2 crew members for a flight with a planned cruise altitude above 10,000’ MSL?
|
1250 psi at a maximum temperature of 40ºC
|
|
What is the minimum O2 pressure for 3 crew members for a flight with a planned cruise altitude above 10,000’ MSL?
|
1650 psi
|
|
Are reverse taxi operations or power-backs STRICTLY PROHIBITED?
|
Yes
|
|
Where do you set Ng to conduct the auto-ignition test during engine shutdown?
|
75% - 77%
|
|
Verify the IGN lights in the Flight Status Panel (FSP) illuminate momentarily while Ng is above _____ during shutdown.
|
62%
|
|
Is the need to open doors and panels for inspection on the first flight of the day a TSA requirement?
|
Yes
|
|
How long after engine shutdown should you wait to check the PGB oil?
|
10 minutes
|
|
Where can you find the Engine Fire Bottle Pressure requirements?
|
CFM I, Detailed Preflight Inspection, Page 3-4
|
|
How many static wicks are on each Aileron?
|
4
|
|
How many vortex generators are on the elevator?
|
15
|
|
How many static wicks are on the elevator / horizontal stabilizer?
|
8 or 10 (depending on aircraft configuration)
|
|
How many static wicks are on the rudder?
|
3
|
|
How many smoke detectors and Halon lines are in the Cargo Compartment?
|
Aft Lav – 2 smoke detectors, 1 Halon line
Fwd Lav – 2 smoke detectors, 2 Halon lines |
|
What items are checked on a walk around preflight?
|
-Chocks
-Fluid leakage -Access panels -Doors -Structural Damage -Fasteners -Tires / Struts -Bird strikes -FOD |
|
What are the First Flight of the Day checks for the Captain?
|
-CA / Observer O2 Mask Test
-Weather Radar Test -Trim Test -64° Switch Test -Stall Warning Test -Lamps Test -Fire Short Test -Fire Detection Test -Smoke Detection Test -Auto coarsen (P3) Test -CTOT Test -830 Bottom Governing Check -Ice Protection Test |
|
What are the First Flight of the Day checks for the FO?
|
-O2 Pressure
-FO O2 Mask Test -CVR Test -TAWS Test -Gear in Transit Light Test -Pressurization AutoMode Test -PA interphone Test |
|
Battery temperature increases approximately _____ every battery start?
|
7°C
|
|
If practicable, limit tail wind component during starts to _____?
|
20 knots
|
|
The FO should monitor GPU voltage and call “ABORT” if GPU voltage drops below _____ and does not recover.
|
16V
|
|
What conditions require an aborted start?
|
-Ng does not increase when starter is engaged
-Ng does not reach approximately 20% after starter engagement -ITT does not decrease below 175°C during a motoring start -No Engine Oil Pressure within 30 seconds of starter activation -No ITT rise within 10 seconds of bringing CL to START (motoring start) -Hung Start -Ng continues to accelerate above ground idle (max 75%) with no PL movement -ITT exceeds 965°C or increased at a rate that may exceed 965°C -No propeller rotation with Ng above 55% -GPU voltage drops below 10V |
|
Altimeters should be within _____ of a known field elevation and maximum difference between altimeters of _____.
|
75’, 40’
|
|
What procedure is NOT authorized for removing a stuck tail stand?
|
Moving the Power Levers above ground idle
|
|
What minimum main hydraulic pressure should be maintained prior to pushback?
|
2100psi
|
|
When is single engine taxi prohibited?
|
-When ramp/taxiways are covered in standing water (shiny surface),
OR -15% of the taxi surface is covered in ice, snow, or slush |
|
What are the ITT limits below 15,000’ MSL?
|
840°C Engine Anti Ice Off, 845°C Engine Anti Ice On
|
|
What are the ITT limits at 15,000’ and above?
|
860° Engine Anti Ice Off, 865°C Engine Anti Ice On
|
|
What power setting do you use when ITT limits are exceeded?
|
5% below charted torque, enter Flight entry and record a new trend point
|
|
Use a maximum of _____ bank if operating below Vcl + 10.
|
15°
|
|
Anytime the autopilot is engaged below _____, the pilot flying shall keep one hand on the yoke.
|
1500’ AFL
|
|
How often should a fuel balance check be conducted while in cruise flight?
|
Once every hour while in cruise flight
|
|
What is minimum holding speed?
|
160 IAS
|
|
Is it required to identify and cross check the nav aids before shooting an approach?
|
Yes
|
|
What speeds are bugged for landing?
|
Vref,
Vfa, Vmm |
|
At what degree of pitch does a Tail Strike occur?
|
13 degrees
|
|
_____ is the only action permitted on the runway after landing.
|
Gust lock engagement
|
|
When does the 2 minute engine cool down begin?
|
After the aircraft has taxied off the runway and after the HP valve has been closed if in
use |
|
If the cabin differential pressure was noted to be _____ or above, a discrepancy must be entered into the flight log.
|
0.3 psi
|
|
Up to how many passengers can the Saab 340s at Colgan carry?
|
34
|
|
How many navigation lights are on the Saab?
|
6
|
|
How many flashing beacons are on the Saab 340?
|
2
|
|
How many landing lights are installed on the Saab 340?
|
2
|
|
How many taxi lights are installed on the Saab 340?
|
1
|
|
When does the taxi light automatically extinguish?
|
At gear retraction
|
|
What is the wingspan of the Saab 340B?
|
70 feet 4 inches
|
|
What is the length of the Saab 340?
|
64 feet 9 inches
|
|
What is the width between the two main landing gear on the Saab 340?
|
22 feet
|
|
What is the prop diameter on the Saab 340?
|
11 feet
|
|
What is the prop blade clearance from the ground?
|
1 foot 8 inches
or 20 inches |
|
How many tires are installed on the Saab 340?
|
6
|
|
What is the turning radius on the ground of the Saab 340?
|
57 feet
|
|
What is the wingtip sweep for a minimum radius ground turn for the Saab 340B?
|
104’
|
|
What systems are operated by pneumatic air?
|
-Air Conditioning,
-Pressurization, -Ice protection |
|
_____ bleed air automatically supplements the _____ flow as necessary during periods of low engine rpm.
|
HP, LP
|
|
What compressor stage is the LP (P2.5) bleed air taken from?
|
5th
|
|
What compressor stage is the HP (P3) bleed air taken from?
|
6th
|
|
How is the HP valve controlled?
|
Electrically
|
|
How is the HP valve operated?
|
Pneumatically
|
|
If electric power to the HP bleed valve fails what position would the valve be in?
|
Closed
|
|
What are the reasons the HP valve would automatically close?
|
-Bleed air line overheats (exceeds 288ºC)
-Bleed air line has excessive pressure (exceeds 76 psi) -Fire handle is pulled -Engine is shutdown -Main DC bus power is lost |
|
If electric power to the LP bleed valve fails what position would the valve be in?
|
Open
|
|
What are the reasons the LP bleed valve close automatically?
|
-Bleed air line overheats (exceeds 288ºC)
-Bleed air line has excessive pressure (exceeds 43psi) downstream of the valve -Fire handle is pulled -Air conditioning pack overheats (exceeds 225ºC) -Air conditioning duct overheats (exceeds 82ºC) |
|
What does a BLD CLOSED light indicate?
|
The respective BLD valve is closed
|
|
What does a BLD FAULT light indicate?
|
-The respective BLD valve received a closed signal but did not close
-Bleed air line overtemp (exceeds 288ºC) -Bleed air line has excessive pressure (exceeds 43psi) downstream of the valve |
|
What does a HP HIGH light indicate?
|
The respective HP valve received a closed signal and did not close
|
|
How is HP bleed air cooled?
|
Through a ram air heat exchanger (precooler)
|
|
A separate flow through the precooler accomplishes _____ cooling for use by the pneumatic deicer system.
|
LP bleed air
|
|
How are the pneumatic systems interconnected so that one bleed air source can supply both air conditioning systems?
|
Cross Valve (X VALVE)
|
|
When can the cross valve be used?
|
On ground only
|
|
What is required for the X Valve to open?
|
One bleed valve must be closed
|
|
How is the X Valve operated?
|
Pneumatically
|
|
How is the X Valve controlled?
|
Electrically
|
|
What does a X VALVE OPEN light indicate?
|
X Valve is open
|
|
What does a BLD AIR LEAK light indicate?
|
Excessive temperature in the bleed line (exceeds 205ºC)
|
|
Will a BLD LEAK close the LP bleed valve?
|
No
|
|
What does a RECIRC light indicate?
|
A failure of the recirc fan (less than 80%)
|
|
Will you get a Master Caution light for a Recirc Fan failing?
|
No
|
|
What overhead light will not illuminate an AIR COND light on the CWP?
|
L/R RECIRC light
|
|
When is the Auto mode of the temp control to be used?
|
Always unless inop
|
|
Does the Manual mode of temp control provide temperature limiting protection to the system?
