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237 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A prescriber has ordered pilocarpine (Pilocar). A nurse understands that the drug stimulates muscarinic receptors, and would expect the drug to have which action?
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Lower intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma.
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A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?
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Physistigmine(Antilirium)
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A prescriber has ordered bethanechol (Urecholine) for a postoperative patient who has urinary retention. The nurse reviews the patient's chart before giving the drug. Which part of the patient's history would be a contradindiction to using this drug?
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Intestinal obstruction
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Child in emergency department arriving by ambulance. Involved in a spill of organophosphate insecticides. Nurse's initial priority for treatment?
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Providing mechanical ventilation and oxygen
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Procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent such as tubocurarine will be used, the nurse reviews the patient's preprocedure laboratory values, Which abnormality would cause the most concern?
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Hypokalemia
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A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:
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prolong absorption of the anesthetic
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Second esophageal dilation procedure, nurse explains that succinylcholine (Anectin) will be used for muscle relaxation. The patient is anxious, and reports not being able to swallow for several hours after the previous procedure. What will the nurse do?
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Request an order for a pseudocholinesterase level
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A nursing student asks the nurse about receptor specificity of adrenergic agonist medications.
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Epinephrine is the least selective alpha-adrenergic agonist medication.
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Pheochromocytoma is an adrenal tumor that releases large quantities of catecholamines into circulation. The physician has ordered a blocking agent listed below. This one is used specifically to treat pheochromocytoma
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Phentolamine (Regitine)
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A nurse is caring for a patient who requires treatment with a beta- blocker for hypertension. The patient has a history of asthma. The nurse should anticipate that the prescriber will order which of the following antihypertensive medications, taking into consideration the patient’s health history?
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Metoprolol (Lopressor)
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A patient is being prescribed a drug for treatment for primary hypertension. While reading the medical history the prescriber notices that he had been treated before for depression and decides not to prescribe the drug primarily because of its effect on promoting suicidal thoughts. Which of the following drug is it?
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Reserpine (Serpasil)
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Sometimes asthma patients use two different types of asthma inhalers: a short-acting beta2 agonist and a corticosteroid. When a nurse is questioned by the patient as to why he is being prescribed steroids, the nurse’s best response would be that corticosteroids:
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reduce symptoms of asthma by suppressing inflammation
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Leukotriene modifiers are the newer set of drugs being prescribed in the treatment of asthma. The following is a leukotriene modifier that works as a leukotriene receptor blocker and is being used in the treatment of both asthma and allergies. It works both in adults and children as young as 12 months of age:
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Montelukast (Singulair)
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A student in the pharmacology class is questioned on the type of asthmatic drugs indicated for quick relief from an asthmatic attack. Which drug do you think the student would have chosen to get relief from the following list to abort an ongoing attack?
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Albuterol (Proventil)
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A parent asks a nurse about growth suppression resulting from the use of an inhaled glucocorticoid in children. What will the nurse tell the parent?
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-Growth may be slowed, but eventual adult height will not be reduced.
-The growth rate slows while the drug is used but resumes when the drug is stopped. |
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A prescriber has ordered methyldopa for a patient with hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about drug actions, adverse effects, and the ongoing blood tests necessary with this drug. The nurse is correct to tell the patient what?
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If you have a positive Coombs’ test result, you will need to discontinue the
medication, because this means you have hemolytic anemia.” |
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Which of the following antitussives acts on both the opiod mu receptor and the NMDA receptor in order to elevate the cough threshold in the CNS and reduce pain?
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Dextromethorphan
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A patient who takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritis asks a nurse what can be done to prevent ulcers. The nurse will recommend asking the provider about using which medication?
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Omeprazole (Prilosec)
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A 30-year-old male patient will begin a three-drug regimen to treat peptic ulcer disease. The regimen will consist of bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline, and cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse will include which information when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?
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Decreased libido, impotence, and gynecomastia are side effects that will happen during this drug
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A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
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Ranitidine (Zantac)
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Levadopa/ carbidopa combination is considered better than the Levadopa alone for treatment for Parkinson’s. It is available as a combination formulation under two trade names Sinamet and Paracopa. The reason the combination works better is because:
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carbidopa prevents levadopa degradation in the periphery
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A nurse is providing patient education on a dopaime agonist prescribed for his treatment with Parkinson’s disease. The nurse warns that the patient should not be driving while on this drug as it may produce sleepy attacks as a side effect. Which drug is this patient prescribed?
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Pramipexole (Mirapex)
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A nurse cares for four elderly patients, all are diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. The physician has prescribed one particular type of cholinesterase inhibitor for treatment but this particular one causes liver toxicity. Identify the drug :
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Tacrine (Cognex)
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The major difference between the two different types of interferons Avonex (interferon 1a) and betaseron (interferon 1b) used to treat multiple sclerosis.
a) Avonex is a natural peptide where as betasetron has a random peptide sequence b) Avonex has a random polypeptide sequence and betaseron has the interferon sequence |
Avonex and betasetron both are similar to the endogenous interferon but avonex has the additional glycoprotein sequence
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The only drug prescribed for treatment of all types of seizure disorder. The drug also causes pancreatitis and used prophylactic treatment of migraines and bipolar disorder. Which drug is it?
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Valproic acid (Depakote)
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A patient with multiple sclerosis began a treatment regimen with mitoxantrone (Novantrone) 2 weeks ago. Which nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority in the plan of care?
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Risk for infection related to impaired immune defenses
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A patient’s spouse is enquiring the nurse about the drug clozapine (Clozaril) and their effects on the body. Which statement made by the nurse best demonstrates an accurate understanding of the effects of atypical antipsychotic agents?
