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165 Cards in this Set
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Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals because in neonates the drugs are: a. Biotransformed (metabolized) more rapidly b. Absorbed more slowly from the gastrointestinal tract c. Not biotransformed d. Biotransformed (metabolized) more slowly |
Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals because in neonates the drugs are (d) biotransformed (metabolized) more slowly The neonatal liver is not equipped to deal efficiently with the the biotransformation of most drugs until approximately 1 month of age |
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Ten milliliters of a 2.5% solution of thiopentone contains: a. 250 mg of thiopentone b. 25 mg of thiopentone c. 100 mg of thiopentone d. 2.5 mg of thiopentone |
Ten milliliters of a 2.5% solution of thiopentone contains (D) 2.5 mg of thiopentone 2.5% = 25 mg/ml; therefore in 10 ml there are 250 mg of thiopentone |
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Cholinergic agents do all of the following except: a. slow heart rate b. increase blood flow to intestinal tract c. decrease diameter of bronchioles d. cause peripheral vasodilation |
Cholinergic agents do all of the following except (d) cause peripheral vasodilation Cholinergic agents mimic the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system; sometimes it is referred to as the "Rest and restore" system; it has minimal effect on peripheral vessels. Ex. of Cholinergic agents are |
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Nitroglycerin is sometimes used as a paste applied to the pinna or to the abdominal skin in dogs with cardiovascular disease. Nitroglycerin has what therapeutic effect? a. increases strength of heart contractions b. causes vasodilation c. causes bronchodilation d. decreases the heart rate |
Nitroglycerin is sometimes used as a paste applied to the pinna or to the abdominal skin in dogs with cardiovascular disease. Nitroglycerin (B) causes vasodilation Nitroglycerin is a venodilator and, perhaps, more importantly, it also dilates cardiac arterioles, providing improved blood supply to the cardiac muscle |
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Why should syrup of ipecac and activated charcoal (the universal antidote) not be given simultaneously? a. the resultant vomiting is too severe and too prolonged b. they cancel out the beneficial effects of each other c. neither is absorbed in sufficient quantity to be of any benefit d. severe diarrhea and intestinal cramping result |
Syrup of ipecac and activated charcoal (the universal antidote) should not be given simultaneously because (b) they cancel out the beneficial effects of each other Syrup of ipecac tends to coat the charcoal, preventing the toxicant from being absorbed by the charcoal. The charcoal tends to keep the syrup of ipecac away from the gastrointestinal wall, thus preventing it from irritating the gastrointestinal tract and inducing the desired emetic effect |
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anticholinergic drugs like atropine, aminopentamide (Centrine), or isopropamide (Darbazine) are expected to have what effect on the gastrointestinal tract? a. increase secretions by the bowel b. increase movement of feces through the bowel c. decrease the ability of compounds to irritate the bowel wall d. decrease bowel motility |
anticholinergic drugs like atropine, aminopentamide (Centrine), or isopropamide (Darbazine) are expected to (d) decrease bowel motility These drugs are anticholinergic; that is they work against acetylcholine. acetylecholine is the neurotransmitter heavily involved with the parasympathetic nervous system. blocking acetylcholine impairs the parasympathetic nervous system, which stimulates gastrointestinal movement, secretion, and blood flow |
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opioid drugs such as paregoric and loperamide are often used as antidiarrheals. what is their main effect on the gastrointestinal tract? a. decrease diarrhea by decreasing peristaltic waves b. decrease diarrhea by relaxing segmental mixing contractions c. decrease diarrhea by increasing segmental mixing contractions d. decrease constipation by increasing intestinal secretions |
opioid drugs such as paregoric and loperamide are often used as antidiarrheals. Their main effect on the gastrointestinal tract is (c) decrease diarrhea by increasing segmental mixing contractions Opioid drugs (narcotics) are used to treat diarrhea by increasing segmental contractions of the bowel, thus increasing the resistance to feces flow |
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Bismuth subsalicylate is the active ingredient in a common over-the-counter (OTC) preparation used for some types of gastrointestinal disease for what effect? a. mild laxative b. antiemetic c. antidiarrheal d. emetic |
Bismuth subsalicylate is the active ingredient in a common over-the-counter (OTC) preparation used for some types of gastrointestinal disease for (c) antidiarrheal effect pepto bismol contains this ingredient. the salicylate blocks prostaglandin formation in the gastrointestinal tract. prostaglandins normally stimulate fluid secretions; therefore blocking prostaglandin formation decreases the fluid consistency of the feces |
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how many milligrams are in each milliliter of a 24% solution a. 24 b. 2.4 c. 240 d. 0.24 |
There are (c) 240 milligrams in each milliliter of a 24% solution there are 24 grams per 100 milliliters which is 0.24 g per ml; 0.24 g = 240 mg |
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what effect does renal failure or compromised liver function have on the pharmacokinetics of many drugs? a. decreased absorption of drugs given orally b. increased elimination rate of drugs from the body c. decreased volume of distribution of drugs d. increased half-life of drugs |
Renal failure or compromised liver function (d) increases the half-life of drugs because many drugs leave the body through the kidneys and/or liver a decrease in the function of these organs decrease the rate in which the drugs leave the body/ Elimination rate is decreased and half-life (the time it takes for half of the drug to leave the body) is prolonged or increased |
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if a drug that is very irritating to tissues is accidentally given outside of the cephalic vein (perivascularly), you should immediately a. apply a tourniquet to prevent movement of drug up the leg b. infiltrate the area with sterile saline or other sterile isotonic fluid c. aspirate the area with a needle and syringe to remove as much of the drug as possible d. inject epinephrine into the area to constrict the capillaries and decrease drug absorption |
if a drug that is very irritating to tissues is accidentally given outside of the cephalic vein (perivascularly), you should immediately (b) infiltrate the area with sterile saline or other sterile isotonic fluid diluting the agent is most important. Sometimes lidocaine is added to the infiltrate. Massaging the area and applying heat are also sometimes suggested |
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The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: canine patient, amoxicillian 100 mg tablets, sig 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. date 1/5/96. what does prn mean? a. administer every other day b. administer by mouth c. administer as needed d. administer on an empty stomach |
The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: canine patient, amoxicillian 100 mg tablets, sig 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. date 1/5/96. prn means (c) administer as needed |
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The abbreviations od and os on a prescription refer to a. administer by mouth and by rectum b. right ear and left ear c. right eye and left eye d. administer with food and without food |
The abbreviations od and os on a prescription refer to (c) right eye (od) and left eye (os) |
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Most pharmaceutical agents that are measured in grains have how many milligrams per grain? a. 30 b. 60 c. 100 d. 120 |
Most pharmaceutical agents that are measured in grains have (c) 60 milligrams per grain Although traditionally 65 mg = 1 grain, many products (phenobarbital, aspirin) that are measured in grains use the conversion 60 mg = 1 grain |
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How many milliliters are in a teaspoon ? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 |
There are (C) 5 milliliters in a teaspoon |
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How many cubic centimeters are in a tablespoon? a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 30 |
There are (b) 15 cubic centimeters in a tablespoon |
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Which equivalent is correct? a. q12h = QD b. q6h = QID c. q4h = TID d q8h = BID |
The correct equivalent is (B) q6h = QID (four times a day) QD means once a day, TID means three times a day, BID means twice a day qNUMBERh means every NUMBER hours so q6h means every 6 hours |
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Each drug approved for use in food producing animals has a time period given on the label between the last dose and when the animal can be slaughtered for food or when milk can be sold. What is this period called? a. elimination half-life b. secretion period c. refractory period d. withdrawal time |
Each drug approved for use in food producing animals has a time period given on the label between the last dose and when the animal can be slaughtered for food or when milk can be sold. This period is called (D) withdrawal time Any time a medication is administered to food animals, the withdrawal time must be clearly indicated on the label and to the livestock owner |
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Many drugs do not have X mg/ml listed on their labels but instead have their concentrations listed as a percent (e.g., X% solution). Which of the following most accurately reflects the conversion of a percentage of a solution to a weight per volume format? a. X% = X g/ml b. X% = X g/10 ml c. X% = X g/100 ml d X% = X mg/10 ml |
Many drugs do not have X mg/ml listed on their labels but instead have their concentrations listed as a percent (e.g., X% solution). (C) X% = X g/100 ml most accurately reflects the conversion of a percentage of a solution to a weight per volume format For example a 5% solution contains 5 g/100 ml (which is 0.05 g/ml or 50 mg/ml) |
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thiobarbiturate should be administered with great care or not at all to a. collies b. greyhound c. rottweilers d. spaneils |
thiobarbiturate should be administered with great care or not at all to (b) greyhounds sight hounds such as greyhound have minimal fat, so the thiobarbiturates will remain in the circulation at high concentrations |
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what drug is contraindicated in the treatment of glaucoma? a. atropine sulfate b. carbachol c. miotics d. pilocarpine |
(A) atropine sulfate is contraindicated in the treatment of glaucoma atropine is a mydriatic (dilates the pupils) and cycloplegic (paralyzes the ciliary muscle of the eye resulting in a loss of accommodation) and is used to facilitate examination of the eye |
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a chronotropic agent affects the a. force of contraction b. rate of contraction c. rhythm of contraction d. rate of relaxation |
a chronotropic agent affects (B) the rate of contraction chronotropic relates to rate, inotropic relates to force |