|
No,
only Auto mode does |
|
In the Manual mode of temp control, how long does it take to move the control valve from one extreme to the other extreme?
|
6-8 seconds
|
|
What does an AVIONICS VENT light on CWP indicate?
|
Failure of the avionics vent fan
|
|
While in flight, if the PRESS DUMP switch is activated what happens?
|
The primary outflow valve is immediately fully opened
|
|
While on the ground if the PRESS DUMP switch is activated what happens?
|
The primary and secondary valve are both fully opened
|
|
In Auto pressurization mode what is the max differential?
|
7.1psid
|
|
How long after touchdown is the primary outflow valve fully opened?
|
20 seconds
|
|
Where is the primary outflow valve located?
|
False bulkhead in the tail compartment
|
|
How are the outflow valves controlled?
|
Electrically
and Pneumatically |
|
The outflow valves limit positive pressure to?
|
7.6psid
|
|
The outflow valves limit negative pressure to?
|
-0.5psid
|
|
If vacuum pressure is lost what position do the outflow valves revert to?
|
Closed
|
|
In manual pressurization mode what position is the primary outflow valve in?
|
Closed
|
|
What does a CABIN PRESS light indicate?
|
Cabin altitude above 10,000’
OR Cabin press exceeds 7.5psi |
|
Where is the secondary outflow valve located on the Saab 340?
|
Rear pressure bulkhead
|
|
The secondary outflow valve is normally only operated in what mode?
|
Manual mode
|
|
What rate of cabin VSI does the detent on the auto controller provide?
|
500 fpm up
and 300 fpm down |
|
When would the fault light on the pressurization controller illuminate?
|
With a system failure
OR During a system self-test and extinguishes with no faults detected |
|
What does an amber RUD, AIL, EL annunciation on the EADI indicate?
|
Sustained servo actuator overload
|
|
What does a Red AUTO TRIM on the CWP indicate?
|
Extreme elevator
OR rudder servo actuator overload |
|
What other light would be expected with a Red AUTO TRIM light?
|
Master Warning
|
|
What 2 ways can the HDG bug be moved?
|
HDG knob on the course/heading panel (CHP)
TURN knob on the Autopilot Panel (APP) |
|
What F/D modes are not selectable from the Mode Select Panel (MSP)?
|
-GA,
-PTCH, -ALTS |
|
What information is displayed when the Go Around button is pushed?
|
Heading hold
and Nose up pitch |
|
What will cause the Auto Pilot to disconnect?
|
-Pushing either AP disconnect button on either control wheel
-Using a Main or STBY Pitch Trim -Selecting AP or YD switch to disengage -Pushing either GA button -Pulling the AP or FD circuit breakers -AP or FD Failure -Stall warning activation |
|
What warnings are given when the YD is disengaged?
|
A yellow box with YD inside appears on left side of EADI no audible warning
|
|
What does the NAV mode in white indicate?
|
NAV is armed and waiting to capture
|
|
When is 1/2 Bank inhibited?
|
During both NAV and APPR mode after LOC capture
|
|
How is a back course selected?
|
The HSI course pointer is set to the localizer front course
|
|
Can APPR mode track a VOR?
|
Yes, but it will be more sensitive
|
|
While in APPR mode can the FD command bars be cancelled?
|
No
|
|
What is the difference between APPR mode and NAV mode on an ILS?
|
APPR mode will track a GS and NAV mode will not track GS
|
|
How is a NAV mode cleared?
|
Selecting HDG or APPR
|
|
Is the HDG bug active after pressing APPR mode or NAV mode on the MSP?
|
Yes, the HDG bug is active until the LOC or VOR captures
|
|
What basic modes are displayed after initial power up for the FD?
|
HDG and VS
|
|
If GS is intercepted prior to the LOC how does the FD respond?
|
GS is not captured unless LOC is captured first
|
|
What is the function of 1/2 Bank mode?
|
Reduces bank angles from 27º to 13.5º in HDG and NAV modes
|
|
What if any indications are displayed on the EADI when 1/2 Bank is selected?
|
No indications displayed, just the light on the 1/2 Bank push button illuminated
|
|
While in ALTS or with GS captured, pressing the pitch wheel will do what?
|
Nothing. ALTS and GS captured inhibit the pitch wheel
|
|
Where is the flight advisory speed displayed?
|
In the upper right corner of the EADI when ALT or ALTS has captured
|
|
When in GA mode what does pressing the VERT SYNC button do?
|
Changes to PTCH mode and captures the current pitch angle
|
|
What performance does CLIMB mode give?
|
At least 100 fpm climb till airspeed reaches stall speed
|
|
What are the 3 speeds for Climb mode?
|
-High=180,
-Med=160, -Low=140 (dependent on altitude) |
|
How is the FD put into PTCH mode?
|
-VERT SYNC pushbutton is depressed in GA mode
-Glideslope signal is lost after GS capture -Air Data system failure occurs |
|
What is the purpose of the NAV L/R button light on the glare shield?
|
Used to couple left or right navigation source to the FD
|
|
A DR displayed in the upper left while in NAV mode indicated what?
|
Dead reckoning
|
|
What is the purpose of the EMER switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP)?
|
Direct connect to the COMM. (bypass the REU if audio system fails)
|
|
What Comm will the Captain be connected to if the EMER switch is used?
|
Comm 1
|
|
What Comm will the first officer be connected to if the EMER switch is used?
|
Comm2
|
|
Are the GPWS and PA audio levels adjustable from the ACP?
|
No,
they are set at fixed levels |
|
How many transmitting microphones are at each pilot station?
|
-Headset microphone
-Oxygen Mask microphone -Hand-held microphone |
|
What controls volume between crewmember communications?
|
INT slide on both ACPs
|
|
What is the power source for Comm 1?
|
Emergency Avionics bus
|
|
How is communication between the cockpit and cabin accomplished?
|
Through the cabin interphone, either through the handset or headset while pressing the respective pushbutton on the aft center pedestal
|
|
What is the PA button used for?
|
To establish communication between the cockpit and cabin via the address system
|
|
What lights illuminate when the Flight Attendant presses the call button?
|
Green call light on the center pedestal and the orange call on the overhead panel
|
|
What lights illuminate when the Flight Attendant presses the EMER button?
|
Red EMER light on the Center pedestal
and Red EMER on the overhead panel |
|
When using the Oxygen mask what is the procedure to make a PA?
|
With mask switch selected push the PA button on the Oxygen mask panel
|
|
What is the Voice/Ident switch used for on the ACP?
|
Used to Id a Nav aid
OR Listen over the VOR frequency |
|
When the EMER switch is in EMER which PTT switch must be used?
|
PTT on the control wheel
|
|
What is the L/R switch on the observer audio panel used for?
|
To select between the left and right audio panels
|
|
What does the ACT button on the Comm do?
|
STBY frequency is inhibited;
The frequency selector now directly tunes the active frequency. |
|
How is the ACT mode selected on the Comm?
|
Hold the button for at least 2 seconds to activate and also deactivate
|
|
What does the STO button on the Comm do?
|
Saves selected frequencies to memory
|
|
If communications are lost with ATC what squawk code is used?
|
7600
|
|
What squawk code is used for an emergency aircraft?
|
7700
|
|
What are the power sources for the DC electrical system?
|
-Batteries
-External power -Generators |
|
What are the 4 separate parts of the electrical system?
|
-28V DC (main)
-28V DC (emergency) -115/26V AC, -“wild” frequency 115V AC |
|
What makes up the 28V DC electrical system?
|
-2 Main Batteries,
-1 Emergency Battery, -2 Engine Generators, -External PWR |
|
How many Ni-Cad batteries does the Saab 340 have?
|
2
|
|
What type of main batteries does the Saab 340 have?
|
24 volt 43 Amp hour Ni-Cad batteries
|
|
Where are the main batteries located?
|
In the respective wing-fuselage fairing
|
|
How are the batteries ventilated for cooling?
|
By ram air in flight,
and Fans on the ground |
|
What bus is used for battery charging?
|
Respective GEN bus with at least one generator online
|
|
Which bus is the right battery connected to?
|
Right GEN bus
|
|
What powers the Emergency Bus?
|
The L BAT BUS (batteries must be ON/OVRD)
or the Emergency Battery |
|
When does the Emergency battery begin to power the EMER BUS?
|
When the L Battery power is lost
|
|
Where is the Emergency Battery located?
|
Avionics rack
|
|
What is the power source for the emergency power system?
|
Powered from the 28V DC system
OR Emergency battery |
|
What is indicated by an illuminated NO BAT START light?
|
Battery temp has reached 57ºC
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated BAT HOT light?
|
Battery has reached 71ºC
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated EMER PWR light?
|
Either the emergency bus is not supplied power
OR Battery had decreased below 24V |
|
What is the purpose of the Series/Parallel relay?