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“They pose a risk of weight gain, dyslipidemia and diabetes mellitus.”
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A nurse is reviewing a patient’s antidepressant medication. The nurse understands that the following drug is a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. The drug also causes side effects such as altered mental status (serotonin syndrome), bruxism etc: Which drug is it?
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Fluoxetine (Prozac)
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Environmental factors such as previous exposure to microbial or viral infections such as Chlamydia or Epstein barr virus (EBV) or Herpes simplex virus (HSV-6) may be the cause of the following CNS degenerative disorder:
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Multiple Schlerosis
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Rheumatoid arthritis treatments are now aggressive and recommend DMARD’s to be started early on in the treatment. Which biological DMARD is an exogenous receptor for TNF that is indicated for treatment for rheumatoid arthritis? This drug also causes heart failure & CNS demyelinating conditions:
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Etanercept (Enbrel)
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Which of the following drugs is considered the prototype of the first generation antihistamines (H-1 receptors)? This drug is not only used to treat allergies insomnia & the common cold but also motion sickness. The main adverse effect of this drug is sedation.
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-Diphenhydramine (Dramamine, Benadryl)
-Promethazine (Phenergan) |
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The vaccine that is a combination of purified capsular polysaccharide plus a toxoid either from the bacteria that causes tetanus, or diphtheria or outer membrane protein for N.menigitidis (Pedvax, comvax) is a
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Hemophilus influenza B vaccine
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Which statement is true about the difference between aspirin and acetoaminophen (Tylenol)?
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Tylenol acts specifically at the CNS where as aspirin acts at both CNS and periphery
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Which drug used for treating Gout that works by causing microtubule disruption
in leucocytes? This particular drug is reserved for only patients that are unresponsive to other drugs because of its adverse side effects: |
Colchicine
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Knock out mice developed for opioid receptors have shown that the two effects that are most common for activation of mu and kappa opioid receptors are:
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sedation and analgesia
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A 22-year old women is prescribed Sumatriptan for an intractable migraine headache. The women questions the nurse how the drug works for migraine. The nurse explains Sumtriptan works by
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suppressing inflammatory peptides and deceasing levels of CGRP
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Which of the following immunosuppressant produces suppression by inhibiting calcineurin by binding to FKB12 protein and ultimately blocking the synthesis of cytokines? This one is only approved for liver or kidney transplant
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Tacrolimus (prograf)
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This particluar volatile inhalation anesthetic is one of the oldest and has been the standard against which new volatile liquids are judged. Genetically predisposed patients may experience malignant hyperthermia and therefore the anesthetic should never be used with succinyl choline. Which of the following inhalation anesthetic is it?
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Halothane (Fluothane)
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A nurse is preparing a patient for suturing with the use of a local anesthetic. Which statement best demonstrates the nurse’s accurate understanding of the effects of local anesthesia?
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Local anesthetics block conduction in motor nerves as well as sensory nerves.
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The study of drugs and their interaction in general with living systems is known as:
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Pharmacology
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In teaching a continuing education class in pharmacology, the instructor tests the class regarding concepts learned about pharmacodynamics. Which statement made by a student best demonstrates the understanding regarding these concepts:
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“Receptor binding is the main component of pharmacodynamics.”
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Among the characteristics for an “ideal drug”, what are the three important characteristics that are considered to be the most important for a drug?
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Safety, effectiveness and selectivity
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A nurse is teaching a continuing education class on pharmacology. The nurse is evaluating the participants’ knowledge and poses the question, “When a disease process triggers increased metabolism of the drug, the disease has altered the drug’s ___________.”
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Pharmacokinetics
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A patient while being administered the drug questions the nurse, “What do you mean that most drug actions are reversible?” The nurse’s best response is that most drug effects _____________________________________.
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Diminish as it wears out from the system
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A patient with type I diabetes mellitus arrives at the clinic with complaints of low blood sugar. The nurse questions the patient regarding compliance with medications. The patient states that she gives herself more insulin per dose so she doesn’t have to take it as often. Which of the following area does the nurse need to educate the patient on?
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Administration
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Which aspect of the baseline assessment would be the most important before a drug that is known to cause hepatotoxicity is to be administered to a patient?
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The patient’s liver function tests
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The nurse is ready to administer an anti-hypertensive agent and on assessing finds out the blood pressure is 108/75 (normal 100/80). What action should the nurse take to determine if it is safe to administer the drug?
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Assess the patients baseline blood pressure levels before and after the last dose of the medication, to determine if the medication should be administered.
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A patient has been taking a brand-name drug and his insurance plan change requires the use of generic drugs since they are available and approved by the FDA. The patient asks if he should pay out of his pocket for the brand-name drug. The nurse’s response should be based on the fact that:
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Generic drugs have therapeutic equivalency to their brand-name counterparts and its ok to start with the generic drugs
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An adult patient is receiving antibiotics as drug therapy for an infection and has developed hearing loss. The nurse realizes that this is a side effect of the drug. This action has occurred during which step of the nursing process?
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Evaluation
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The nurse is caring for several patients and prepares to administer morning medications. Which among the following is the most high-risk patient that the nurse should monitor after administering the drugs?
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The young adult patient with a history of kidney disease
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When discussing the types of drug names such as Ibuprofen / 2,4,(isobutylphenyl) propionic acid / Advil, it is because we are discussing their ________________ name.
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Generic / Chemical / Trade
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All drugs have a chemical, a generic and a trade name. Learning the generic name for a drug is important for nurses/practitioners. Why?