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puppies born via cesarean section that are not breathing well may benefit from ____ drops adminsitered sublingually. a. dobutamine b. digitalis c. doxapram d. diazepam |
puppies born via cesarean section that are not breathing well may benefit from (c) doxapram drops administered sublingually doxapram is a respiratory stimulant |
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parenteral adminsitration of phenybutazone should be via __ only a. subcutaneous injection b. intramuscular injection c. subcutaneous or intramusuclar injection d. intravenous injection |
parenteral adminsitration of phenybutazone should be via (D) intravenous injection only subcutaneous and intramuscular injection may lead to sloughing of tissue |
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repository forms of parenteral drugs a. contain a special coating that protects the drug from the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach b. are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration c. are composed of specially prepared plant or animal parts rather than being manufactured from chemicals d. are extremely irritating to the tissues |
repository forms of parenteral drugs (b) are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration repository forms of injectable drugs are not necessarily irritating to tissues and are formulated specifically to prolong absorption from the site of adminstration. enteric coatings protect drugs from the acidic environment of the stomach |
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what liquid form of drug is most commonly administered intravenously? a. emulsion b. solution c. suspension d. elixir |
(b) solutions are most commonly administered intravenously drugs administered intravenously are generally clear rather than cloud or thick and they contain suspended particles. elixirs are intended for oral administration |
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which of these drugs is not an antifungal drug? a. griseofulvin (fulvicin) b. clotrimazole (otomax) c. ketoconazole (nizoral) d. sulfadimethoxine (albon) |
griseofulvin (fulvicin), clotrimazole (otomax), and ketoconazole (nizoral) are all antifungal drugs but sulfadimethoxine (albon) is not Albon is a coccidiostatic and antibacterial drug |
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an example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a b-lactamase inhibitor is a. amoxicillin b. clavamox c. tetracycline d. penicillin |
an example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a b-lactamase inhibitor is (b) clavamox clavulanic acid is added to penicillin drugs such as amoxicillin, producing a potentiated compound. this combination drug is active against a wider spectrum of bacteria including those that produce enzymes called b-lactamase, which attack and break down penicillin's b-lactam ring, rendering it inactive |
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in what class of antibiotic drug are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects? a. barbiturates b. aminoglycosides c. phenothiazine tranquilizers d. dissociative anesthetics |
(b) aminoglycosides is a class of antibiotic drugs that have nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity as potential side effects the aminoglycoside group of antibiotics is successfully used in the treatment of severe bacterial infections, although a great deal of care must be taken because of their potential to cause serious side effects. example aminoglycosides include amikacin, gentamicin, and neomycin |
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Dr. blackman prescribed a particular antibioitic for a rabbit with a Pasteurella infection and asked you to educate the client regarding special instructions for adminstration of the drug. you told the client that she should wear gloves when handling this medication, because it has been associated with a rare adverse reaction in humans: aplastic anemia. based on this information, the drug that you dispensed was most likely a. gentamicin b. teracycline c. erythromycin d. chloramphenicol |
Dr. blackman prescribed a particular antibioitic for a rabbit with a Pasteurella infection and asked you to educate the client regarding special instructions for adminstration of the drug. you told the client that she should wear gloves when handling this medication, because it has been associated with a rare adverse reaction in humans: aplastic anemia. based on this information, the drug that you dispensed was most likely (d) chloramphenicol Chloramphenicol is a broad-spectrum antibiotic often used for the treatment of infections in rabbits and pocket pets because penicillins and cephalosporins are potentially toxic in these species. Chloramphenicol has been found to cause myelosuppression in mammals including humans, resulting in nonregenerative anemia and leukopenia. care must be taken in handling this drug to minimize repeated contact with or inhalation of the powder |
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a very useful group of broad-spectrum drugs whose popularity has more recently declined because of numerous potential side effects including keratoconjunctivitis sicca, polyarthritis (especially in Doberman pinschers), hematuria, photosensitivity and hypothyroidism is the a. sulfonamides b. macrolides c. tetracyclines d. fluoroquinolones |
a very useful group of broad-spectrum drugs whose popularity has more recently declined because of numerous potential side effects including keratoconjunctivitis sicca, polyarthritis (especially in Doberman pinschers), hematuria, photosensitivity and hypothyroidism is the (A) sulfonamides Sulfonamides (including tribrissen, primor, and albon) are still often used for treatment of infections although it is important that veterinary professionals be able to recognize the potentially serious side effects of these drugs |
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which of the following statements about tetracyclines is true? a. tetracyclines are bacteriocidal b. oral absorption of tetracyclines is increased in the presence of food c. tetracyclines are potentially nephrotoxic and ototoxic d. tetracyclines may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals |
regarding tetracyclines (D) tetracyclines may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals |
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cosmo, an 11-year-old M/C pug, has recently been diagnosed with mitral insufficiency and was referred to a veterinary cardiologist. the specialist decided to initiate treatment with digoxin, a postive inotrope and negative chronotrope. this means that it a. increases the blood pressure and decreases the cardiac output b. increases the peripheral vascular resistance and decreases the cardiac output c. increases the force of contraction and decreases the heart rate d. increases the heart rate and decreases the blood pressure |
cosmo, an 11-year-old M/C pug, has recently been diagnosed with mitral insufficiency and was referred to a veterinary cardiologist. the specialist decided to initiate treatment with digoxin, a postive inotrope and negative chronotrope. this means that it (c) increases the force of contraction and decreases the heart rate inotropy is the force of cardiac contraction and chronotropy is the frequency of cardiac contraction |
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which of the following would be the least common side effect expected with common cancer chemotherapeutic drugs? a. myelosuppression b. vomiting and diarrhea c. pruritus d. alopecia |
common side effects seen with with cancer chemotherapeutic drugs are myelosuppression, vomiting and diarrhea, and alopecia but (C) pruritus is not commonly seen antineoplastic compounds produce characteristic toxicity to various body tissues that are related to tissue growth rate. lymphocytes and bone marrow cells are most profoundly affected, followed by the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract and cells of the hair folicles. pruritius is a less frequently anticipated side effct of chemotherapy |
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common drugs of plant origin, such as digoxin and atropine, are ineffective in a cow when administered orally because of a. eructation b. the large size of the rumen c. methane gas d. digestive microorganisms |
common drugs of plant origin, such as digoxin and atropine, are ineffective in a cow when administered orally because of (d) digestive microorganisms drugs of plant origin may be inactivated by the digestive microorganisms in the rumen |
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which of these tissues is not a normal site for drugs to accumulate to be released later, thereby prolonging the effect of the drug? a. pancreas b. fat c. muscle d. liver |
it is normal for drugs to accumulate in the fat, muscle and liver to be released later thereby prolonging the effect of the drug but it is not normal for drugs to accumulate in the (A) pancreas |
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chronic use of moderate-to-high doses of glucocorticoids may result in the development of a. addisons disease b. cushings disease c. diabetes mellitus d. insulinoma |
chronic use of moderate-to-high doses of glucocorticoids may result in the development of (b) cushings disease high levels of glucocorticoids cause cushing disease. when the glucocorticoids are exogenous, the disease is called iatrogenic |
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glucocorticoids have different durations of activity, a fact that plays an important role in their risk of side effects with long term use, which of the following glucocorticoids has the shortest duration of activity? a. hydrocortisone b. prednisone c. dexamethasone d. triamicinolone |
glucocorticoids have different durations of activity, a fact that plays an important role in their risk of side effects with long term use. out of the list of hydrocortisone, prednisone, dexamethasone, and triamicinolone (a) hydrocortisone has the shortest duration of activity |
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which of the following is/are not a side effect of orgal glucocorticoid administration in dogs? a. polyuria and polydipsia b. polyphagia c. hyperglycemia d. vomiting |
side effects of orgal glucocorticoid administration in dogs include polyphagia, hyperglycemia, polyuria and polydipsia but not (D) vomiting emesis is not a commonly reported side effecting of steroid administration |
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glucocorticoids are often used to treat all of the following conditions except a. autoimmune skin disease b. asthma c. lymphocytic neoplasias d. hyperadrenocorticism |
glucocorticoids are often used to treat all of the following conditions except (d) hyperadrenocorticism (aka cushing's disease) glucocorticoids are the primary treatment in autoimmune, allergic/inflammatory, and some neoplastic diseases. iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism can actually be caused by glucocorticoid administration |
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an example of an anticholinergic drug is a. acetylcholine b. pilocarpine c. atropine d. nicotine |
an example of an anticholinergic drug is (c) atropine acetylecholine, pilocarpine, and nicotine are all cholinergic drugs |
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which of the following drugs is most commonly used to treat urinary incontinence in dogs? a. phenylpropanolamine b. diethylcarbamazine c. acepromazine d. bethanechol |
(a) phenylpropanolamine is most commonly used to treat urinary incontinence in dogs |
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which of the following drugs is classified as an osmotic diuretic and is often used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oliguric renal failure |