|
During a battery start of the first engine the batteries are connected in series to produce 48 volts.
|
|
What type of Battery is used for the Emergency battery?
|
24 volt 5 amp hour lead acid battery
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated L/R BAT HOT light?
|
Associated battery temp has reached 71ºC
|
|
What other light(s) would be on when a BAT HOT light is illuminated?
|
-NO BAT START
-BAT -ELEC↑ on CWP |
|
What automatically happens when a battery temp reaches 71ºC?
|
BAT relay opens
|
|
Can the battery supply power to the GEN bus with a BAT HOT?
|
Yes, in an emergency the BAT switch can be set to OVRD
|
|
What would cause the GPU to automatically disconnect?
|
-Overvoltage (>31v)
-Under voltage (<10v) -Voltage drops below 10 volts with start switch held to L or R |
|
What is the voltage limit during a start with the start switch held to start?
|
Voltage may drop to 7 volts
|
|
What is the amperage of the 28V GPU?
|
1200-1600 amps
|
|
What is the minimum voltage required to get the magnetic latch to close for GPU usage?
|
10 volts
|
|
What does the blue EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate?
|
GPU is connected to the A/C and supplying at least 7 volts
|
|
How many generators on each engine?
|
2 (DC & AC)
|
|
When is the starter/generator acting as a starter?
|
During engine start when Ng is between 0-55%
|
|
Are batteries being used for a cross generator start?
|
Yes, the batteries assist the generator to achieve a faster cooler start
|
|
When is the GEN relay automatically opened?
|
-GCU detects a malfunction (except overheating)
-External power is used -Fire handle has been pulled |
|
When is the Gen relay light expected to be on?
|
-When the respective Gen switch is off
-When external power is powering the A/C -When a Fire handle has been pulled -When engine Ng is less than 55% -With a failure of the Gen |
|
How many electrical buses does the Saab 340 have?
|
(21)
|
|
What minimum Ng is required to connect the starter / generator to the GEN BUS?
|
55%
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated L/R GEN light?
|
The respective Gen relay is open (gen offline)
|
|
The starter/generators are rated at what voltage?
|
28 volts
|
|
An illuminated GEN OV TEMP light on the overhead panel indicates what?
|
Generator is overheated (150º)
|
|
Can the Generators be “online” with EXT PWR on?
|
No, the relay automatically opens
|
|
What 3 conditions must be met for the GEN relay to close?
|
-EXT PWR must be off
-Engine start complete -Gen field reset |
|
What is indicated by an illuminated L/R MAIN BUS light?
|
The associated main bus is unpowered
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated L/R ESS BUS light?
|
Associated bus is not powered
|
|
What is the purpose of the Bus Tie relay?
|
To connect the left and right busses to run off one power source
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated BUS TIE CONN light?
|
The bus tie relay is closed
|
|
What are three reasons the Bus Tie relay closes?
|
-EXT PWR is on
-Only one Generator is operating -Either the LEFT or BOTH Batteries are on |
|
What is the purpose of the bus tie over-current relay?
|
To protect the Main Distribution system in case of a short
|
|
Bus Tie relay opens if the over-current exceeds how many amps?
|
800 amps
|
|
Can the Bus Tie over-current be reset manually?
|
Yes, through the K-1 reset button
|
|
What is required to close the Utility Bus relay (RCCB)?
|
EXT PWR on
or Both generators on |
|
What powers the Emergency Avionics Bus?
|
The Emergency Bus, when the ESS AVION switch is on
|
|
Where does the battery bus receive power from normally?
|
Gen bus
|
|
The left battery is connected to which bus?
|
Start bus
|
|
While on battery power alone what lights illuminate on the DC ELEC panel?
|
-BUS TIE CONN
-L/R GEN -L/R MAIN BUS -EMER PWR (If BUS is below 24V) |
|
With the GPU powering the A/C what lights illuminate on the DC ELEC panel?
|
-White EXT PWR
-L/R GEN -L/R BAT |
|
What is the power source for the 115/26V AC system?
|
2 115/26V AC inverters powered by the DC system
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated INVERTER light?
|
Inverter switch is set to OFF
OR Associated 115 volt Inverter has failed |
|
With a Failure of the 26V output of the inverter what warnings are given?
|
No CWP warning or cautions,
but an RMI failure and VOR CDI failure will occur |
|
What is the power source for the “wild” frequency 115V AC system?
|
2 engine driven AC generators
|
|
What is the “wild” frequency 115V AC power used for?
|
Ice protection
|
|
Why is the AC GEN called the “wild” frequency?
|
Frequency varies with prop RPM, (460Hz to 640Hz)
|
|
Where is the “wild” frequency generator located?
|
In the prop gear box
|
|
What is the minimum prop RPM for an AC GEN to supply power?
|
1000 RPM
|
|
If prop RPM drops below 1000 RPM, how is the AC GEN reset?
|
Automatically resets when prop RPM increases above 1000 RPM
|
|
What does an illuminated AC GEN light indicate?
|
Generator is off line
|
|
What five items can be powered by the Emergency battery?
|
-Master Warning
-Bus tie relay CONN -Fire Detection -Tailpipe hot Detection -Emergency voltage indication |
|
What items are on the EMER AVIONICS BUS?
|
-VHF COMM 1,
-Standby Horizon |
|
What 3 conditions must be met for a battery relay to close?
|
-BAT switch on
-EXT PWR off -Battery temp below 71ºC |
|
What cools the DC generator?
|
Ram air in flight and fans on the ground
|
|
What lights illuminate with a TAIL PIPE HOT condition?
|
-Master Warning,
-TAIL P HOT CWP light |
|
What does a TAIL Pipe Hot light indicate?
|
Associate Tail Pipe over temperature has been reached
|
|
What indications are given when a fire is detected in the engine nacelle?
|
-Master Warning
-ENG FIRE CWP light -Fire Bell -Fire handle light illuminates |
|
What is required to discharge an Engine Fire Bottle?
|
Fire Handle must be pulled
and FIRE EXTG switch to ON |
|
How many Halon fire bottles are there per engine nacelle?
|
1 Bottle
|
|
How is fire protection supplied after the first bottle has been discharged?
|
The 2nd bottle is routed through a manifold to the engine with the pulled fire handle
|
|
How does the fire loop detect an engine fire condition?
|
Through a drop in resistance due to heat build up
|
|
What happens if a rapid change in resistance is noted (a short) in the fire loop?
|
A FIRE DET FAIL light on the CWP
and A master caution light will illuminate |
|
What is being checked with the FIRE SHORT switch on test panel 1?
|
Checking the Fire Detect Loop
|
|
What does an AVIONICS SMOKE light indicate?
|
Smoke is detected in the Avionics rack
|
|
What does a CARGO SMOKE light indicate?
|
Smoke has been detected in the Cargo area
|
|
How long will the Avionic, Lav or Cargo Smoke lights stay on?
|
As long as the Smoke condition lasts
|
|
How many smoke detectors are in the cargo compartment?
|
2
|
|
What does the white CARGO EXT light indicate?
|
Fire bottle has discharged (may take up to 15 min)
|
|
What is the minimum time between discharging Cargo bottle #1 and #2?
|
2 minutes (to prevent an overpressure condition of the compartment)
|
|
What is the recommended time between discharging the #1 and #2 fire bottles?
|
Protection is guaranteed for 60 minutes if bottle 2 is discharged at 25 minutes
|
|
How much time does a 2 bottle system provide protection for?
|
60 minutes
|
|
How much time does a 1 bottle system provide protection for?
|
35 minutes
|
|
What type of suppressant is in the Cargo fire bottles?
|
Halon
|
|
What does a LAV SMOKE light indicate?
|
Smoke detected in the Lav area
|
|
How is an Avionics Fire Extinguished?
|
Portable Halon bottle is discharged through a port on bulkhead behind the captain
|
|
How is the Lav trash bin fire extinguisher activated?
|
Automatically by a heat sensitive plug
|
|
What actions take place when the fire handle is pulled?
|
-Silences the fire bell
-Opens the Gen relay -Resets the Fire warning systems -Arms both fire bottle squibs -Closes the Fuel Shut off Valve -Closes the Bleed Valves for the affected engine |
|
What crew actions are required if an Avionics Smoke light illuminates?
|
-O2 masks on
-Smoke goggles on -Establish Communication |
|
What other type of fire extinguisher is used for Lav Smoke and fires?
|
Pressurized water bottle extinguisher
|
|
If the ENG FIRE still exists after 1st bottle has been discharged, how long do you wait before you discharge the second bottle?
|
30 seconds
|
|
Are both L/R flight instruments conventional Pitot/Static instruments?
|
No, the FO’s are.