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The generic name of the drug will be the same no matter what the trade name is
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Which legislation gives the power to the FDA, for the first time, to require drug companies to conduct pediatric clinical trials on new drugs that may be used in children?
a. Controlled Substance Act (1970) |
Pediatric Research Equity Act (PREA) of 2003
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The Harris-Kefauver amendment that was created after the thalidomide tragedy sought to strengthen all aspects of drug regulation. It required
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Proof of effectiveness before a new drug could be marketed
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The rationale for the 1992 changes in the Food and Drug Administration regulations to permit accelerated approval of drugs for the treatment of life-threatening or severely debilitating disease was to:
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Ensure that the unknown risks associated with early approval are balanced by the need for effective drugs
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A researcher working for a pharmaceutical company is providing orientation to a new nurse researcher. The researcher determines that further education is needed when the nurse states that
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The manufacturer applies for FDA approval after phase II
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When a new drug is subjected to clinical trial while there is an already existing drug in treatment for the condition, what would the control drug be in this clinical trial ?
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The already existing drug
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The terminology used to describe the clinical trial drug study where both health professional and the patient do not know what drug they are receiving in the trial is a(n)
_________________ study. |
Double blind
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The most common way through which drugs cross the membrane is via direct penetration. From the following list, identify the one that can cross the membrane more readily:
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Molecules that are hydrophobic/lipophilic
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Select the accurate statement with regard to drugs and pH dependent ionization (ion trapping). Aspirin when taken with antacid will be ____________________________.
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Trapped more in the stomach at that pH because they will ionize
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Under most circumstances, intramuscular (IM) injections are to be avoided; however, there are some advantages to this route. Identify the advantage in using IM from the following list:
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The IM route is superior when administering poorly soluble drugs
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Some drugs under go first- pass effect where as others undergo enterohepatic recirculation. The first-pass effect primarily alters a drug’s _____________, whereas enterohepatic circulation alters a drugs’s ________________.
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Metabolism, distribution
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The nurse is reading research about a drug. The literature states that the drug is potent. This means the drug
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Produces its maximal effects at low doses
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Grape fruit juice consumed along with certain drugs plays a major effect on the plasma levels of the drug. The “grape fruit juice effect” is most associated with
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Effects on drug metabolism
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A patient with a history of cardiac problems is admitted to a telemetry unit. The patient needs administration of digoxin (Lanoxin) immediately. The drug has a longer half- life. As a prescriber what would be your best action?
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Administer a high dose to reach plateau, followed by a lower dose for maintenance
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On Monday (Sep 1) a patient begins taking a daily dose of a drug with a half-life of 3 days. If the patient takes the same dose every day, on what day will the plasma drug levels reach a plateau?
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Sep 13, Saturday
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A patient has been taking medication for his asthma condition. His condition has improved and the doctor has ordered him to stop taking his medication. How much of the drug will still remain in the patient at the end of three half-lives?
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12.5%
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When comparing a drug that has a strong attraction to albumin with one that has a weaker attraction, the nurse would anticipate that the distribution of the free drug with the strong attraction would be:
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Lower than the distribution of the drug with the weaker attraction
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Select the accurate statement regarding competitive antagonists
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-They are stronger in the absence of an agonist compound
-They decrease the potency of an agonist response |
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Drug A has an ED50 of 10 mg & a LD50 of 20 mg. Drug B has an ED50 of 10 mg and a LD50 of 100 mg. Based on this information, which statement is TRUE about A & B?
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B is more safer than A
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A scientist tests a new drug for pain relief and finds that it provides pain relief at a range of dosages. The overall pain relief (magnitude of response) produced by this drug is almost double of that of available medications at the same tested dosage. What can be said about this new drug?
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The drug is more efficient (more efficacy) than the existing drugs
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Endogenous ligands such as acetylcholine and GABA act through receptors that are
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Ligand-gated ion channels
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Dose–response relationships can be explained by drug-receptor interaction theories. According to the modified occupancy theory differences in potency between two drugs can be explained by the
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Difference in affinities towards the receptor
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Education on pharmacology is taking place on the nursing unit. The discussion involves the receptor sensitivity of a medication. The presenter asks one nurse to provide an example situation for hyper-sensitization. The nurse’s response would be:
a. The degradation of more receptors |
Continuous exposure to an antagonistThe nurse is providing nursing education regarding receptor-less drugs to a group of college students. Which example of a receptor-less drug given by a student would indicate a need for further teaching? (Which is wrong?)
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The nurse is providing nursing education regarding receptor-less drugs to a group of college students. Which example of a receptor-less drug given by a student would indicate a need for further teaching? (Which is wrong?)
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Morphine
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The following combination of drugs when taken together is a good example for reduced therapeutic (or adverse) effect that is detrimental
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Propanalol and albuterol
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When one drug alters the absorption of a second drug taken at the same time for example: tetracyclines taken along with antacids or calcium tablets, the interaction would be classified as:
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Pharmacokinetic.
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When one drug works to decrease acidity in the stomach by directly neutralizing the acid (antacid) and another drug decreases stomach acidity by preventing the production of acid in the stomach (Prilosec), how would the interaction be classified?
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Pharmacodynamic
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When taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors for treating depression, consumption of food items such as fermented cheese, chianti wine etc., rich in the following compound should be avoided to prevent any potential hypertensive crisis:
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Tyramine
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A patient who has taken antipsychotics for treatment develops “tardive dyskinesia” that resembles parkinson’s disease. This adverse drug reaction would be classified as:
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An iatrogenic disease
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A nurse is providing patient education regarding the development of drug tolerance. Which statement made by the nurse is correct with regard to the development of drug tolerance?