(c) mannitol is classified as an osmotic diuretic and is often used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oliguric renal failure mannitol is osmotically active and is therefore effective at pulling fluid into the intravascular space |
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griseofulvin (fulvicin) is used in cats, dogs, and horses to treat which of the following disorders? a. dermatophytosis b. staphylococcus pyoderma c. rickettsial disease d. nematode infection |
griseofulvin (fulvicin) is used in cats, dogs and horses to treat (a) dermatophytosis with nonlocalized or refractory infections, orgal griseofulvin is used to treat dermatophytosis in addition to topical therapy with an antifungal agent |
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an example of an alpha 2 agonist is a. xylazine b. propranolol c. hydralazine d. epinephrine |
an example of an alpha 2 agonist is (a) xylazine propranolol is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent. hydralazine is an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent, and epinephrine is a sympathomimetic drug |
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when are drugs like sulfadimethoxine, sulfadiazine, and other sulfa drugs most likely to cause kidney problems? a. when an animal is receiving intravenous fluids and they have a diuretic effect on the kidney b. when an animal is dehydrated c. when an animal has only one functiona kidney d. when an animal has a bladder infection |
drugs like sulfadimethoxine, sulfadiazine, and other sulfa drugs are most likely to cause kidney problems (b) when an animal is dehdyrated when an animal is dehydrated, there is less water passing through the kidneys, resulting in possible precipitation of sulfate crystals that, in turn, can damage the kidneys |
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what are trimethoprim and ormetropim? a. agents that are growth regulators b. agents that enhance bactericidal activity of sulfa drugs c. agents that enhance the specturm of activity of penicllins d. agents that reduce the risk of liver damage from hepatotoxic drugs |
trimethoprim and ormetroprim are (b) agents that enhance the bactericidal activity of sulfa drugs omretroprim and trimethoprim enhance the bactericidal effects of killing by sulfa drugs |
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within the past few years, there have been reports of dogs have adverse reactions to sulfadiazine, a very commonly used sulfonamide. what reaction should clients and veterinary professionals watch for? a. cardiac arrest b. sudden liver failure c. decreased tear produciton d. increased urination |
within the past few years, there have been reports of dogs have adverse reactions to sulfadiazine, a very commonly used sulfonamide. veterinary professionals and clients should watch out for (c) decreased tear produciton keratoconjunctivitis sicca, or dry eye, has been reported |
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what drug is used intravenously to treat status epilepticus? a. primidone b. phenytoin c. diazepam d. phenobarbital |
(c) diazepam is used intravenously to treat status epilepticus diazepam (valium) is not very effective when given PO but it is commonly used via IV to stop ongoing seizure activity |
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what anticonvulsant drug is converted by the liver primarily to phenobarbital, which accounts for most of its anticonvulsant activity? a. diazepam b. primidone c. phenytoin d. clonazepam |
(b) primidone is an anticonvulsant drug which is converted by the liver primarily to phenobarbital which accounts for most of its anticonvulsant activity appriximately 85% of primidone is converted to phenobarbital which in turn constitutes the major drug-controlling seizure activity |
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what traditional anticonvulsant is now being used simultaneously with phenobarbital in dogs that are nonresponsive to phenobarbital alone? a. diazepam b. potassium bromide c. phenytoin d. strychnine |
(B) potassium bromide is a traditional anticonvulsant now being used simultaneously with phenobarbital in dogs that are nonresponsive to phenobarbital alone this was the first anticonvulsant used in the late 1800s in people. much of its mechanism of action is still unknown |
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drugs used to increase airflow through respiratory passageways narrowed by the constriction of smooth muscles around them are called a. bronchodilators b. expectorants c. antitussives d. antihistamines |
drugs used to increase airflow through respiratory passageways narrowed by the constriction of smooth muscles around them are called (a) bronchodilators bronchodilators are often used in the treatment of asthma. examples of bronchodilators include theophylline, albuterol, aminophylline, terbutaline, epinephrine |
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drug that are described as beta two adrenergic receptor stimulators have what effect on the respiratory tree? a. increase the volume of watery secretions b. increase the volume of sticky mucoid secretions c. cause bronchoconstriction d. cause bronchodialation |
drugs that are described as beta two adrenergic receptor stimulators (D) cause bronchodilation beta2 adrenergic receptors relax the smooth muscles that encircle the bronchioles. examples of beta2 adrenergic receptor stimulators are albuterol, epinephrine, clenbuterol, isoproterenol, and terbutaline |
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why is it important that pus-filled wounds or ear canals with purulent debris be thoroughly cleaned before applyign a topical aminoglycoside (e.g. gentamicin)? a. purulent material shields bacterial from the antibiotic b. the alkaline nature of the purulent material reduces bacterial uptake of the drug c. nucleic acids in the cellular debris (pus) bind the aminoglycoside d. irriation from the purpulent material causes the tissue to produce enzymes against the aminoglycoside |
it is important that pus-filled wounds or ear canals with purulent debris be thoroughly cleaned before applyign a topical aminoglycoside (e.g. gentamicin) because (c) nucleic acids in the cellular debris (pus) bind the aminoglycoside aminoglycosides work by binding to ribosomes (made from ribonucelic acid or RNA). if there are lysed white blood cells present, the nucleic acid from the cellular debris bind to the aminoblycosides and prevent them from acting against he bacteria examples of aminoglycosides include gentamicin amikacin, kanamycin, neomycin, netilmicin |
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what drugs are considered fluoroquinolones? a. oxyteracycline, doxycycline b. danofloxacin ,enrofloxacin c. sulfadimethoxine, sulfamethazine d. chloramphenicol, lincomycin |
(b) danofloxacin and enrofloxacin are fluoroquinolones. fluroquinolone drug names typically end with -floxacin oxyteracycline and doxycycline are tetracyclines. sulfadimethoxine and sulfamethazine are sulfonamides. Chloramphenicol is a phenicol and lincomycin is a lincosamide. All of the drugs listed are antimicrobials |
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in what animal is used of enrofloxacin safest? a. 1 yr old dutch rabbit b. 3 month old doberman puppy c. 6 month old quarter horse colt d. 2 yr old siamese cat |
enrofloxacin is safest in (A) a 1 yr old rabbit enrofloxacin may adversely affect developing joint cartilage in dogs and horses. it has been associated with retinal blindness in cats. it is a good choice for rabbits because it does not destroy normal gut flora. enrofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone |
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with what type of diet should oral tetracyclines not be administered? a. high fat b. low sodium c. high calcium d. low potassium |
oral tetracyclines should not be adminsitered with a (C) high calcium diet) calclium and other minerals in the gastrointestinal tract chelates (combines with) tetracycline in such a way that the drug cannot be absorbed and is rendered ineffective. this is the reason oral tetracycline should not be given with milk products |
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why should tetracycline use be avoided in pregnant bitches? a. it may cause changes in the joint cartilage that may result in arthritis at an older age in the pup b. it may be deposited in dental enamel and give the pup's teeth a mottled yellow appearance c. it may impair normal central nervous system development in the pups that may showup as behavioral changes later in life d. it may damage the developing pups and may result in liver impairment later in life |
tetracycline use should be avoided in pregnant bitches because (B) it may be deposite din dental enamel and give the pup's teeth a mottled yellow appearance the same attracton that chelates calcium to tetracycline binds tetracycline to bone and enamel in the developing fetus. the yllow mottling of otherwise white dental enamel can be unsightly |
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what is the effect of prostaglandin F2 alpha on the reproductive system a. ovulation b. luteolysis c. follicle stimulation d. corpus luteum formation |
the effect of prostaglandin F2 alpha on the reproductive system is (b) luteolysis luteolysis in polyestrus animals, such as cattle, can be used ot synchronize breeding |
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chrloamphenicol is metabolized by specific enzyme in the liver. consequently, it interferes with or influences how rapidly other drugs metabolized by the same liver enzymes are eliminated from the body. this is important to remember to prevent accidental overdose of a simultaneously administered drug. metabolism of what drug is affected by simultaneous use of chloramphenicol? a. phenobarbital b. aspirin c. sulfadimethoxine d. enrofloxacin |
chrloamphenicol is metabolized by specific enzyme in the liver. consequently, it interferes with or influences how rapidly other drugs metabolized by the same liver enzymes are eliminated from the body. this is important to remember to prevent accidental overdose of a simultaneously administered drug. metabolism of (a) phenobarbital is affected by simultaneous use of chloramphenicol chloramphenicol exists largely in a non-ionized (lipophilic) form that can readily cross membranes. most other antibiotics exist in an ionized (hydrophilic) form at normal body pH, thus they are prevented from readily crossing lipid membranes |
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why is chloramphenicol used with extreme caution in cats and neonates? a. it can bind with dietary calcium (milk) and become deactivated b. the liver is unable to metabolize chloramphenicol effectively in these animals c. it can alter developing bone, enamel, and cartilage d. it may drastically alter gut bacterial flora, resulting in fatal diarrhea |
chloramphenicol is used with extreme caution in cats and neonates because (b) the liver is unable to metabolize chloramphenicol effectively in these animals the neonatal liver is not fully capable of functioning for several weeks. thus the neonate is unable to metabolize chloramphenicol very readily. the same is true for cats of any age |
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what antimicrobial is banned from use in any food animal because of the risk to human health? a. oxytetracycline b. dicloxacillin c. chloramphenicol d. sulfadimethoxine |
(c) chloramphenicol is banned from use in any food animal because of the risk to human health the FDA has banned use of chloramphenicol in any animal to be used for food production due to the risk of bone marrow toxicity with consumption of drug residues in foods of animal origin |