The Captains are electric and powered by the ADC |
|
Where does the Rudder Limiter get its Airspeed signals from?
|
Both the ADC and Standby Pitot/Static system
|
|
What does the right Pitot tube supply?
|
Right side instruments
|
|
Is the ADC used for both sides of instrumentations?
|
No, the Captain’s only
|
|
What prevents the FO’s Altimeter from sticking due to rapid press and temp changes?
|
An internal vibrator
|
|
What is being tested on the left Airspeed Indicator with the test button?
|
That the warning flag appears and both pointers move to 170kts and then to zero
|
|
What does a red warning flag on the Airspeed indicator mean?
|
-Test button had been pushed
-ADC Failure -Indicator has failed |
|
What does a red warning flag on the left Altimeter mean?
|
-Test button has been pushed
-ADC failure -Indicator has failed |
|
What does TAS in the upper left hand corner of the EHSI indicate?
|
True Airspeed in knots
|
|
The Altitude Alerter light will illuminate within ______ feet of target altitude?
|
1000’
|
|
The Altitude Alerter light will extinguish when within _____ of target Alt?
|
200’
|
|
What do red dashes in the upper left hand corner of the EHSI indicate?
|
Loss of ADC speed information
|
|
What is the purpose of the HDG SLAVE button?
|
To rapidly slave the related compass cards to the current heading detected by the related flux detector
|
|
How long does it take to initialize the AHRS system?
|
70 seconds
|
|
Should the Aircraft be moved while the AHRS computer is in initialization mode?
|
No
|
|
With a failure of the #2 AHRS system what instrumentation is lost?
|
-Left side RMI heading information
-Auto pilot can not be used -Right side heading and Attitude information not displayed on right EFIS screens |
|
What is the X SIDE DATA switch used for?
|
To supply opposite side AHRS to the EFIS screens
|
|
Where does the left RMI get its heading information?
|
#2 AHRS
|
|
What will the indication be if the right DPU Fails?
|
Both EADI and EHSI will be blank
|
|
With the DRIVE XFR selected, what does the MFD display?
|
The EHSI from the side where DRIVE XFR is selected
|
|
What is the DRIVE XFR switch used for?
|
To use opposite side DPU or MPU (if equipped) to display information
|
|
During an ILS missed approach, if GA is not used an AVIONICS light will illuminate. Why?
|
Loss of GS and LOC will cause an alarm
|
|
What does a DCP light indicate?
|
Display control panel failure
|
|
What functions are lost with a DCP failure?
|
Associated side looses DH function and the ability to change Nav course
|
|
How many degrees of heading are displayed in Sector Mode?
|
80º, 40º each side of actual heading
|
|
What does the DEV pushbutton do?
|
Enters Map Mode while operating in sector mode
|
|
What does the 2nd CRS pushbutton do?
|
Displays the opposite side course on the EHSI
|
|
What does ET mean on the EHSI screen?
|
Elapsed time
|
|
What happens when the ET pushbutton is pressed?
|
If the timer is at 0:00 it starts the time,
if time is running it resets the time to 0:00 |
|
What does the DTA pushbutton do?
|
Eliminates the extra data from the EHSI screen
|
|
What is the TFC pushbutton on the MFD used for?
|
To display Traffic or TCAS info
|
|
What is the NAV/RDR pushbutton used for?
|
Toggles MFD between Nav, Radar, and Nav/Radar screens
|
|
What are the Arrows on the bottom row of the MFD used for?
|
Controls the range of TCAS or Map while in Radar mode
|
|
What does the Joystick on the MFD do?
|
While in Nav mode, deflection displays waypoint with course and distance
|
|
What is the maximum Radio Altitude indication?
|
2500’
|
|
What does WX mode allow for on the WX Radar?
|
It enables the automatic cyclic contour mode. The first sweep is contoured, and the second sweep is noncontoured
|
|
What power supply is required to have the EFIS system working?
|
28 VDC
|
|
How are the primary flight controls operated?
|
Mechanically
|
|
How are the Trims operated?
|
Electrically
|
|
How are the Flaps operated?
|
Hydraulically
|
|
What joins the ailerons together?
|
Aileron Interconnect unit
|
|
Which side aileron trim is operated when the main trim is used?
|
Left side
|
|
Which side aileron trim is operated if the Standby trim is used?
|
Right side
|
|
What makes up the Interconnect unit?
|
A friction device to hold the two ailerons together
|
|
How can the ailerons be reconnected after the roll disconnect has been pulled?
|
Only by maintenance on the ground
|
|
How are the two elevators joined together?
|
Elevator Interconnect unit
|
|
Which elevator trim moves when the yoke mounted trim switch is moved?
|
Both main and standby when PITCH TRIM is synched
|
|
What allows the main and standby trims to operate together?
|
The pitch trim synchronizer
|
|
How are the Main and Standby trims separated from each other?
|
By operating the Standby trim switch
|
|
How are the main and Standby trims tied together?
|
Pitch trim synchronizer
|
|
If the left control wheel trim switch is operated and the right wheel switch operated in the other direction how do the trims respond?
|
The Captain’s trim will override the FO’s trim
|
|
When would you get a CONFIG CWP light?
|
During T/O when:
-Pitch trims are out of takeoff range “green arc” -Condition levers not at Max -Flaps are beyond 15º -When attempting to start the #1 engine and the FI Stop Override switch is pulled |
|
If takeoff is attempted with the trims outside of the green arc what happens?
|
-Master Warning,
-CONFIG CWP, -Intermittent Horn |
|
A stall warning is provided by what simultaneous indications?
|
-An Aural Clacker
-A Stick Shaker |
|
At Stall Threshold what happens?
|
The Stick Pusher activates
|
|
How much pressure does the Stick Pusher generate?
|
80 pounds of force
|
|
What lights will illuminate as the Stick Pusher activates?
|
PUSH 1 and PUSH 2 on both sides of the panel
|
|
How is the Stick Pusher Overridden?
|
By overpowering the 80lbs of force
|
|
What are the 3 warning signs of a stall?
|
-Stick shaker,
-Clacker, -PUSH lights |
|
How is the Stick Pusher deactivated?
|
Reduce the Angle of Attack
or Pressing the PUSHER DISARM button |
|
What is being checked when the stall test switches are both pushed down?
|
The .5g sensor is functioning properly, and the pusher does not activate
|
|
When testing the stall system what is being checked?
|
-Associated PUSH light illuminates
-Aural alert (clacker) -Stick shaker -With both switches up stick pusher activates along with PUSH 1 and PUSH 2 -With both switches down pusher does not activate with PUSH 1 and PUSH 2 |
|
How can the Pusher System be reset after deactivation?
|
Only by maintenance
|
|
When is the Stick Pusher inhibited?
|
-While on the ground
-After takeoff for 7 seconds -Anytime load factor is less than .5g |
|
What angle does the Stick Pusher move the elevator to?
|
4º nose down
|
|
How long is the Stick Pusher sustained for?
|
-As long as the excessive AOA exist
-Load factor less than .5g |
|
What does a STALL FAIL CWP light indicate?
|
A fault detected in a stall warning/ident computer
|
|
What is the purpose of the Rudder Limiter?
|
To limit rudder travel at high airspeeds
|
|
What are the speed and travel limits of the Rudder Limit system?
|
-Full travel (up to 30º) at speeds up to 150 knots
-Intermediate travel (up to 15º) at speeds between 150-200 Knots -Minimum travel (up to 5.7º) at speeds above 200 Knots |
|
What does a RUDDER LIMIT CWP light indicate?
|
Discrepancies between monitored Airspeeds
or An improperly positioned limiting mechanism |
|
What is the Purpose of the RUD LIM switch?
|
In OVRD, allows full rudder travel by retracting rudder limiting mechanism
|
|
What kind of flaps does the Saab 340 have?
|
Single panel Fowler flaps
|
|
Are the flaps operated as a single unit?
|
No,
they are 2 individual flaps operated by a single hydraulic actuator for each flap |
|
What keeps the flaps from a split flap condition?
|
A mechanical Interconnection
|
|
What are the flap detent settings?
|
0,
7, 15, 20, 35 degrees |
|
What is indicated by an illuminated FLAPS CWP light?
|
Failure of the flap controller
or Disagreement between Flap handle selection and left Flap position |
|
Does a split flap automatically trigger a FLAPS CWP light?
|
No,
if the left flap agrees then no light |
|
If the flap controller fails what are the indications?
|
-FLAPS CWP light
-Master Caution -Flaps become locked in position without further control |
|
With a flap controller failure how could the crew verify flap position?
|
By use of the flap angle marks on the flap
|
|
At what settings are the gates located during flap retraction?
|
7 and 20 degrees
|
|
What position do the Gust locks fail to?
|
Unlocked
|
|
How do the GUST LOCKS prohibit Takeoff while engaged?
|
Power lever movement is limited
|
|
When would you get a GUST LOCK CWP light?
|
When the Gust Lock is released and the rudder fails to unlock
|
|
Are the aileron and elevator gust locks electric or mechanical?
|
Mechanical
|
|
Is the Rudder gust lock electric or mechanical?