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“The patient will require a greater dosage of drug for the same effect to be achieved if tolerance has developed.”
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Most people who receive succinylcholine as a muscle paralyzer have a brief response lasting only a few minutes. But a person who has a very prolonged effect from the drug at a standard dosage is experiencing:
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An idiosyncratic effect.
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A patient’s unique genetic makeup can lead to variability in drug response. Which of the following is a good example of varied response due to different genetic makeup?
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Breast cancer cells (HER 2) response to Trastuzumab (Herceptin)
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Repeated dosing within a short period of time with a drug may lead to a situation referred to as __________________, where the drug effect is lost. Nitroglycerin is a good example for this condition.
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Tachyphylaxis
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Neuropharmacologic agents can cause which of the following effects?
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-Decreased neurotransmitter synthesis
-Increased neurotransmitter degradation -Direct activation of receptor -Block axonal conduction |
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A nurse is discussing the functions of the parasympathetic and the sympathetic nervous system with a group of nursing students. Which statement made by one of the student indicates a need for further teaching? (Which is wrong?)
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“The parasympathetic nervous system regulates body temperature.”
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The receptor subtype and the neurotransmitter involved in sweat glands in the body:
a. Acetylcholine and nicotinic-m (Nm) receptors |
Acetylcholine and muscarinic receptors (M)
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the neurotransmitter lifecycle?
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Norepinephrine is mainly inactivated by reuptake and degradation by MAO
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The prescriber has ordered bethanechol (Urechol) for a postoperative patient. The nurse would anticipate the drug to have which action?
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relax trigone and spinchter muscles to promote voiding.
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Acetylcholine (Miochol-E) has limited therapeutic indication due to its selectivity at cholinergic receptors. Miochol is indicated primarily for:
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Producing rapid miosis in cataract surgery
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Antimuscaranic agents are sometimes used as a preanesthetic medication. The following antimuscaranic agent used as preanesthetic medication also produces side effects such as anhydrosis & xerostomia. Which one is it?
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Atropine (Sal-tropine, Atropen)
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A nurse plans to administer atropine (Sal-Tropine) to a patient on multiple concurrent medications. The nurse feels confident that which class of drugs would be safe to administer with atropine?
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-Narcotic analgesics
-Diabetic medications |
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Anticholinergic agents that are selective for M3 receptors are commonly used treat overactive bladders. Identify the anticholinergic agent below used for overactive bladder treatment:
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Solifenacin (VESIcare)
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A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of jimsonweed or stinkweed, The nurse should be prepared to administer what?
a) Atropine (Sal-Tropine) |
Physostigmine (Antilirium)
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8) A nurse has arrived at work late and missed report. While reviewing the patient’s medications, the nurse notes that the patient is on an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor. The nurse understands that the only indication for an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor would be:
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Glaucoma
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9) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are not only given for treatment of Mysthenia Gravis but four specific acetylcholinesterase inhibitors have been indicated for treatment for Alzheimer’s as well. Identify the one acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used for Alzheimer’s treatment from the list below:
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Donazepil (Aricept)
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10) A nurse is providing education to the other nurses on the unit on how to differentiate between a myasthenic crisis and a cholinergic crisis. To show that they understand the difference, the nurses could state that they should
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administer edrophonium (Tensilon/Reversol/enlon) and monitor the response
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If the nurse has given an overdose of the non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker Tubocurarine which one of the following drug can be the nurse give to reverse muscle paralysis?
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Physostigamine (Antilirium)
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A nurse is starting at a unit where short surgical procedures are done and muscle blockers are constantly being used. Which statement made by the nurse suggests more education regarding muscle blockers?
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Cholinesterase inhibitors potentiate the action of tubocurarine whereas they inhibit the action of succinyl choline
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A patient who is receiving the ganglionic-blocking agent, Mecaylamine, would be counseled for the side effects, which include:
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Tremor, convulsions
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A farmer presents at the ER in a state of confusion. An examination of the patient reveals a decreased heart rate , perfuse salivation, involuntary urination and muscle weakness. The farmer's spouse describes the patient as normally "healthy as a horse & never sick". These symptoms are most probably attributed to:
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Organophosphate poisoning
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During an anaphylactic shock the following drug is given as it acts on both alpha and beta -receptors and therefore provides relief from the symptoms that occur during an anaphylactic shock:
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Epinephrine (adrenalin, epipen)
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A patient receives succinylcholine for paralysis during endoscopy. During the procedure, the patient’s muscles become rigid and the skin feels hot to the touch. The major concern in this patient is the possibility of:
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malignant hyperthermia
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This adrenergic agent has no major therapeutic effects on other organs other than the kidney. Diuretics taken along with this adrenergic agonist compliments its effect:
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Dopamine (intropin)
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A nurse is providing education for a prescription drug for a patient with hypertension and explains: ”This drug is an alpha blocker and produces first dose effect where 1% of the patients are know to loose consciousness on taking their first dose. So take this drug before bedtime or while sitting on bed”. Which drug is the nurse referring to?
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Prazosin (Minipres)
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The following adrenergic agonist is also referred to as a mixed acting drug because it acts on both alpha and beta- receptors and also causes release of norepinephrine:
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Ephedrine
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A centrally acting alpha agonist, this drug can promote hemolytic anemia and therefore 10-20% of chronic users test positive for Coomb’s test. Blood counts (RBC) should therefore be monitored while these patient’s are on this drug. Which drug is it?
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Methyldopa (aldomet)
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During surgery to remove a pheochromocytoma, there is a danger of the release of large quantities of catecholamines from manipulation of the tumor. To prevent acute hypertension, the patient may receive which agent(s)?