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the most common adverse side effects of aminoglycoside antimicrobials are a. nephrotoxicity b. neprhotoxicity and ototoxicity c. ototoxicity and neurotoxicity d. nephrotoxicity, otooxicity and neurotoxicity |
the most common adverse side effects of aminoglycoside antimicrobials are (b) nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity amingolycoside drugs tendot concentrate in the kidneys and inner ears. some aminoglycosides are streptomycin, neomycin, gentamicin |
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which statement regarding tetracyclines is true? a. they are bactericidal b. they alter the permeability of the cell wall and cause lysis c. currently many bacteria are resistant to them d. they areunable to penetrate the bacterial cell wall |
regarding tetracyclines (c) currently many bacteria are resistant to them tetracyclines have been in use for many eyars, and, as a result, the resistance to them is proportionately greater than with many other antiinfectives. example tetracyclines are doxycycline, oxytetracycline, tetracycline |
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because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often effective against infections of a. nervous tissue b. urinary tract c. skin d. joint capsules |
because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often effective against infections of (b) urinary tract sulfonamide antibiotics are excreted in the urine and can be useful for urinary tract infections with susceptible organisms. |
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the use of fluoroquinolones as antiinfective agents should be done with great caution or not at all in a. dogs b. cats c. horses d. birds |
the use of fluoroquinolones as antiinfective agents should be done with great caution or not at all in (b) cats at some doses, the fluoroquinolone drug enrofloxacin has been associated with blindness in cats |
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the antiinfective drug that should be avoided in all food-producing animals is a. lincosamides b. cephalexin c. enrofloxacin d. chloramphenicol |
the antiinfective drug that should be avoided in all food-producing animals is (d) chloramphenicol chloramphenicol is banned in food animals in the United States, because it may cause irreversible aplastic anemia in humans |
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penicillins are primarily excreted by the a. small intestine b. liver c. kidney d. stomach |
penicillins are primarily excreted by the (c) kidney some metabolism of penicillins occurs in the liver but penicillins are mainly excreted intact by the kidneys |
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acepromazine must be used with caution or not at all in a. bitches b. tomcats c. cows d. stallions |
acepromazine must be used with caution or not at all in (d) stallions acepromazine may cause paraphimosis in stallions |
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a 10 kg dog has inadvertently been administered a dose of xylazine hydrochloride intended for a 30 kg dog. the correct reversal agent for this overdose is a. yohimbine b. atipamezole c. noradrenalin d. atropine |
a 10 kg dog has inadvertently been administered a dose of xylazine hydrochloride intended for a 30 kg dog. the correct reversal agent for this overdose is (a) yohimbine xylazine hydrochloride is an alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonist that is antagonized by yohimbine |
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griseofulvin acts on a. gram-positive bacteria b. gram-negative bacteria c. gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria d. dermatophytes |
griseofulvin acts on (d) dermatophytes griseofulvin is a superficial antifungal agent |
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what is not true of sulfonamides? a. they can cause renal failure b. they can cause skin eruptions c. they can cause keratoconjunctivis sicca d. they can cause hepatitis |
regarding sulfonamides they can cause renal failure, skin eruptions, keratoconjunctivitis sicca but it is not true that (D) they can cause hepatitis there is a potential for renal disease but not adverse effects on the liver |
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what antiinfective compounds when given to juvenile animals can impair cartilage development?
a. cephalosporins b. fluoroquinolones c. penicillins d. macrolides |
when given to juvenile animals (b) fluoroquinolones can impair cartilage development
fluroquinolones have been associated with cartilage damage in young horses and puppies. examples of fluroquinolones include enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin, and orbifloxacin |
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potentiated penicillins a. have a narrow spectrum of action relative to regular penicillins b. include cephalosporins c. are active against b-lactamase-producing bacteria d. are not used in treating mastitis |
potentiated penicillins (C) are active against b-lactamase-producing bacteria |
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xylazine a. is safe in all dog b. can be reversed with naloxone c. provides some analgesia d. can cause priapsim in stallons |
xylazine (c) provides some analgesia xylazine is an alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonist |
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propofol a. is a potent analgesic b. can be gvien via the IM and IV route c. is best adminstered as a single bolus d. can be given in incremental doses |
propofol (d) can be given in incremental doses propofol has a wide margin of safety and may be used as continuous infusion or as repeated boluses |
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butorphanol a. is an antibiotic b. is an antitussive c. can be reversed using yohimbine d. is contraindicated in the cat |
butorphanol (B) is an antitussive butorphanol's original use was as a cough suppressant |
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an idophor a. has a longer action than basic iodine compound b. is not inactivated by organic materials c. is not an irritant at concentrations generally used d. provides adequate disinfection with single applicaiton |
an idophor (a) has a longer action than basic iodine compound
idophors are iodine combined with a carrier molecule' the effect is that the iodine is released over time so there is a prolonged effect |
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the active drug in proheart is moxidect, a member of the drug class a. arsenical b. organophosphate c. avermectin d. pyrantel |
the active drug in proheart is moxidect, a member of the drug class (c) avermectin |
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a risk to veterinary technicians who administer prostaglandins is a. acne b. liver failure c. kidney damage d. inducing an asthma attack |
a risk to veterinary technicians who administer prostaglandins is (d) inducing an asthma attack prostaglandins cause smooth-muscle contraction and may be absorbed across the skin. asthmatics should wear gloves when administering prostaglandins or avoid them entirely |
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acepromazine maleate causes a. respiratory depression b. tachycardia c. hypotension d. reduced salivation |
acepromazine maleate causes (c) hypotension acepromazine is a phenothiazine derivative that has the effect of vasodilation; therefore the blood pressure falls, resulting in hypotension |
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aspirin may safely be used in cats as an NSAID but it should be noted that its half-life in this species is approximately a. 2 hours b. 8 hours c. 15 hours d. 30 hours |
aspirin may safely be used in cats as an NSAID but it should be noted that its half-life in this species is approximately (d) 30 hours aspirin has a long half-life in cats, 30 hours because it is excreted by the liver (albeit slowly) |
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which statement is most accurate pertaining to insect growth regulators? a. they prevent the female from laying eggs b. they effectively kill all adult stages c. they are insecticidal with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals d. they are neurotoxic to mammals |
regarding insect growth regulators (c) they are insecticidal with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals insect growth regulators IGRs affect immature stages and are generally considered safe |
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what drug is approved for the treatment of old dog dementia? a. clomicalm b. metacam c. diazepam d. anipryl |
(d) anipryl is approved for the treatment of old dog dementia anipryl administration allows dopamine levels to increase; reduced dopamine levels are associated with canine cognitive dysfunction |
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amoxicillin (amoxi-drop) was prescribed to Molly, a 4-year-old female Chihuahua who was being dischsrged after a hospitalization. Dr. segal asks you to give her owner discharge instructions. You advise the client of all of the following except a. she should call if she notices any adverse side effects as a result of the medication b. she should complete all the medication dispensed, even if Molly is feeling well and her symptoms have resolved c. She should adminsiter the medicaiton on an empty stomach d. The medication should be refrigerated |
amoxicillin (amoxi-drop) was prescribed to Molly, a 4-year-old female Chihuahua who was being dischsrged after a hospitalization. Dr. segal asks you to give her owner discharge instructions. You advise the client of all of the following: she should call if she noticed any adverse side effects as a result of the medication; she should complete all the medication dispensed, even if Molly is feeling well and her symptoms have resolved; the medication should be refrigerated. You would not tell her (d) she should administer the medication on an empty stomach although the bioavailability of most penicillins is decreased in the presence of food, amoxicillin is an exception to this rule and need not be administered on an empty stomach |
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antimicrobial drugs like enrofloxacin (baytril), marbofloaxin (zeniquin), and orbifloxacin (orbax) all belong to which group of antibiotics? a. penicillins b. cephalosporins c. fluoroquinolones d. aminoglycosides |
enrofloxacin (baytril), marbofloxacin (zeniquin) and orbifloxacin (orbax) are (c) fluroquinolones example penicillins are amoxicillin, ampicillinm and pencillin. Example cephalosporins include cefadroxil, cephalexin, cefazolin. example amingolcyosides are gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin |
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Dr. Charles is performing a c-section on Sadie, a 3 year old dalmation. the smallest pup is not breathing spontaneoulsy, so the doctor asked you give the following respiratory stimulant a. theophylline (theo-dur) b. albuterol c. doxapram HCl (doxpram) d. terbutaline |
Dr. Charles is performing a c-section on Sadie, a 3 year old dalmation. the smallest pup is not breathing spontaneoulsy, so the doctor asked you give the following respiratory stimulant (c) doxapram HCl (doxpram acute respiratory failure is generally best managed by intubation and mechanical support of respiration. in certain instances, however, it may be desirable to stimulate respiration with drugs. one indication for use of a respiratory stimulant drug is when the respiratory efforts of neonates are adversely affected by general anesthesia of the bitch during cesarean section |
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which of the following drugs is least likely to kill the normal flora in the gut of a rabbit causing severe diarrhea?