|
Electrical
|
|
How are the trim switches operated?
|
Both switches must be moved together
|
|
What is the Maximum combined fuel on the Saab 340?
|
(5690lbs) (850 gals)
|
|
What is the Maximum fuel per wing?
|
(2845lbs) (425 gals)
|
|
Does the Saab 340 have negative G fuel capabilities?
|
Yes,
through the negative g canister in the hopper tank |
|
What does an illuminated LOW LEVEL indicate?
|
Less than 300 lbs ± 70 lbs in the respective tank
|
|
Does the Fuel quantity indicator show usable or total fuel?
|
Usable
|
|
How many ways are there to check fuel quantity and what are they?
|
3:
-Fuel quantity indicators, -Magnetic sticks, -Fuel panel gauges |
|
At what quantity do the magnetic fuel quantity indicators become useful?
|
When fuel levels are below 1100 lbs
|
|
Where are the Standby pressure pumps located?
|
In the hopper tank
|
|
What does an illuminated MAIN PUMP light indicate?
|
A failure of the main pump
|
|
When is the STBY PUMP activated?
|
MAIN PUMP failure
|
|
What does an illuminated green STBY PRESS light indicate?
|
Standby pressure is detected at a main pump inlet
|
|
Can the right pump supply fuel to the left engine?
|
Yes, through the cross feed valve
|
|
What powers the Standby pressure pumps?
|
Respective Battery Bus
|
|
What powers the Main Pumps?
|
Engine accessory gear box
|
|
What supplies fuel to the engine during engine start?
|
Standby pressure pump
|
|
When does the automatic activation of the STBY PRESS pump not occur with a decrease in Main pump pressure?
|
With the condition lever in fuel off
|
|
How many fuel pumps are on the Saab?
|
6:
-2 main pumps, -2 standby pumps and -2 high pressure pumps in the HMU |
|
What lights on the overhead panel do not trigger a CWP FUEL light?
|
-X FEED ON
-CONN VLV -STBY PRESS |
|
How is the Fuel Shut Off valve closed?
|
Pulling of the Fire Handle
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated VALVE CLOSED light?
|
Fuel shut off valve is closed
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated XFEED ON light?
|
The cross feed valve is open
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated CONN VALVE light?
|
The fuel connect valve is open
|
|
What is the purpose of the fuel connect valve?
|
To balance fuel by gravity transfer
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated FUEL FILTER light?
|
An impending bypass of the Fuel filter (>18 psid)
|
|
What is the maximum pressure for single point refueling?
|
50 psi
|
|
What does an illuminated FUELING light indicate?
|
The fuel panel switch is selected ON
The defueling valve is open |
|
Where does the fueling panel get power from?
|
Right Hot battery bus
|
|
If an automatic level control circuit fails and causes an overfill, what happens?
|
An overfill sensor in each outboard tank closes the related valve and illuminates the OVERFULL light to come on
|
|
To achieve maximum capacity what fueling procedure is used?
|
Over wing fueling
|
|
How is defueling accomplished?
|
Pressure defueling uses Standby pumps to pump fuel from the aircraft Suction defueling requires the fuel truck to draw fuel from the aircraft
|
|
The hydraulic system supplies pressure for the operation of what?
|
-Flaps,
-Landing gear, -Brakes, -Nose wheel steering |
|
Are Hydraulic lines routed to their respective systems inside the aircraft?
|
No,
they are routed externally in “hydraulic tunnels” |
|
What pressurizes the main hydraulic reservoir?
|
Emergency accumulator circuit
|
|
What is the back up to the emergency accumulator for pressurizing the reservoir?
|
Spring loaded piston
|
|
What would cause a HYDR CWP light to illuminate with all gauges normal?
|
High temperature has been noted in the main reservoir (116ºC)
|
|
What supplies hydraulic fluid to the Hand Pump reservoir?
|
Overflow fluid from the main reservoir
|
|
What does the Hand Pump reservoir supply fluid to?
|
Hand Pump
|
|
What does the main reservoir supply fluid to?
|
Electric hydraulic pump
and Overflows to the Hand Pump Reservoir |
|
What is the normal source of pressure for the hydraulic system?
|
Electric pump
|
|
What electrical bus supplies power to the electric pump in AUTO?
|
Left main bus
|
|
What electrical bus supplies power to the electrical pump in OVRD?
|
Left essential bus
|
|
Why is it important to verify the BUS TIE CONN light illuminates during left engine shutdown while taxiing?
|
Hydraulic pump is powered from the left main bus
|
|
With a failure of the electric hydraulic pump can the main accumulator be pressurized?
|
Yes,
with the hand pump |
|
What does the Main Accumulator supply pressure to?
|
-Nose wheel steering
-Flap actuation -Gear retraction and extension -To pressurize the brake accumulators |
|
At what pressure does the Pressure relief valve vent pressure?
|
3750 psi
|
|
Is there protection for an overpressure of the hydraulic system?
|
Yes,
the pressure relief valve |
|
Where does the Pressure relief valve return fluid to?
|
To the main reservoir
|
|
Where does the Fluid from the hand pump get returned to after use?
|
Main reservoir
|
|
What is the most likely problem if a HYDR CWP light is illuminated and hydraulic quantity, main accumulator and inboard accumulator pressure all indicate low?
|
A leak in the inboard brake
|
|
What is the normal operating pressure in AUTO mode?
|
2100 psi - 2900 psi
|
|
What is the operating pressure when the pump is in OVRD?
|
3000 psi
|
|
What causes the electric pump to automatically activate?
|
Pressure in the main accumulator decreases below 2100 psi
or Landing gear is extended or retracted |
|
What can the Hand Pump pressurize?
|
All accumulators except the Emergency accumulator
|
|
The selector valve facilitates pressure of what?
|
-Main accumulator
-Inboard brake accumulator -Outboard brake accumulator |
|
Can the landing gear be hand pumped down with a total electrical failure?
|
No,
the gear requires left battery bus power to operate the selector valve |
|
Can the flaps be hand pumped with a total electrical failure?
|
No,
flap operation requires left battery bus to be powered |
|
With an outboard brake accumulator leak, can the main accumulator be pressurized by the Hand Pump?
|
No,
the Main accumulator will equalize to the leaking brake accumulator |
|
Which accumulators have check valves?
|
-Emergency accumulator
-Inboard brake accumulator -Outboard brake accumulator |
|
What is the pressure of the nitrogen pre-charge in the accumulators?
|
1650 psi
|
|
What pressure is read on the gauges if hydraulic qty in the accumulator decreases to zero, leaving just the nitrogen pre-charge pressure?
|
Zero psi on the gauges in the flight deck.
The actual accumulators should read 1650psi in the nose well |
|
What is the purpose of the Nitrogen charged accumulators?
|
To absorb pump pulsations and surges caused by large fluid demands
|
|
What pressure triggers a HYDR CWP light to illuminate?
|
Pressure less than 1850 psi,
OR High Temp |
|
Which accumulators will trigger the HYDR CWP light to illuminate with pressure below 1850 psi?
|
Main accumulators
and Emergency accumulators |
|
What is the Purpose of the Emergency accumulator?
|
Emergency extension for up lock release
and To pressurize the Main reservoir |
|
What is the indication for a hydraulic filter that is clogged and bypassed?
|
Clog indicator button pops up on the filter housing
|
|
What is being pressurized by the Hand Pump when the selector is in the FLAPS LDG GR position?
|
The Main accumulator
|
|
How many hydraulic accumulators are on the Saab 340?
|
4
|
|
Why do the brakes have 2 accumulators?
|
One for inboard and one for outboard brake systems.