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Alpha-adrenergic antagonists
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A nurse notes that a patient who has come to the clinic has type I diabetes and takes insulin and is also taking Propranolol (inderal) for his high blood pressure. What education should the nurse provide to the patient?
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“Propranolol may mask the signs of hypoglycemia, so you need to monitor your blood glucose closely”
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Recent FDA warnings indicate using the following drug, a long acting beta2 agonist is associated with asthma related death as they mask the symptoms of a future asthma attack and therefore should be used cautiously:
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Salmetrol (Serevent Diskus)
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Mediators such as leukotrienes and interleukins that are released by mast cells can
ultimately affect allergen-induced inflammation and bronchospasm in which of the following ways? |
directly cause inflammation that leads to airflow limitation
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Mast cells play a major role in asthma and allergies. Which description below best describes the immune-related actions of mast cells?
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release histamines when an allergen binds to the IgE molecule
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Sometimes asthma patients use two different types of asthma inhalers: a short-acting beta2 agonist and a corticosteroid. When a nurse is questioned by the patient as to why he is being prescribed beta 2 agonists, the nurse’s best response would be that beta2 agonists
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work rapidly in asthma attacks
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Cromlyn (Intal) is being prescribed for treatment for a child with asthma. The patient’s mother asks the nurse when and how this drug helps during an asthma attack? Select the nurse’s best response.
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Cromolyn is used for prophylaxis and it suppresses inflammation
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Leukotriene modifiers are the newer set of drugs being prescribed in the treatment of asthma. The following is a leukotriene modifier that was the first introduced leukotriene receptor blocker and is being used in the treatment of asthma. But this particular drug is restricted in use because of its high liver toxicity:
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Zafirlukast (Accolate)
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The following drug provides relief only to patients who suffer specifically from allergy related asthmas. The drug works by targeting the IgE antibodies that produce allergies. Which of the following drug is it?
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Omalizumab (Xolair)
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A patient has been put on inhaled glucocorticoid therapy for his asthma. When educating this patient what common side effects should the nurse include?
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oral candidiasis and dysphonia
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The following asthma drug is given as IV for emergencies and routinely used for maintenance therapy for chronic stable asthma. Even though the mechanism of action is not clear, it is said to act through adenosine receptors:
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Theophylline
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Allergy medications such as Claritin-D and Allegra-D are a new type of combination medications available for treating allergies and the symptoms such as congestion, associated with allergies. They contain the following drugs:
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a sympathomimetic and an antihistamine
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Which of the following antitussives, an opioid acts on the opioid mu receptor in order to elevate the cough threshold in the CNS? This drug is generally found in cough medications for that purpose:
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codeine
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Cold medications generally are combination medications that provide relief for the symptoms associated with cold. Which of the following combination could be found in a cold medication?
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an antihistamine plus a nasal decongestant
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|
|
The health care provider is treating a patient with complaints of severe abdominal pain and confirmed infection with H. pylori. Which of the following combination of medications based on the FDA regimen would the nurse expect the health care provider to order?
|
Clarithromycin (Biaxin), amoxicillin (Amoxil), tetracycline and esomeprazole
(Nexium) |
|
|
A patient is placed on a multidrug regimen including bismuth for peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should instruct the patient about the side effects of bismuth as follows:
|
“The tongue and stool may turn black on bismuth.”
|
|
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Which statement regarding omeprazole (Prilosec) & esomeprazole (Nexium) is correct?
|
Nexium is an s-isomer of Prilosec and thereby metabolized slowly and thus its effects lasts longer
|
|
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The following is an anti-ulcer drug that works by blocking histamine-2 reeeptors . This particular one is better than the other drug in the same therapeutic category as it is more potent and also does not does not bind the androgen receptor and therefore does not cause undesirable side effects which include reduced libido, impotence, gynecomastia etc. Which drug is it?
|
Ranitidine (Zantac)
|
|
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A 30-year-old female patient is to be started on misoprostol (Cytotec) for treatment of a gastric ulcer secondary to long-term ibuprofen (Motrin) use. Which of the following statements must the nurse include in the patient education?
|
“Use a reliable method of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on this drug.”
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The nurse is providing patient education to an elderly patient being treated for duodenal ulcers. The prescriber has ordered sucralfate (Carafate). The patient asks the nurse how sucralfate helps heal ulcers. Which answer by the nurse is correct?
|
“It creates a protective barrier against pepsin and acid.”
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The nurse is preparing to administer Docusate sodium (Colace) per the doctor’s request for a laxative. The patient asks the nurse how this medication works. Which of the following would be a correct statement by the nurse?
|
“It decreases surface tension so it draws more water into the colon.”
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|
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The nurse is prepping a patient for a surgical procedure that is scheduled within 4 hours and has to receive a bowel preparation for the procedure. The nurse would anticipate administration of which of the following laxative based on the classification of laxatives by therapeutic response?
|
-Castor oil
-Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) |
|
|
Laxatives such as magnesium hydroxide and sodium phosphate are classified as:
|
osmotic laxatives
|
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The nurse is administering cisplatin, a chemotherapeutic agent to a patient with lung cancer and anticipates nausea and vomiting as a side effect. She plans to administer antiemetics. What category of antiemetics is the most effective in this situation?
|
Ondansetron (Zofran)
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The recovery room nurse is caring for a patient post surgery and administers an antiemetic agent for postoperative nausea and vomiting. The patient is transferred to the unit and begins to display extrapyramidal effects. Which agent does the nurse think is most likely responsible?