a. sulfonamide (tribrissen) b. amoxicillin with clavulanic acid (clavamox) c. cephalothin (keflin) d. enrofloaxin |
(d) enrofloaxin is least likely the normal flora in the gut of a rabbit which would cause severe diarrhea
enrofloaxcin is commonly used in pocket pets because it is not active against the anearboic flora of the gut |
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Sox, a 10-year-old M/C siamese X was brought to the emergency hospital crying in pain and unable to walk. he was diagnosed with an arterial thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy. the treatment for this condition is a(n)
a. hematinic drug b. anticoagulant drug c. hemostatic drug d. fibrinolytic drug |
Sox, a 10-year-old M/C siamese X was brought to the emergency hospital crying in pain and unable to walk. he was diagnosed with an arterial thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy. the treatment for this condition is a(n) (d) fibrinolytic drug fibrinolysis is the dissolution of a fibrin clot or thromboembolus. the fibrinolytic drug is used most often in the treatment of thromboembolism in streptokinase |
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the diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is a. mannitol b. spironolactone c. chlorothiazide d. furosemide |
the diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is (d) furosemide by definition, congestive heart failure involves fluid congestion or accumulation in the body. this usually occurs in the abdominal cavity in the form of ascites or in the thoracic cavity or lungs in the form of pulmonary edema. diuretics are indicated to rid of the body of this excess fluid. furosemide (lasix) is the treatment of choice in both the acute and chronic forms of cardiac failure |
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two relatively new NSAIDs used frequently in dogs for the relief of pain and inflammation, especially those associated with osteoarthritis are a/ melclofenamic acid (arquel) and phenylbutazone b. orgotein (superoxide dismutase) and phenylbutazone c. carprofen (rimadyl) and etodolac (etogesic) d. dipryone and acetaminophen (tylenol) |
two relatively new NSAIDs used frequently in dogs for the relief of pain and inflammation, especially those associated with osteoarthritis are (c) carprofen (rimadyl) and etodolac (Etogesic) carprofen and etodolac selectively target inhibition of the enzyme cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) thereby reducing inflammation without blocking the prostaglandins associated with protection of the gastrointestinal tract and renal vascularity and blood flow |
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Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used a. in dogs for the treatment of chronic osteoarthritis b. in horses for the treatment of colic c. in horses for reducing fever d. in dogs for its anticoagulant activity |
Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used (b) in horses for treatment of colic Flunixin meglumine is primarily used in equine patients with colic for its antiinflammatory, analgesic and antiendotoxin effects |
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what NSAID is administered to cats with a dosing interval of 2 days or more?
a. aspirin b. ibuprofen (Advil) c. carprofen (Rimadyl) d. naproxen (naprosyn) |
(a) aspirin is an NSAID adminsitered to cats with a dosing interval of 2 days or more
cats are deficient in the liver enzyme glucuronyl transferase and thus metabolize aspirin very slowly |
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the most common side effect of NSAIDs is a. polyuria b. gastrointestinal ulceration c. diarrhea d. constipation |
the most common side effect of NSAIDs is (b) gastrointestinal ulceration most NSAIDs inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase which leads to a reduction in the syntehsis of both inflammatory prostaglandins and those prostaglandins that act to protect the mucosa of the GI tract |
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what precaution should you take when applying DMSO to an animal's skin? a. wear a facial mask to avoid inhaling the fumes b. apply a bandage to cover the area of applicaiton c. DMSO is irritating and should not be applied to the skin d. wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug |
you should (D) wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug when applying DMSO to an animal's skin DMSO has the ability to penetrate intact skin; this is prevented if the person applying it wears gloves |
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the surgeon has completed Buffy's surgical procedure and asks you to discontinue inhalant anesthesia. What is absolutely necessary to do when terminating anesthesia in a patient that has been receiving nitrous oxide? a. give an injection of the reversal agent b. observe carefully for signs of seizures c. allow the patient to recuperate in a dark, quiet area d. oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes |
the surgeon has completed Buffy's surgical procedure and asks you to discontinue inhalant anesthesia. it is absolutely necessary to (d) oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes when terminating anesthesia in a patient that has been receiving nitrous oxide this is necessary to minimize the effects of diffusion hypoxia which occurs when nitrous oxide diffuse from the bloodstream into the the lungs thus diluting the oxygen concentration within the alveoli |
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all of hte following drugs are controlled substances and their use must be logged except a. propofol (propoflo) b. diazepam (Valium) c. ketamine (ketaset) d. oxymorphone (numorphan) |
diazepam (Valium), ketamine (ketaset), and oxymorphone (numorphan are all controlled substances and their use must be logged but (A) propofol (propflo) is not |
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malignant hyperthermia is a phenomenon associated primarily with the use of what inhalant anesthetic? a. nitrous oxide b. sevoflurane (sevoflo) c. halothane (fluothane) d. isoflurane (AErrane) |
malignant hyperthermia is a phenomenon associated primarily with the use of (c) halothane (fluothane) malignant hyperthermia, a potential side effect of halothane anesthesia, is a greatly increased body temperature that can result in brain damage or death |
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a recent graduate veterinary technician is concerned that a sedated patient has a heart rate of 50 beats/min when the heart rate in a dog is normally 60 to 120 beats/min. You ask her which sedative the veterinarian used and were not at all surprised when she told you that the drug used was a. medetomidine (domitor) b. diazepam (Valium) c. ketamine (ketaset) d. acepromazine (promace) |
a recent graduate veterinary technician is concerned that a sedated patient has a heart rate of 50 beats/min when the heart rate in a dog is normally 60 to 120 beats/min. You ask her which sedative the veterinarian used and were not at all surprised when she told you that the drug used was (a) medetomidine (domitor) although most anesthetic agents cause cardiovascular depression, medetomidine characteristically produces a profound bradycardia |
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all of the following drugs are antagonists used to reverse the effects of another drug except a. yohimbine (yobine) b. detomidine (Dormosedan) c. atipamezole (antisedan) d. naloxone (narcan) |
(B) detomidine (Dormosedan) is not an antagonist Youhimbine (yobine) is an antagonist to xylazine, atipamezole (antisedan) antagonizes the action of medetomidine (domitor) and nalozne is a narcotic antagonist |
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you are asked to work in the surgical recovery area. Oreo a cat is recovering from an exploratory laparotmy. Oreo was given morphine, in addition to other drugs. You anticipate all of the following except that
a. Oreo will be hypersensitive to sounds b. Oreo may vomit and defecate from being given opioids c. Oreo most likely will have an elevated respiratory rate d. Oreo would be most comfortable recovering in a dark, quiet room |
you are asked to work in the surgical recovery area. Oreo a cat is recovering from an exploratory laparotmy. Oreo was given morphine, in addition to other drugs. You anticipate that OReo will be hypersensitive to sounds; oreo may vomit and defecate from being giving opioids; Oreo would be most comfortable recovering in a dark, quiet room. However you would not anticipate (c) oreo most likely will have an elevated respiratory rate side effects of narcotic drugs include hypersensitivity to noise, vomiting, and defecation. Morphine will likely depress Oreo's respiratory system thus producing a decreased rather than elevated respiratory rate |
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what gas anesthesia demands the greatest degree of patient monitoring because anesthetic depth changes occur most rapidly a. nitrous oxide b. sevoflurane (SevoFlo) c. halothan (fluothane) d. isoflurane (AErrane) |
(b) sevoflurane (sevoflo) demands the greatest degree of patient monitoring because anesthetic depth changes occur most rapidly |