In case of a leak in one system brakes are still available |
|
What does the Emergency landing gear extension use hydraulic pressure for?
|
To release the up locks and allow the gear to free fall
|
|
Can the flaps be extended AND retracted with only the Hand Pump?
|
Yes,
by pressurizing the main accumulator |
|
Where can the 1650 psi Nitrogen pressure be checked?
|
Nose wheel well, right side of the aircraft
|
|
Where are the hydraulic filter bypass pins located?
|
Nose wheel well on the left side of the aircraft
|
|
What does an illuminated HYDR CWP light indicate?
|
Pressure in the main or emergency accumulators less than 1850 psi
or High temp in the main reservoir (116ºC) |
|
Does the HYDR CWP light illuminate for low quantity?
|
No
|
|
Does the HYDR CWP light illuminate for high pressure?
|
No
|
|
Where is the Hand Pump handle stored?
|
Behind the First Officer seat on the bulkhead
|
|
Is the electric hydraulic pump protected by a resettable circuit breaker?
|
No
|
|
What is required for the SAAB to be dispatched into know icing conditions?
|
All ice protection systems must be operable
|
|
Can the SAAB be dispatched into icing conditions with side windshield INOP?
|
No,
all systems must be operable |
|
Which electrical ice protection system is NOT powered by the AC Generator?
|
Standby Pitot heat
|
|
What powers the Standby Pitot heat?
|
Right Essential Bus
|
|
How long does it take for the standby pitot to reach full operating temperature?
|
At least 5 minutes
|
|
What is powered automatically when the 1st AC GEN comes online?
|
-Main Pitot tubes,
-Temp probe, -AOA vanes |
|
What is the power source for the OAT probe?
|
115 V AC generator
|
|
Is there a pilot controlled switch for the OAT Probe heating?
|
No
|
|
When is the OAT probe heated?
|
From the time the gear is retracted till landing
|
|
When is power supplied to the AOA vanes for heating?
|
As soon as an AC Generator is online
|
|
What is the power source for the windshield heat?
|
115 Volt “wild” frequency bus
|
|
What powers the 115 Volt “wild” frequency bus?
|
AC Generator
|
|
What is the time limit for side windshield heating?
|
Operate in NORM for 7 minutes before selecting HIGH
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated L/R SIDE or L/R FRONT lights?
|
Either an overheated windshield
OR A controller fault |
|
If power is interrupted to a windshield causing a FRONT/SIDE light to illuminate, will the light extinguish when power is restored?
|
No,
the switch must be turned off and then back on again to reset the system |
|
What does the AIR SUPPLY switch control?
|
Controls a shut off valve to allow bleed air to the boot system
|
|
What stage does the bleed air for engine anti-ice come from?
|
5th stage
|
|
When deflated what holds the boots “down” tight to the wing?
|
Vacuum pressure
|
|
What items use Bleed Air for Ice protection?
|
-Boot De-Icing,
-Engine split lip, -Engine guide vanes |
|
What order are the boots cycled in one cycle?
|
-Stab,
-Outboard wing, -Inboard wing, -Stab |
|
Will the deice boots inflate with both bleed valves closed?
|
Yes
|
|
Will boots inflate with H/P valves closed?
|
Yes
|
|
Can boot inflation be monitored?
|
Yes,
by watching the boot indicator lights |
|
How often are the boots cycled when operating in “CONT”?
|
Every 3 minutes
|
|
Does the CWP ICE PROT light illuminate with all the Icing systems?
|
Yes
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated DE-ICE OV TEMP light?
|
An over temperature has been noted in the boot system (>150ºC)
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated TIMER light?
|
The de-ice timer valves are malfunctioning
|
|
Can the pilot manually de-ice just the wings?
|
Yes
|
|
Can the pilot manually de-ice just the stabilizer?
|
Yes
|
|
How can the pilot de-ice just the outboard wing section?
|
By pressing and holding the outboard push button for 6 seconds
|
|
Why are HP valves kept in AUTO during flight in icing conditions?
|
To insure proper boot inflation at low power settings
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated blue ENG ANTI-ICE light on the status panel?
|
The associated Engine Intake switch is on
|
|
Does the blue ENG ANTI-ICE status panel light extinguish with a failure of the Intake heat?
|
No
|
|
Which light on the status panel does NOT indicate system working properly?
|
Engine Anti-Ice
|
|
Which ice protection system can not be transferred to the opposite side AC GEN?
|
Engine intake heat
|
|
How is the inlet lip heated?
|
Electrically
|
|
How are the inlet frame vanes heated?
|
Engine oil
|
|
How is the splitter lip and guide vanes heated?
|
Bleed air
|
|
What controls bleed air to the splitter lip and guide vanes?
|
Anti-Ice start bleed valve (AISBV)
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated L AIR VALVE light?
|
Associated Air valve is not positioned properly
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated INTAKE light?
|
Intake heat has failed or lost one or more phases
|
|
Is prop ice protection used as a de-ice or anti-ice system?
|
De-Ice
|
|
When is Prop De-Ice turned on?
|
When ice accretion is observed and SAT is -5ºC or colder
|
|
What temperatures is NORM used for prop de-ice?
|
-5ºC to -12ºC
|
|
At what temperature does prop de-ice switch to MAX?
|
Colder than 12ºC with ice accretion
|
|
Why is it important to operate the props only after ice accretion?
|
To avoid “run back” ice
|
|
What is “run back” ice?
|
Ice that melt and refreezes on the unheated section
|
|
How much thrust is lost with “run back” ice on the props?
|
Up to 30 percent of thrust
|
|
Can the MAX mode be used between temperatures of -5ºC and -12ºC?
|
Yes,
if propeller vibrations occur MAX can be used up to -10ºC until vibrations dissipate |
|
What is the procedure for switching from NORM to MAX on prop heat?
|
Turn switch off before switching to MAX to avoid nuisance cautions
|
|
Which Ice protection systems have a Flight Status panel light?
|
Prop De-Ice,
and Engine Intake |
|
What does an illuminated blue PROP DE-ICE light on the status panel indicate?
|
Prop De-ice is working properly
|
|
What is the difference between the Engine and Prop status panel lights?
|
Engine is switch only and the prop is system status
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated L AC GEN light?
|
Left AC GEN not supplying power
|
|
What is indicated if a PROP DE-ICE status light is extinguished?
|
Either the switch is turned off
OR The system malfunctioned |
|
What are the cycle times in NORM for Prop De-Ice?
|
11 seconds on,
79 seconds off |
|
What are the cycle times in MAX for Prop De-Ice?
|
90 seconds on,
90 seconds off |
|
What is indicated with an illuminated PROP light on the overhead panel?
|
Associated prop de-ice system is malfunctioning
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated STBY PITOT light?
|
Standby pitot is not powered
|
|
What is the purpose of the Park system on the windshield wiper?
|
To return the wiper to the stowed position
|
|
How many gear doors are there on each main gear?
|
3
|
|
How are the main gear doors attached to the gear?
|
-2 doors mechanically linked, and
-3rd door is rigidly attached |
|
How is the gear door opened during preflight for inspection?
|
Pull the release ring
|
|
Does the gear swing forward or aft during retraction?
|
Forward
|
|
What is used for normal Gear extension and retraction?
|
Hydraulic pressure
|
|
What centers the nose wheel for retraction?
|
Centering cams within the strut
|
|
What is used to lock the gear in the down position?
|
Over center extension and Hydraulic pressure
|
|
What locks the gear up?
|
Mechanical up locks
|
|
What is used to open the up lock during normal gear extension?
|
Hydraulic pressure
|
|
How many weight on wheel switches per main gear?
|
2
|
|
How many weight on wheels on the nose gear?
|
0
|
|
How is the gear retracted if a weight on wheel switch fails?
|
By pressing the down lock release pushbutton
|
|
What lights illuminate while pressing the gear test button?
|
-Left,
-Nose, -Right main gear lights and -Amber gear lever light |
|
Which gear must be locked down for the Amber light to extinguish?
|
All gear must be down and locked
|
|
When is a CONFIG warning given for an unsafe Landing Gear condition?
|
Any gear is not down and locked AND RA <500’AGL,
or 1 or both power levers are below the 64º angle |
|
What altitude does the EGPWS provide “to low gear”?
|
500’ AGL
|
|
At what flap angle with gear not down and locked is a CONFIG WARNING alert given?
|
Greater than 15º
|
|
Which CWP light will illuminate if the gear is not locked down by 500’ RA?
|
CONFIG
|
|
What prevents gear retraction on the ground?
|
A spring loaded latch pin
|
|
What does pushing the Down lock release button do?
|
Mechanically releases the latch pin
|
|
What is used for emergency extension?
|
-Gravity,
-Airflow, and -Assisted by springs |
|
Does the gear handle have to be in the down position for emergency EXTENSION?
|
No
|
|
What’s lost if Emergency extension is used and the gear handle is not down?
|
Anti-skid arming
|
|
After Emergency extension will the gear doors be open or closed?
|
Open
|
|
During Emergency Extension what separates the gear doors from the actuating linkages?
|
Explosive bolts
|
|
How are the brake pads preflight checked?
|
By observing the wear pins
|
|
What determines if the brake pad wear indicators are within limits?
|
If the indicators extend above the circular casing
|
|
How are the brakes operated?
|
Hydraulically
|
|
How many brake systems on the aircraft?
|
2:
-Inboard brakes -Outboard brakes |
|
At what speed does the Anti-skid cut out?
|
20 knots
|
|
What protects the tire from over pressure due to brake temperatures?
|
Pressure relief blow out plugs
|
|
What is the purpose of the Anti-skid system?
|
To limit brake pressure and avoid locked wheels
|
|
How does the Anti-skid determine if a wheel is “skidding”?
|
Compares inboard and outboard wheel speed
|
|
What is required for Anti-skid operation?
|
-Anti-skid switch ON AND landing gear handle down
AND -PL below flight idle or -WOW switch activated or -Average Wheel Speed above 50kts |
|
What is touchdown brake protection?