|
Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
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The nurse is preparing to administer an antiemetic to a newly admitted patient. Prior to administration, the nurse reviews the patient’s health history and sees he has a history of drug abuse. The nurse is concerned and wants to let the prescriber know the drug he has prescribed has temporal dissociation, depersonalization and dysphoria all as side effects. Which drug is it?
|
Dranabinol (marinol)
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A patient comes to the clinic for a checkup and shares upcoming plans to go on a vacation cruise. The patient asks for a medication to prevent sea sickness. The nurse practitioner orders scopolamine. The nurse provides education and tells the patient to be aware of the potential side effects, which include
|
blurred vision and drowsiness
|
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A patient with irritable bowel syndrome has received a prescription for Diphenoxylate (Lomotil). When asked about the rationale for this drug, the nurse should explain that it:
|
decrease GI motility & slow intestinal transit
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Traveler’s diarrhea is common when you travel to foreign countries and consume water in unsanitary conditions where E,coli is most commonly the causative agent. What specific antibiotic would you expect to be prescribed in children and pregnant women with severe traveler’s diarrhea?
|
Azithromycin (Zithromax)
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Inflammatory bowel disease such as crohn’s disease is treated with drugs that target and inactivates TNF- alpha factor involved in inflammation. Identify the drug specifically used to treat IBD by the above mechanism.
|
Infliximab (Remicade)
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The instructor from a pharmacology class is reviewing material on CNS drugs.
Which statement is correct regarding the impact of drug exposure on the central nervous system? |
They may take some time to exert changes to produce the desired effects
|
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The pharmacology instructor is providing instructions to a group of students about the goal of pharmacologic therapy in treating Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following statement made by the instructor would be true?
|
Balance cholinergic and dopaminergic activity in the brain.
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The following drug is used to treat Parkinson’s by increasing release of DA and blocking uptake of DA. This drug is also known to cause liverdo reticularis as a side effect. Which drug is it?
|
Amantadine (Symmetrel)
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Selegiline (Eldepryl) is another drug used for Parkinson’s disease treatment. The mechanism of action of Selegiline is what? It inhibits
|
MAO –B enzymes
|
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There are many different ways of managing Parkinson’s Disease. Amantadine (Symmetrel) is a 2nd or 3rd line drug for PD with an unusual mechanism of action. It is believed this drug works mainly by:
|
Promoting DA release
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One wants to maximize the effects of Levodopa (Dopar) and avoid ‘off times’. Which of the following should be avoided while taking levodopa as it stimulates decarboxylase activity and can accelerate decarboxylation of Levodopa?
|
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
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A nurse cares for four elderly patients, all are diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease and all take a particular cholinesterase inhibitor. The physician has prescribed one particular type of cholinesterase inhibitor that is selective to the brain, well tolerated and taken only once a day. Identify the drug the nurse would choose from the following list of cholinesterase inhibitors:
|
Donepezil (Aricept)
|
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A patient with severe Alzheimer’s disease presents for a follow-up visit. She has been responding adversely to the cholinesterase inhibitor that she has been taking and her physician would like to switch her to the new drug Memantine (Namenda). The patient asks the prescriber how the drug works. The prescriber would be correct to say:
|
it block calcium ion entry via NMDA receptors when extracellular glutamate is low
|
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|
Which of the following drugs decreases neurologic disability and clinical relapses
associated with multiple sclerosis by binding to DNA and inhibiting topoisomeraseII? |
Mitoxantrone (Novantrone)
|
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A patient presents for a follow-up visit regarding his multiple sclerosis therapy. His liver enzymes & bone marrow function are checked. He has not experienced flu-like or injection-site reactions with this medication which is the normal side effect for the drug , but has been feeling depressed. His drug is considered an immuno-modulator. What is it?
|
Interferon beta (betaserone)
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|
The immunomodulator that promotes “T cell shift” and is a synthetic polypeptide that is used to treat multiple sclerosis is:
|
Glatimier acetate (Copaxone)
|
|
|
Natalizumab (Tysabri) is a drug for multiple sclerosis that is available only through the TOUCH Prescribing Program. In most patients this drug is well tolerated with a significant reduction of relapses and brain lesions. Natalizumab works by:
|
Binding to integrins and blocking leucocytes from exiting the vasculature
|
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The following is a neurodegenerative disease that causes the destruction of neurons and appears to be due toxic level accumulations of alpha-synuclein which in turn is a results of abnormal levels of parkin and ubiquitin proteins. Which one is it?
|
Parkinson’s disease
|
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Beta amyloid , neuritic plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, and reduced cholinergic transmission are all pathophysiological characteristics of which CNS disorder?
|
Alzheimer’s disease
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Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) suppress neuronal discharge at the seizure’s focus and
suppress propagation of seizure activity from the focus to other areas of the brain. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of AEDs? |
Suppression of potassium influx
|
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A nurse is providing patient education to patients and their families who experience seizures. To evaluate their understanding, the nurse asks the group several questions about medications. Which statement from the group best demonstrates an understanding of antiepileptic medication therapy?
|
Maintenance of a seizure frequency chart is essential.