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norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters for the a. parasympathetic nervous system b. sympathetic nervous system c. central nervous system d. peripheral nervous system |
norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters for the (b) sympathetic nervous system |
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beuthanasia solution is back order at the distributor so your employer asks you to order a different euthanasia solution. in researching the available drugs, you are reminded that the active ingredient in most euthanasia solutions is a. phenobarbital b. pentobarbital c. methohexital (brevane) d. thiopental (pentothal) |
beuthanasia solution is back order at the distributor so your employer asks you to order a different euthanasia solution. in researching the available drugs, you are reminded that the active ingredient in most euthanasia solutions is (b) pentobarbital |
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you are working with an equine veterinarian on a breeding farm. you will be sedating ayoung stallion for an oral examine. you are well aware that the veterinarian will probably not be using what tranquilizer for the procedure? a. xylazine (rompun) b. diazepam (valium) c. detomidine (dormosedan) d. acepromazine (promace) |
you are working with an equine veterinarian on a breeding farm. you will be sedating ayoung stallion for an oral examine. you are well aware that the veterinarian will probably not be using (d) acepromazine (promace) as a tranquilizer for the procedure a potential side effect of acepromazine and other phenothiazine tranquilizers is penile prolapse (paraphimosis). it is therefore contraindicated in breeding stallions |
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you are out on an ambulatory call with Dr. burrows to Milkman's Dairy. You are asked to bring the xylazine from the truck to sedate the patient. you are well aware that when using this drug in the bovine you must a. use adequate doses because cattle tend to be resistant to its effects b. always use it concurrently with a barbiturate to achieve adequate analgesia c. not use xylazine because it is contraindicated in this species d. use it at about 1/10 of the equine dose |
you are out on an ambulatory call with Dr. burrows to Milkman's Dairy. You are asked to bring the xylazine from the truck to sedate the patient. you are well aware that when using this drug in the bovine you must (D) use it at about 1/10 the equine dose ruminants are extremely sensitive to xylazine when compared with horses, dogs, or cats, generally requiring approximately one-tenth the equine dose to exhibit the same effect |
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you were assigned to work the fornt office at the hosptial today. wehn you walk back to the treatment area, you notice a cat under anesthesia. the cat has eyes wide open and unblinking and limbs stiffly distended and is salivating profusely. your highly educated guess is that the cat was anesthetized using which of the following drugs? a. xylazine (rompun) b. medetomidine (domitor) c. ketamine (ketaset) d. propofol (propoflo) |
you were assigned to work the fornt office at the hosptial today. wehn you walk back to the treatment area, you notice a cat under anesthesia. the cat has eyes wide open and unblinking and limbs stiffly distended and is salivating profusely. your highly educated guess is that the cat was anesthetized using (c) ketamine (ketaset) ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic. it does not induce the muscle relaxaiton found in other anesthetics. the eyes of feline patients remain open, necessitating the use of lubricating ophthalmic ointment to reduce the effects of hypersalivation, atropine is often used. |
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the behavioral drug group that may be used to stimulate appetite in cats is a. benzodiazepines b. tricyclic antidepressants c. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. progestins |
the behavioral drug group that may be used to stimulate appetite in cats is (a) benzodiazepnes |
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a progestin, often used in the past for treatment of inappropriate elimination in cats, taht has now fallen out of favor because of serious potential side effects, including mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma is a. megestrol acetate (ovaban) b. oxazepam (serax) c. amitriptyline (elavil) d. fluoxetine (prozac) |
a progestin, often used in the past for treatment of inappropriate elimination in cats, taht has now fallen out of favor because of serious potential side effects, including mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma is (A) megastrol acetate (ovaban) |
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which tricyclic antidepressant is now approved for use in dogs and cats to control separation anxiety a. buspirone (BuSpar) b. selegiline (Anipryl) c. paroxetine (paxil) d. clomipramin (Clomicalm) |
(D) clomipramine (clomicalm) is a tricyclic antidepressant now approved for use in dogs and cats to control separation anxiety clomicalm is a relatively new tricyclic antidepressant drug used in dogs and cats for obsessive compulsive disorders, including separation anxiety |
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a 12-year-old spayed female golden retriever is brought into your clinic with a history of waking up in her bed ina puddle of urine. a CBC, profile, and urinalysis reveal no sign of urinary tract disease. the doctor tells you to fill a prescription for phenylpropanolamine. the doctor is choosing this drug because a. it treats bladder atony by increasing bladder tone b. it treats urinary incontinence by decreasing urethral sphincter tone c. it treats urinary incontinence by increasing urethral spinchter tone d. it treats bladder atony by decreasing bladder tone |
a 12-year-old spayed female golden retriever is brought into your clinic with a history of waking up in her bed ina puddle of urine. a CBC, profile, and urinalysis reveal no sign of urinary tract disease. the doctor tells you to fill a prescription for phenylpropanolamine. the doctor is choosing this drug because (c) it treats urinary incontinence by increasing urethral spinchter tone Phenylpropanolamine is used chiefly for treatment of hypotonus of the urethral sphincter and resuluting incontinence in dogs and cats |
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which of the following drugs is used to decrease gastric acid production by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach? a. famotidine (pepcid) b. sucralfate (carafate) c. omeprazole (prilosec) d. erthryopoietin (epogen) |
(a) famotidine (pepcid) is used to decrease gastric acid production by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach famotidine is an H2 receptor blocker that deccrease gastric acid production |
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amphojel and basaljel are drugs in the genearl category of a. potassium supplements b. antihypertensives c. urinary acidifiers d. phosphate binders |
amphojel and basaljel are drugs in the genearl category of (d) phosphate binders patients with chronic renal failure often have hyperphosphatemia. amphojel and basaljel bind phosphates int he diet when given with food. this reduces the phosphours intake from the GI tract and helps normalize the blood phosphorus level |
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Mr. williams just adopted a mixed-breed puppy from the local animal shelter, and it was suggested that he bring it to a veterinarian to treat the worms noticed in its feces. Mr. Williams wanted to save some money and went to the lcoal pet shop to buy a deowormer. the product that he purchased was most likely a. Pyrantel pamoate (nemex b. piperzine (pipa-tabs) c. fenbendazole (panacur) d. ivermectin (ivomec) |
Mr. williams just adopted a mixed-breed puppy from the local animal shelter, and it was suggested that he bring it to a veterinarian to treat the worms noticed in its feces. Mr. Williams wanted to save some money and went to the lcoal pet shop to buy a deowormer. the product that he purchased was most likely (b) piperzine pipa-tabs piperazine is the vermifuge most commonly found in over-the-counter worming preparations. pyrantel pamoate (nemex), fenbendazole (panacur), and ivermectin (ivomec) would require a veterinarian's prescription |
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a heartworm preventative that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is a. diethylcarbamazine (filaribits) b. milbemycin (interceptor) c. ivermectin (heratgard) d. selamectin (revolution) |
a heartworm preventative that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is (d) selamectin (revolution) diethylcarbamazine (filarbitis), milbemycin (interceptor), and ivermectin (heartgard) are used for the prevention of heartworm but only selamectin (revolution) is approved for the prevention of heartworm as well as the treatment of sarcoptic mange and ear mites |
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which of the following drugs can cause severe tissue necrosis if given perivascularly?