|
Prevents brake application for 3 seconds after main gear compression or wheel speed exceeds 50Kts
|
|
Can the brakes be set without getting a CWP light?
|
Yes
|
|
Can the brakes be set without the PARK BRK ON CWP light illuminated?
|
Yes,
(1500psi sets the brake, 1700psi required for light to illuminate) |
|
At what psi does the PARK BRK ON light extinguish?
|
Less than 900psi
|
|
What psi is required for the PARK BRK ON light to illuminate?
|
1700psi
|
|
How is the parking brake set?
|
-Pulling the handle up,
-Rotating 30º clockwise, -Pushing the brake pedals |
|
What does the lockout switch do to the nose wheel steering system?
|
When activated, inhibits tiller function to prevent NWS activation during ground handling ops
|
|
When must the nose gear pin be installed?
|
During pushback or towing
|
|
How many degrees of steering does the NWS provide?
|
60º either side of center
|
|
What does pushing the tiller down do electrically?
|
Electrically opens the steering shutoff valve
|
|
What does pushing the tiller down do mechanically?
|
Mechanically engages the tiller wheel
|
|
What is the purpose of the C-Clip (gear pin)?
|
Deactivates the steering system for ground handling
|
|
What is the max steering deflection for operations?
|
120º or 90º (depending on MOD)
|
|
Can the nose wheel rotate all the way around?
|
Yes
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated Anti-skid CWP light?
|
A system fault or gear is down with Anti-skid off
|
|
How many emergency exits are on the Saab 340?
|
5
|
|
Which side is recommended for emergency exit through the cockpit escape hatch?
|
Left side due to the strap length
|
|
Where is the crash axe located?
|
Behind the captains seat on the bulkhead
|
|
How long is a PBE’s air supply useful?
|
15 minutes
|
|
How is the PBE activated?
|
By pulling the straps on each side of the hood forward, then rearward to secure
|
|
Why must the PBE hood not be removed in the presence of fire?
|
Due to the oxygen concentrations in the hood
|
|
What does a flashing red light on the Cabin Flashlight indicate?
|
Batteries are serviceable
|
|
How many O2 mask in the cockpit?
|
3
|
|
How many smoke goggles in the cockpit?
|
3
|
|
How many life vests are in the cockpit?
|
3
|
|
What type of Fire Extinguisher is located in the cockpit?
|
1 Halon Bottle
|
|
Where is the water extinguisher stored?
|
Forward Entry storage area
|
|
How is the water extinguisher activated?
|
Turn the handle fully clockwise to puncture the CO2 cartridge in the handle
|
|
What type of fires would the water extinguisher be used on?
|
Paper, textiles, etc.
|
|
What type of fire would the water extinguisher not be used on?
|
Liquid fire, metal fire and anytime electricity is involved
|
|
Where is the Automatic Defibrillator located?
|
In the right hand overhead storage bin
|
|
What is stored in the last right hand overhead storage bin?
|
-Grab-n-go kit (if available)
-AED unit -Enhanced Medical kit |
|
What is stored under seat 12D ?
|
-First Aid Kit
-PBE -Halon Extinguisher |
|
When must the Emergency Lights be armed?
|
Anytime the Aircraft is moving under its own power
|
|
Where are the Emergency light batteries located?
|
Under the cabin floor
|
|
How long do the Emergency Light Batteries last?
|
At least 10 minutes
|
|
When do the Emergency lights automatically activate?
|
Anytime power is lost is lost on the right main bus with the switch in ARMED
|
|
How can the Emergency lights be turned off if activated automatically?
|
The switch to off as long as there is right essential power available
|
|
What is the main O2 system normally charged to?
|
1850psi
|
|
What protects the O2 system from overpressure?
|
A pressure relief valve vent
|
|
What indicates a thermal discharge of the O2 system?
|
The green blow out plugs are missing
|
|
What does an illuminated OXYGEN CWP light indicate?
|
O2 pressure is less than 800 ±35psi
|
|
Does the main O2 knob have to be pulled to get PAX O2 to the outlets?
|
Yes,
both the main and the PAX O2 valve lever must be open |
|
What is required for the O2 masks to be able to communicate with ATC?
|
Boom/Mask switch selected to Mask
|
|
During preflight what setting is selected for O2 use on the mask?
|
100%
|
|
What does selecting normal on the O2 mask do?
|
Uncovers the screen to dilute O2 commensurate with cabin altitude
|
|
During periods of smoke what setting is used on the O2 mask?
|
100%
|
|
What is the vent valve on the O2 mask used for?
|
Pulling the valve allows O2 to vent or defog the smoke goggles
|
|
What does the Emergency selector do on the O2 mask?
|
Provides a continuous flow of O2 to keep fumes or smoke out of the mask
|
|
How is a PA announcement made while wearing the O2 mask?
|
By pressing the PA button on the side console where the mask plugs in
|
|
How is communication with the flight attendant accomplished with O2 masks on?
|
A PA has to be made by pressing the PA pushbutton on the side console
|
|
What is the minimum psi for the portable O2 bottle?
|
GREEN ARC (1750 psi)
|
|
How long will the portable O2 bottle last?
|
Will flow for a minimum of 60 minutes
|
|
What is the first aid bottle psi?
|
GREEN ARC (minimum 1800 psi)
|
|
How long will the first aid bottle last?
|
Varies from 20 minutes to 30 minutes
|
|
Who is authorized to use the medical kit?
|
Only licensed physicians
|
|
What engines are on the Saab 340B?
|
GE CT7-9B
|
|
How much power do the CT7-9B engines produce?
|
1750 SHP at 35ºC at seal level
|
|
What controls the inlet variable guide vanes?
|
Hydro mechanical unit (HMU)
|
|
How many fuel pumps are installed on each engine?
|
2
(3 if you include the STDBY pump in the hopper tank) |
|
What fuel pumps are installed on each engine?
|
-HMU HP pump
-Main fuel pump |
|
How many fuel pumps are there on the Saab 340?
|
6:
-2 standby pumps, -2main pumps, -2 HMU HP pumps |
|
What is used to prevent bird ingestion into the engine?
|
Inlet protection device (inertial separator)
|
|
Where are objects directed after being caught in the Inlet protection device?
|
Overboard through a duct on the underside of the nacelle
|
|
Where do items such as sand and hail exit after being separated from airflow?
|
Through the separator duct and out the tailpipe
|
|
What prevents power levers from being retarded below flight idle in flight?
|
Automatic Flight Idle Stop
|
|
The Flight Idle Stop automatically opens at touchdown with what inputs?
|
-Both main gear down lock switches
-Anti-skid computer (for wheel speed monitoring) -Both weight-on-wheel systems |
|
What is the placarded operating range for the power levers?
|
-REV,
-GND IDLE, -FLT IDLE |
|
What position on the power lever is identified by a detent?
|
GND IDLE
|
|
How is the FI Stop opened with a WOW failure?
|
By pulling the FI STOP OVRD knob
|
|
When is the FI Stop Automatically opened?
|
-When either main gear is down locked
AND: -Any wheel speed exceeds 25kts OR -Either WOW detects the A/C on the ground |
|
If the gear is not retracted when does the FI stop automatically close?
|
-Both WOW systems detect the A/C is airborne
-All wheel speeds decrease below 9kts |
|
What indication is given if while on the ground with the FI STOP OVRD knob pulled, the left engine is started?
|
A red CONFIG warning
|
|
Can the CONFIG warning be cancelled for a FI STOP OVRD knob pulled while starting the left engine?
|
No.
The condition lever must be returned to FUEL OFF |
|
What is the placarded operating range for condition levers?
|
-FUEL OFF,
-FEATHER, -START, -UNF, -MIN-MAX, -T/M |
|
The engine driven alternator supplies the Engine Electrical System through 3 separate outputs for the operation of what?
|
{D.I.E.}:
-DECU power supply -Ignition exciter power supply -ENG (Ng) indicator signal |
|
Are there any controls or indications for the Engine Electrical System?
|
No
|
|
What are the three modes of the ignition system?
|
-Start ignition,
-Auto ignition, -Continuous ignition |
|
When is Start Ignition available?
|
When the switch is in NORM, ignition is:
-activated when the start relay closes and, -terminates when the start relay opens at the end of a start cycle |
|
Auto Ignition occurs when the DECU detects what?
|
Engine flameout
OR Np over- speed |
|
How long is Auto ignition activated for?
|
At least 7 seconds
|
|
When is Continuous Ignition active?
|
When the switch is selected to CONT
OR when power is lost from the respective battery bus |
|
When will the respective IGN light illuminate on the status panel?
|
Anytime the switch is selected to CONT
OR When NORM is selected and any of the following occur: -Engine start cycle -Auto relight is activated -Control power is lost -The power turbine over-speeds |
|
What is used to prevent fuel filter icing?
|
Fuel Heater
|
|
What is the heat source for the fuel heater?
|
Prop gear box oil
|
|
Is fuel heating pilot controlled?