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Which traditional anti-epileptic drug works by selectively inhibiting hyperactive neurons? This drug also causes side effects such as gingival hyperplasia, skin rashes & also fetal malformations such as cleft lip, heart defects etc. if taken during pregnancy
|
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
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Absence seizures are characterized by loss of consciousness for a brief time. Which prescription drug would the nurse expect for this type of seizure that is the only seizure drug that does not work through inhibition of sodium channels or GABA enhancement but works by inhibiting slow calcium channels instead?
|
Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
|
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The newer antiepileptic drugs are well tolerated than the older traditional antiepileptics but most are prescribed for adjuvant therapy along with traditional antiepileptics and therefore not indicated for monotherapy. However 3 of the drugs listed below are indicated for monotherapy except:
|
Levetiracetam (Keppra)
|
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A patient is diagnosed with epilepsy. Further review of their medical history reveals that this patient is on an ‘older’ AED that is also approved to treat BPD and trigeminal & glossopharyngeal neuralgias. Adverse effects include CNS disturbances, hematologic (bone marrow) effects, birth defects, water retention, and mild to severe dermatologic effects. Which is it?
|
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
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The following CNS agent is used to reduce muscle spasticity associated with MS and cerebral palsy. It resembles GABA structurally and known to work through activation of these receptors. Which of the following drug is it?
|
Baclofen (Lioresal)
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A nursing instructor asks a student about the difference between the 2 agents given for treatment for spasticity: Dantrolone and Diazepam (Valium). The student would be correct in saying
|
Dantrolene acts directly on the skeletal muscle while Diazepam at the GABA site.
|
|
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This drug is the only exception that is used for treating both muscle spasm and spasticity. Sedation is common when used to treat spasticity with this drug. Beneficial effects appear to derive from action through GABA receptors in the CNS. Which drug is it?
|
Diazepam (Valium)
|
|
|
The first approved antiseizure medication for bipolar disorder that works equivalent to lithium and used for prophylactic treatment as well as to treat acute manic episodes. This drug produces side effects such as thrombocytopenia and pancreatitis:
|
Valproic acid ( Depakane, Depakot)
|
|
|
Bipolar disorder is a cyclic disorder characterized by abnormal elevation or depression separated by periods in which mood is relatively normal. Which class of drug is given during a depressive episode?
|
- mood stabilizers
- antidepressants |
|
|
A patient’s lithium level is 0.6mEq/L. The nurse’s accurate understanding of lithium
therapeutics is best reflected by which statement? |
The patient’s plasma level is between 0.4- 1.0mEq/L, the maintenance level and is considered therapeutic.
|
|
|
When comparing the effects and efficacy of Valproic acid (Depakene) with those of
Lithium for treatment of bipolar disorders, the nurse should understand that Valproic acid __________________________ than Lithium |
has a greater therapeutic index.
|
|
|
Bipolar disorder treatment regimen involves combination of drugs such as mood stabilizers, anti-psychotics and anti-depressants. Which of the following should be never given alone?
|
antidepressants
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A nurse is caring for a patient who just started on an antipsychotic drug and who begins to complain of severe muscle spasms of the tongue, face, and back. The patient is confused, has fever, and develops “lead pipe” rigidity. Based on these manifestations, which antipsychotic drug should the nurse suspect that the prescriber may have ordered?
|
Haloperidol (Haldol)
|
|
|
The following drug (s) if taken together can counteract the antipsychotic action of conventional antipsychotic drugs:
|
Levadopa or direct acting dopamine agonists
|
|
|
The following is an atypical antipsychotic agent that is referred to as a dopamine system stabilizer because it blocks or activates the dopamine receptor based on the amount of neurotransmitter present and therefore has less EPS side effects. Which drug is it?
|
Aripiprazole (Abilify)
|
|
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Conventional antipsychotic agents are not only used to treat schizophrenia but also used to treat bipolar disorders, tourette’s syndrome etc. Identify the conventional antipsychotic agent that is also available as a depot preparation for long term treatment:
|
Haloperidol (Haldol)
|
|
|
Clozapine (clozaril)is prescribed for a patient with a schizophreniform disorder. Which information would be the most important to include in the teaching plan for this patient?
|
it can cause weight gain and diabetes and agranulocytosis
|
|
|
Neuroleptic antipsychotics can cause extrapyramidal side effects which can most likely be attributed to:
|
antagonism of dopamine2 receptors
|
|
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A patient is being prescribed an antidepressant drugs that works by blocking reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine neurotransmitters. It also produces side effects such as diaphoresis, hypomania and yawngasm etc. and the drug is:
|
Clomipramine (Anafranil)
|
|
|
Which agent is a tricyclic antidepressant that is used as a day- time antidepressant due to its less sedating property? However this particular drug is not indicated for the elderly due to its weak anticholinergic properties:
|
Desipramine (Norpramin)
|
|
|
Monoamine oxidase inhibitor antidepressants are:
|
reserved for patients who have not responded to SSRIs and TCAs.
|
|
|
A nurse is reviewing a patient’s antidepressant medication. The nurse understands that the following drug is a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. The drug also causes side effects such as altered mental status (serotonin syndrome), bruxism etc: Which drug is it?
|
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
|
|
|
The following is a tricyclic antidepressant that is prescribed specifically for patients that suffer from insomnia because this one specifically has sedating properties:
|
Amitriptaline
|
|
|
A patient is diagnosed with depression and started on an atypical antidepressant. While the exact MOA of this drug is unclear; it acts as stimulant, suppresses appetite & does not cause weight gain. This drug actually increases sexual desire and pleasure. Adverse effects usually are not serious but agitation and seizures have been reported. Which of the following is this drug?
|
Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
|
|
|
The newer drug available for treatment Duloxetine (Cymbalta) achieves its effects by:
|
selectively inhibiting both serotonin and NE reuptake
|
|
|
A nurse is acting as a preceptor to a graduate student. They are discussing the differences between various sedative medications. The nurse observes that the student has a clear understanding of the sedative drugs when she says in contrast to benzodiazepines, barbiturates:
|
mimic GABA action at high doses
|
|
|
The benodiazapene like drugs are not structurally similar to benzodiazepines but function similar to benzodiazapenes. These drugs are primarily indicated for insomnia. Identify the benzodiazapene like drug from the following list:
|
Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
|
|
|
A patient reports awakening at 1 AM after only 2 hours of sleep and is unable to return to sleep for several hours. The patient is becoming increasingly anxious and requests a sleeping medication that will not cause a “hangover.” The nurse would anticipate the prescriber to order which one of the following drugs?