a. phenybutazone (Butazolidin) b. oxymorphone (numorphan) c. propofol (propoflo) d. ketamine (ketaset) |
(a) phenybutazone ( butazolidin) can cause severe tissue necrosis if given perivacularly
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which statement about organophosphates is incorrect a. they are neurotoxic b. they are used for the control of endoparasites and ectoparasites c. they have a narrow margin of safety d. they have relatively few side effects |
regarding organophosphates they are neurotoxic; they are used for the control of endoparasites and ectoparasites; they have a narrow margin of safety but it is incorrect that (d) they have relatively few side effects organophosphate parasiticdes have a very narrow margin of safety. numerous side effects include vomiting, tremors, hyperexciteability, salivation, and diarrhea |
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oral hypoglycemic drugs, such as glipizide (glucotrol) are used to treat a. diabetic ketoacidosis b. non-insulin-dpendent diabets c. hypoglycemia d. pancreatitis |
oral hypoglycemic drugs, such as glipizide (glucotrol) are used to treat (b) non-nusulin dependent diabetes glipizide is a human oral antidiabetic agent that may be used in certain non-insulin dependent cats. more often, the use of insulin is necessary |
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altrenogest, which is used for estrus synchronization in female animals is a synthetic a. estrogen b. androgen c. progestin d. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) |
altrenogest, which is used for estrus synchronization in female animals is a synthetic (c) progestin progestins or progesterones usually have -gest in their drug name |
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serious potential side effects of estrogen administration include a. hemorrhage and thromboembolism b. bone marrow suppressoin and pyometra c. cardiac arrhythmias and pulmonary edema d. renal failure and gastric ulcers |
serious potential side effects of estrogen administration include(b) bone marrow suppresion and pyometra |
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when diethylstilbesterol (DES) a syntehtic estrogen, is used at higher doses, it can have the potentially dangerous side effect of a. gastric ulceration b. cardiac arrhythmias c. bone marrow suppresion d. hepatopathy |
when diethylstilbesterol (DES) a syntehtic estrogen, is used at higher doses, it can have the potentially dangerous side effect of (c) bone marrow suppression |
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psyllium and metamucil are examples of a. saline cathartics b. bulk laxatives c. lubricants d. irritant cathartics |
psyllium and metamucil are examples of (b) bulk laxatives
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what is not a potential side effect of the phenothiazine antiemtics? a. CNS depression b, diarrhea c. lowering of seizure threshold d. hypotension |
potential side effects of phenothiazine antiemetics include CNS depression, lowering of seizure threshold, and hypotension but not (b) diarrhea |
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a stool softener often helpful in patients recovering form anal surgery is a. docusate sodium sucinate (DSS, Colace) b. magnesium hydroxide c. mineral oil d. bran |
a stool softener often helpful in patients recovering form anal surgery is (a) docusate sodium succinate (DSS, colace) docusate is used in small animals when feces are hard or dry or in anorectal conditions when passing firm fecces would be painful or detrimental tothe animal's recovery |
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the most widely used type of antiemetic drugs used to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats are the a. phenothiazines b. antihistamines c. anticholinergics d. antispasmodics |
the most widely used type of antiemetic drugs used to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats are the (a) phenothiazines phenothiazine antiemeetics include acepromazine, chlorpromazine, and prochlorpermazine |
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the emetic of choice in cats is a. xylazine b. syrup of ipecac c. apomorphine d. hydrogen peroxide |
the emetic of choice in cats is (a) xylazine an adverse effect of xylazine when used as a a sedative in cats is emesis. it is safeer and more effective emetic in cats tahn the other three drugs/compounds listed |
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the emetic of choice in dogs is a. xylazine b. syrup of ipecac c. apomorphine d. hydrogen peroxide |
the emetic of choice in dogs is (c) apomorphine apomorphine is a rapidly acting, centrally mediated emetic used often in dogs that have ingested a potentially toxic substance |
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methylxanthines are often used to improve breathing in cardiac patients and patients with respiratory disease. what drugs are methylxanthines used for this purpose? a. theophylline and aminophylline b. codeine an dextromethorphan c. hydrocodone and butorphanol d. guaifenesin and propranolol |
methylxanthines are often used to improve breathing in cardiac patients and patients with respiratory disease. (a) theophylline and aminophylline are methylxanthines used for this purpose aminophylline is actually made of 80% theophylline and 20% salt to decreas ethe gastrointestinal irritation when given PO |
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most drugs that control arrhythimas of the heart are said to be "negative inotropes" this means a. they increase the heart rate b. they decrease the heart rate c. they increase the froce of contractions d. they decrease the force of contractions |
most drugs that control arrhythimas of the heart are said to be "negative inotropes" this means(d) they decrease the force of contractions many antiarrhythmic drugs may decrease heart rate |
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what drug reduces tachyarrhythmias by decreasing conductions of the impulse that causes cardiac contraction through the herat? a. propranolol b. lidocaine c. procainamide d. digoxin |
(B) lidocaine reduces tachyarrhythmias by decreasing conductions of the impulse that causes cardiac contraction through the herat lidocaine blocks nervous conduction; this is aslo the reason for its local anesthetic effects |
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hyperthyroid cats have heart rates of over 200 beats per minute because of large numbers of beta 1 sympathetic receptors in their heart that make the heart more sensitive to epinephrine and norepinephrine. what drug is used to slow the heart rate and decrease arrhythmias assocaited with beta 1 receptor stimulation |
hyperthyroid cats have heart rates of over 200 beats per minute because of large numbers of beta 1 sympathetic receptors in their heart that make the heart more sensitive to epinephrine and norepinephrine. (b) propranolol is used to slow heart rate and decrease arrhythmias associated wwith beta 1 receptor stimulation propranolol is a rather nonspecific beta blocekr (it blocks both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors). blocking the receptors prevents the sympathetic nervous system from stimulating the heart and allows the parasympathetic system to naturally slow heart rate |
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because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, veterinary technicans and owners of aniamls that receive digoxin must be able to detect early signs of digoxin toxicity such as a. icnreased urination and increased water consumption b. increased coughing and difficulty breathing c. decreased appetite, anorexia, diarrhea, and vomiting d. wobbly gait, fainting (syncope), and disorientation |
because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, veterinary technicans and owners of aniamls that receive digoxin must be able to detect early signs of digoxin toxicity such as (c) decreased appetite, anorexia, diarrhea, and vomiting the gastrointestinal tract usually shows the first signs of digoxin toxicity |
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some drugs commonly used to treat veterinary patients with cardiovascular disease alter the electrolyte levels (Na+, K+, Cl-) within the body. which electrolyte change greatly enhances the risk of digoxin toxicity? a. increased sodium (hypernaturemia) b. increased potassium (hyperkalemia) c. decreased chloride (hypochloremia) d. decreased potassium (hypokalemia) |
some drugs commonly used to treat veterinary patients with cardiovascular disease alter the electrolyte levels (Na+, K+, Cl-) within the body. (d) decreased potassium (hypokalemia) greatly enhances the risk of digoxin toxicity hypokalemia which may be caused by some diuretics used in patients with cardiovascular disease increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. low magnesium concentrations also do this. some patients that receive diuretics plus digoxin are given potassium supplementaiton to reduce the risk of digoxin toxicity |
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what drug would be most effective agaqinst dermatophytes? a. tylosin b. enrofloxacin c. sulfadimethoxine d. itraconazole |
(d) itraconazole would be the most effective against dermatophytes of the drugs listed itraconazole is an antifungal and dermatophytes are fungi. tylosin, enrofloxacin, and sulfadimethorxine are antibacterial drugs |
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drugs classified as ACE inhibitors have what effect of the body? a. increase the strength of heart contractions b. cause vasodilation c. cause bronchodilation d. increase the heart rate |
drugs classified as ACE inhibitors (b) causes vasodilation ACE inhibitors block the angiotensin converting enzyme, which is an enzyme that noramlly produces angiotensin II, a very potent vasoconstrictor, the ACE inhibitor allows vasodilation |
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captopril is an example of a(n) a. postive inotrope b. antiarrhythmic c. bronchodilator d. vasodilator |
captopril is an example of a(n) (B) antiarrhythmic captopril dilates arterioles and venules |
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a coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is a. kaopectate b. sucralfate c. cimetidine d. misoprostol |
a coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is (b) sucralfate after oral administration, sucralfate reacts with hydrochloric acid in the stomach to form a paste like complex that binds to ulcer sites forming a barrier that protects the ulcer form further damage |
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fleet (sodium phsophate) enemas are contraindicated in what species? a. horses b. ruminants c. cats d. pigs |
fleet (sodium phosphate) enemas are contraindicated in (c) cats cats may be particularly sensitive to electrolyte imbalance effects of sodium phosphate enema solutions and these products are not recommended for use in this species |
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what drug is most likely to be prescribed to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats? a. apomorphine b. syrup of ipecac c. atropine d. acepromazine |
(D) acepromazine is the drug most likely to be prescribed to prevent motion sickness in cats and dogs of those listed acepromazine is a sedative drug often used to help prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats |
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which of the following drugs is considered a biologic response modifier? a. interferon b. streptokinase c. cephalosporin d. EDTA |
(a) interferon is considered a biologic response modifier interferon is administered to animals in an effor to enhance the function of the immune system. they are believed to have antiviral and antitumor activity. interferon is derived from white blood cells and other cells of the body. it is recognized for its immunoregulatory effect |
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atropine is often given as a preanesthetic drug. it is classified as an anticholinergic drug. this means that it will likely have the following effects on an animal receiving the drug: a. decreased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility b. increased heart rate, increased salivation, and increased GI motility c. increased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility d. decreased heart rate, increase salivation, and increased GI motility |
atropine is often given as a preanesthetic drug. it is classified as an anticholinergic drug. this means that it will likely have the following effects on an animal receiving the drug: (c) increased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility atropine is given as a preanesthetic agent to maintain heart rate and decrease oral secretions. some less deserible effects include decreased GI motility and decreased lacrimal secretions |
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acetylcysteine (mucomyst) is an antidote for what type of drug toxicity? a. opioid b. acetaminophen c. lidocaine d. digoxin |
acetylcysteine (mucomyst) is an antidote for (b) acetaminophen |