|
No,
it is automatically regulated by a thermal sensor |
|
Can the engine operate without a working main pump?
|
Yes,
standby pressure is sufficient |
|
Can the engine operate without a HP pump from the HMU?
|
No
|
|
What functions does the HMU provide?
|
-Fuel scheduling through the metering valve for Ng governing
-Controls actuation of the inlet guide vanes and anti-ice start bleed valve -Protects the gas generator spool from over speeding -Accomplishes engine shutdown by means of the fuel shutoff valve |
|
How does the HMU protect the gas generator from over speeding?
|
By automatically shutting fuel off at 110% Ng
|
|
The DECU accomplishes what functions?
|
{N.A.B.}:
-Np over speed protection -Auto ignition -Bottom Governing |
|
At what speed does the DECU shut off fuel for NP over speeding?
|
25000 power turbine RPM
OR 1572 PRPM |
|
When will the fuel shut off valve be reopened due to a prop over speed?
|
When power turbine RPM decreases below 25000 RPM
|
|
What prop RPM does bottom governing maintain?
|
Minimum of 1040 PRPM
|
|
During maximum reversing prop RPM increases to what RPM?
|
1200 PRPM
|
|
Where must the condition lever be in order to obtain bottom governing?
|
MIN-MAX range
|
|
What is the function of Bottom governing?
|
To maintain a minimum prop RPM during taxi and reverse operations
|
|
What controls CTOT and APR operation?
|
The DECU through the HMU torque motor
|
|
If a flameout should occur what % increase does the APR provide?
|
7% increase to the operating engine
|
|
What procedure is done to correct a DECU failure that is causing over-temp, over-torque, or prop over speed?
|
Torque motor lockout
|
|
While in T/M range where is fuel vented to?
|
Fuel is vented overboard so it is important not to stay in the T/M range
|
|
Does T/M lockout affect propeller governing?
|
No
|
|
What “normal” functions will be lost if while operating in T/M lockout?
|
-Bottom governing,
-CTOT, -APR functions |
|
Before selecting The CTOT switch to ON or APR power should be set to?
|
Within 15-20% of target torque,
but no lower than 75% |
|
What temperature will the CTOT limit the engine to?
|
955ºC
|
|
Does the CTOT provide torque and temp protection during T/O and GA?
|
Yes,
it will increase to selected torque value or 955ºC whichever occurs first |
|
Does the Autocoarsen switch have to be on to achieve APR function?
|
Yes
|
|
What is indicated by an oil pressure gauge reading zero without a CWP light on?
|
Failure of the oil pressure gauge
|
|
With a leak in oil pressure what would typically be noticed?
|
Pressure dropping to around 20psi and fluctuating,
followed by either constant or decreasing oil temp due to air being introduced into the line |
|
How is scavenge oil cooled?
|
By an oil-to-fuel cooler and then directed to the inlet frame vanes to aid in inlet antiicing which further cools the oil
|
|
Of the 5 quarts in the prop gear box reservoir how much is kept for a reserve for emergency feathering?
|
1 quart
|
|
With the PL above FLT IDLE what psi triggers an OIL PRESS CWP?
|
Below 25psi
|
|
With the PL below FLT IDLE what psi triggers an OIL PRESS CWP?
|
Below 7psi
|
|
What is a characteristic of a pressure transducer failure for the oil system?
|
Indication will rapidly go to zero or to the upper limit of the gauge
|
|
What is indicated by an illuminated ENG OIL PRESS light on the CWP?
|
The associated prop gear box
OR engine oil pressure is low |
|
What is the governor speed control range?
|
1150 to 1396 PRPM
|
|
On the Dowty props what is used to drive the engine to the feathered position?
|
Prop oil pressure
|
|
With a loss of Prop oil press will the prop feather when CL is in fuel off?
|
No
|
|
How is the Prop feathered after a loss of Prop oil pressure?
|
Using the MAN FEATHER pump
|
|
What are the 2 different modes for the Autocoarsen system?
|
High
OR Low power modes |
|
AUTOCOARS LOW light illuminates when which conditions exist?
|
-One or both PLA less than 64 degrees
-Ng greater than 55% on both engines -Starter/generator rpm greater than 60% on both engines |
|
Auto coarsen is activated in low mode when which conditions exist?
|
-Ng less than 55% on failed engine
-Starter/generator rpm less than 60% on the failed engine -Ng greater than 55% on operating engine |
|
What would cause the prop to “un-coarsen”?
|
-P3 increases to greater than 120psi on the failed engine AND
-Torque increases above 50% on the failed engine OR -The AUTOCOARSEN switch is selected to OFF |
|
What conditions must be met for the AUTOCOARS HIGH light to illuminate?
|
-PLA greater than 64 degrees
-Torque at least 50% -P3 less than 120psi |
|
Auto coarsen is activated in high mode if what conditions exist?
|
-PLA greater than 64 degrees on both engines
-Torque greater than 50% on operating engine -Torque less than 50% on the failed engine -Torque differential greater than 25% between engines -P3 less than 120psi on the failed engine |
|
What is indicated by an illuminated AUTOCOARS CWP light?
|
Autocoarsen computer has failed
|
|
What is used to keep both props at the same RPM?
|
A Prop synchrophaser
|
|
Which prop is considered the Master prop in the Synchrophasing system?
|
The left prop is the master and controls the right prop (slave)
|
|
What does the phasing portion of the prop sync do?
|
Positions the blades so only one blade crosses the wing root at a time between both engines
|
|
At what temperature do the ENGINE OV TEMP lights illuminate?
|
When ITT exceeds 962ºC
|
|
If an engine temperature of 1050ºC what temp would be read on the gauge?
|
050
|
|
Which engine gauge operates in digital and analog?
|
Engine Temp (ITT)
|
|
A single chime indicates what?
|
A master caution has been activated
|
|
What does a triple chime indicate?
|
A master warning has been activated
|
|
What warning is not overridden by the Auto Pilot Disconnect?
|
Stall Warning
|
|
At what speed does the over speed warning sound?
|
At Vmo
|
|
How long will the master warning GLARESHIELD light stay on?
|
Until either side master warning pushbutton is pressed
|
|
How long will a master warning CWP light stay illuminated?
|
As long as the condition exists
|
|
What are the Special Alerts?
|
-Auto Pilot disconnect
-Stall warning -Over speed warning -Altitude Alert |
|
What is the order Alerting Priority and Identification?
|
-(Stall Warning - Clacker)
-(AP disconnect - Cavalry charge) -(Engine Fire - Fire Bell) -(Configuration - Intermittent horn) -(Other Master Warnings - Triple chime) -(Altitude Alerter - C-Chord) -(Master Cautions - Single chime) -(Over speed - Continuous horn) |
|
How is the T/O inhibit function reset?
|
-By pressing the T/O inhibit pushbutton,
-By pressing the GND OPS pushbutton -By retracting the landing gear |
|
What does an illuminated “BITE” light indicate?
|
Loss of redundancy in the warning enunciator system
|
|
What is the purpose of the T/O inhibit?
|
To inhibit non essential warnings during the takeoff phase
|
|
Why do the lights alternate side to side during a lamps test?
|
To test each bulb individually
|
|
How many bulbs are in each CWP light?
|
2
|
|
Which lights are not tested during a lamps test?
|
-Drive XFR,
-Gear In Transit, -Pessurization FAULT light |
|
In order to test the Autocoarsen light what must be done first?
|
Autocoarsen switch must be set to ON
|
|
What is not inhibited by the T/O Inhibit?
|
{R. G.A.P.}:
-Red MASTER warnings, -Gust lock, -Autocoarsen, -Parking brake |
|
What is the purpose of the GND OPS mode?
|
To avoid nuisance cautions on the ground
|
|
What does the GND OPS mode automatically come on?
|
On the ground after landing
|
|
Will the GND OPS mode inhibit all aural cautions?
|
Yes
|
|
What warning is given if the aircraft begins a descent after takeoff?
|
“DON’T SINK”
|
|
Do Colgan Air equipped A/C have a minimums callout?
|
No
|
|
If airspeed is less than 178kts and gear is not down by what altitude, will the “too low gear” warning sound?
|
500 feet RALT
|
|
At what altitude is the “too low flaps” given if gear is down and locked and flaps are not in the landing position?
|
170 feet RALT
|
|
What does moving the TAWS/FLAP switch to OVRD do?
|
Simulates flaps down position to eliminate the “To low flaps” callout
|
|
At what altitude is the “glide slope” warning active?
|
30’-1000’ RALT
|
|
At what deviation from the glide slope is the “Glide slope” warning given?
|
1.3 dots
|
|
When flying at an uncontrolled field will TCAS see ALL aircraft?
|
No,
TCAS will only see aircraft with working transponders |
|
What must a pilot do if TCAS issues an RA?
|
Must comply with the RA within 5 seconds unless it is deemed to be unsafe
|