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the therapeutic range of a drug refers to which of the following? a. the plasma concentration at which therapeutic benefits should be observed b. the relationship of a drug's ability to achieve a desired effect vs causing a toxic effect c. the range of curative properties that a drug may exhibit d. the frequency of idiosyncratic reactions |
the therapeutic range of a drug is (A) the plasma concentration at which therapeutic benefits should be observed drugs that achieve plasma, urine, and CSF concentrations in the therapeutic range are expected to have their desired therapeutic effect in an animal. the relationship of a drug's ability to achieve a desired effect vs causing a toxic effect is the definition of therapeutic index |
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the reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is a. naloxone (narcan) b. yohimbine c. acetylcysteine d. diazepam |
the reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is (a) naloxone (narcan) naloxone is a pure opioid antagonist and it can be used ot reverse the effects of opioids |
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one of the adverse side effects of opioid administration is a. increased seizure activity in epileptic animals b. induction of cardiac arrhythmias c. significant respiratory depression d. systemic hypertension |
one of the adverse side effects of opioid administration is (c) significant respiratory depression opioids often cause respiratory depression in animals, thus careful monitoring of respiratory parameters is required |
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in which of the following circumstances should a thiobarbiturate drug be avoided? a. in a patient with respiratory alkalosis b. in obese patients c. in sight hounds and very thin patients d. in hyperproteinemic animals |
thiobarbiturate should be avoided (c) in sight hounds and very thin patients thiobarbiturates redistribute to fat stores. in animals that are very thin (sight hounds, young animals, debilitated animals), this redistribution cannot occur; therefore blood levels remain high, increasing the likelihood of toxicity. acidotic and hypoproteinemic animals may also demonstrate increased sensitivity to thiobarbiturates |
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what is a potential electrolyte imbalance that can occur as a result of administering a loop diuretic to a small animal? a. hypokalemia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. hypocalcemia |
(A) hypokalemia is a potential electrolyte imbalance that can occur as a result of administering a loop diuretic to a small animal hypokalemia may result rom long-term us of loop diuretics such as salix because of increased excretion of potassium |
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which of the following drugs is used to treat feline hypertension? a. amlodipine (norvasc) b. erythromycin c. amitriptyline (elavil) d. atropine |
(a) amlodipine (norvasc) is used to treat feline hypertension norvasc is a calcium channel blocker that acts as an arteriolar vasodilator therby reducing cardiac afterload |
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a cat is given ketamine as an anesthetic induction agent. the veterinary technician monitoring this animal may observe which of the following side effects? a. bradycardia b. hypotension c. apneustic breathing d. flaccid muscle tone |
a cat is given ketamine as an anesthetic induction agent. the veterinary technician monitoring this animal may observe (C) apneustic breathing as a side effect cats taht receieve ketamine as part of an anesthetic protocol demonstrate apneustic breathing (breath holding). they may also experience tachycardia and rigid muscle tone |
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lidocaine is primarily used to control which of the following abnormalities? a. atrial bradyarrhythmias b. ventricular tachyarrhythmias c. hypertension d. excessive urine output |
lidiocaine is primarily used to control (b) ventricular tachyarrhythmias lidocaine is used to control premature ventricular contractions and ventricular tachycardia |
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the categorey of drugs classified as ACE inhibitors has which of the following effects on the body? a. increases preload and afterload on the heart b. decreases preload and afterload on the heart c. enhances fluid retention in the body d. enhances the produciton of angiotensin II |
the category of drugs classified as ACE inhibitors (b) decreases preload and afterload on the heart ACE inhibitors prevent angiotensin convernting enzyme (ACE) from converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II. this indirectly prevents sodium and water retention and also prevents vasocontstriction. this in turn, ,results in a decreased preload and afterload on the heart in congestive heart failure cases |
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nitroglycerin is gien primarily to achieve which of the following effects? a. vasodilation b. vasoconstriction c. antiarrhythmic d. ACE inhibitor |
nitroglycerin is given primarily to achieve (a) vasodilation nitroglycerin is a potent venodilator, it and at higher doses, it may also act as an arteriodilator. it is given to improve cardiac output by decreasing cardiac preload |
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for cats diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, a calcium channel blocker is often prescribed to relax the heart in an attempt to improve cardiac ouput. Which of the following drugs falls in this category? a. procainamide b. diltiazem c. lidocaine d. digoxin |
for cats diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, a calcium channel blocker is often prescribed to relax the heart in an attempt to improve cardiac ouput. (b) diltiazem falls in this category diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) cases ot relax a heart with thickened walls and poor contractility |
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in dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), a sudden discontinuation of the drug may result in which of the following medical problems? a. immunosuppression b. iatrogenic addisonian criss c. polyuria and polydipsia d. iatrogenic thyroid disease |
in dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), a sudden discontinuation of the drug may result in (b) iatrogenic addisonian crisis the sudden withdrawl of long-term glucocorticoids can precipitate an iatrogenic (Caused by the treatment) addisonian (hypoadrenocorticism) crisis, because the animal has receieved exogenous steroids for such a long time that the hypothalmic-pituitary-adrenal axis is suppressed and cannot resume endogenous steroid production immediately when exogenous steroids are suddenly withdrawn |
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in dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), which of the following endocrinopathies can occur? a. hypothyroidism b. hyperthyroidism c. iatrogenic cushings disease/hyperadrenocorticism d. estrogen-responsive incontinence |
in dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years) (c) iatrogenic cushings disease/hyperadrenocorticism can occur dogs that have receieved long-term exogenous steroids may develop the array of clinical signs associated with cushings disease/hyperadrenocorticism |
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in what species might glucocorticoid administration lead to abortion during the last few weeks of gestation? a. horses and cattle b. pigs and dogs c. dogs and cats d. horses and cats |
in (a) horses and cattle glucocorticoid administration lead to abortion during the last few weeks of gestation dexamethasone is used to induce parturition in late-term or overdue cows |
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which NSAID when given perivascularly in horses, can cause skin necrosis and sloughing? a. phenylbutazone b. etodolac c. ketoprofen d. meclofenamic acid |
(a) phenylbutazone when given perivascularly in horses can cause skin necrosis and sloughing |
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one of the following antiinflammatory drugs is sometimes applied topically. care must be taken to clean the area where it is applied because it readily penetrates the skin and can carry bacterial toxins or other chemicals with it into the body. what drug is this? a. dexamethoasone b. dimethyl sulfoxide c. flunixin meglumine d. hydrocortisone |
(b) dimethyl sulfoxide is an antiinflammatory drug sometimes applied topically. care must be taken to clean the area where it is applied because it readily penetrates the skin and can carry bacterial toxins or other chemicals with it into the body. dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is also known for its potent garlic or raw oyster odor |
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which of these opioid drugs is not a controlled substance? a. butorphanol b. loperamide c. buprenorphine d. fentanyl |
butorphanol, buprenorphine, and fentanyl are controlled substances but (b) loperamide is not loperamide is the active ingredient inthe over-the-counter antidiarrheal drug Imodium |
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a drug's package insert states that the drug is an anticestodal. against what type of parasite wil this drug be effective? a. ascarids (toxocara, toxascaris) b. tapeworms (taenia) c. protozoa (eimeria, giardia) d. flukes (liver fluke, lung fluke) |
a drug's package insert states that the drug is an anticestodal. this drug will be effective against (B) tapeworms (taenia) anticestodals are also sometimes referred to as cestocides |
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what breed of dog has a blood-brain barrier that allows invermectin to reach toxic concentrations within the brain more readily than in other breeds? a. german shepherd b. collie c. schnauzer d. cocker spaniel |
(b) collies (and collie-type dogs such as australian shepherds) have a blood-brain barrier that allows invermectin to reach toxic concentrations within the brain more readily than in other breeds |
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if an animal receives an overdose of organophosphate insecticide (from dips, powders, sprays), what is the treatment of choice? a. diphenhydramine (benadryl) b. corticosteroids (glucocorticoids) c. intravenous fluids to aid elmination of the compound through the urine d. atropine |
if an animal receives an overdose of organophosphate insecticide (from dips, powders, sprays), the treatment of choice is (D) atropine organophosphates stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system, producing astrointestinal hyperactivity (vomiting and diarrhea), bronchoconstriction, increased urination, and constricted pupils atropine blocks the parasympathetic nervous system receptor sites and therefore counteracts the parasympathetic effects |
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what insecticide is effective in treating demodectic mange? a. fenoxycarb b. amitraz c. pyrethrin d. allethrin |
(b) amitraz is effective in treating demodectic mange amitraz (mitaban) was developed to treat demodectic mange, a traditionally difficult condition to manage. fenoxycarb is an insect growth regulator. pyrethrin and allethrin are pyrethroid insecticides |
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methoprene and fenoxycarb are ingredients found increasingly in flea and other insect products. what are they? a. insecticides b. repellents c. insect growth regulators d. synergists |
methoprene and fenoxycarb are ingredients found increasingly in flea and other insect products. these are (c) insect growth regulators insect growht regulators rpevent growth of the insect which results in the death of the insect. synergists (piperonyl butoxide) are compounds added to insecticides (like pyrethrins) to improve their insecticidal activity. repellents used in veterinary products include butoxypolypropylene glycol (butox PGG) and diethyltoluamide (DEET) |
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the following information was provided for a prescription was written by a veterinarian: Dr. PEte Bill, Veterinary associates Inc. 325 sentry highway west lafayette, IN 47907. indiana license number #4xxx. (317)-555-8698. For: Mr R.K Jones, 111 melrose place, loomisville, IN 47905. canine patient, amoxicillin 100 mg tablets. sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. date 1/6/98. signature: pete bill. what vital piece of information is missing from this prescription? a. veterinarian's drug enforcement adminsitration (DEA) license number b. pet's name c.owner's telephone number d. number of tablets |
the following information was provided for a prescription was written by a veterinarian: Dr. PEte Bill, Veterinary associates Inc. 325 sentry highway west lafayette, IN 47907. indiana license number #4xxx. (317)-555-8698. For: Mr R.K Jones, 111 melrose place, loomisville, IN 47905. canine patient, amoxicillin 100 mg tablets. sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. date 1/6/98. signature: pete bill. the (d) number of tablets is missing fromt his prescription the pharmacist is not likely to know how many tablets must be dispensed. the DEA number is not requried except for prescriptions of controlled substances in which case some states require that a differnt prescription form be submitted |