|
Zaleplon (Sonata)
|
|
|
This newer drug prescribed for insomnia and does not cause rebound insomnia or physical dependence and is FDA approved for sleeping disorders. This drug does not cause tolerance or dependence, and is not regulated as a controlled substance. However the drug increases prolactin levels and thus has side effects such as galactorrhea, amenorrhea etc. Which drug is it?
|
Ramelteon (Rozerem)
|
|
|
You are doing a rotation in an ER where a patient is being treated for an overdose of benzodiazepines. The attending administers a specific drug and the patient recovers. What drug is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine overdose/toxicity?
|
Flumazenil (Romazicon)
|
|
|
ADHD treatment involves CNS stimulants. Identify the stimulant that also causes appetite suppression and thus indicated for treatment for obesity and further weight loss:
|
Amphetamine (Adderell)
|
|
|
n a review class on medications, nurses are discussing the actions of zolpidem (Ambien) and benzodiazepines. A nurse correctly states that the actions of zolpidem (Ambien) do not produce which of the following effects that benzodiazepines do?
|
Reduce anxiety
|
|
|
Most of the drugs given for ADHD treatment involve CNS stiumlants. The following is the first and only non-stimulant approved for ADHD treatment for both children and adults and is:
|
Atomoxetine (Strattera)
|
|
|
This particular drug works by blocking adenosine receptors in the CNS or by increasing levels of second messengers such as cAMP. It is given for treatment of ADHD and neonatal apnea but has side effects such as CNS stimulation and also sensory phenomena such as ringing in ears and flashing lights. What drug is it?
|
Methylxanthine
|
|
|
Molecular properties of local anesthetics are listed below. Which combination of characteristics in a local anesthetic would you predict to penetrate axon membranes the fastest?
|
smaller size, high lipid solubility and low ionization
|
|
|
The difference between lidocaine and procaine (novocain) is:
|
Lidocaine. is metabolized by liver enzymes whereas procaine by blood esterases
|
|
|
Most local anesthetics are used with epinephrine. However, one local anesthetic
Cocaine, most commonly used in ear and throat procedures should never be used with epinephrine because the combination causes: |
intense vasoconstriction
|
|
|
Nitrous oxide has an extremely high minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) and because of this nitrous oxide:
|
cannot be used alone to achieve surgical anesthesia
|
|
|
Which of the following IV anesthetics is a barbiturate that is used to produce unconsciousness in 10-20 seconds and thus used to induce anesthesia?
|
Thiopental (Pentothal)
|
|
|
Which sedative-hypnotic IV drug used for the induction and maintenance of anesthesia poses the highest risk for sepsis from bacterial contamination?
|
Propofol (Diprivan)
|
|
|
A nurse has received a patient back on the unit shortly after a minor surgery. The patient complains of disturbing dreams and displays evidence of delirium and hallucinations. After reviewing the operative record, the nurse confirms that the patient is experiencing an adverse effect of which anesthetic medication?
|
Ketamine (Ketalar)
|
|
|
A nurse is preparing a toddler for surgery. Based on the information she had learned about IV anesthetics in her pharmacology class which drug would she anticipate be administered to this child? In adults (15-75 years) this drug produces psychological effects:
|
Ketamine (Ketalar)
|
|
|
Partial agonist- antagonist opioids are partial agonists at mu-receptor and antagonists at kappa and vice versa. Identify the opioid that is a partial agonist at mu but an antagonist at kappa receptor from the following list of opioids:
|
buprenorphine
|
|
|
A student nurse is presenting a teaching section for the class on opiates. The student is comparing the potencies of morphine sulfate and fentanyl (Duragesic). Which of the following statement made by the student indicates she is correct?
|
“Fentanyl is 100X more potent than morphine sulfate”
|
|
|
A nurse is working on an intensive care unit and caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. The patient is to receive an opiate. The nurse questions the order, because
|
opiates suppress respirations and increase the CO2 content of the blood, which further increases intracranial pressure.
|
|
|
A postoperative patient has received an epidural infusion of morphine sulfate. The patient’s respiratory rate decreases to 8 breaths per minute, and he has a decreased level of consciousness and presents with a pinpoint pupil (miosis). Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?
|
Naloxone (Narcan)
|
|
|
Migraine attacks have been linked to
|
increased levels of CGRP and decreased levels of serotonin
|
|
|
Cluster headaches differ from tension headaches in that:
|
prednisone & lithium are given for prophylaxis to treat cluster
|
|
|
In an effort to abort a major migraine attack the patient requests another medication for use in addition to the aspirin she has taken when the headache began. Which agent in the list below is the most suitable?
|
Sumitriptan (Imitrex)
|
|
|
A women who has chronic migraine has been prescribed Topiramate (Topomax) by her prescriber. When the women questions her nurse why she has been prescribed this drug , the nurse would reply:
|
“ It is given for prophylactic treatment so take it to prevent any future attack”
|
|
|
Anakinara (Kineret) is a biological DMARD used for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. This drug like many other biological DMARDS is an antibody that is :
|
an interleukin-1 receptor antagonist
|
|
|
Abatacept (Orencia) approved in 2007 for treating rheumatoid arthritis is
|
a monoclonal antibody directed against a receptor on antigen presenting cell
|
|
|
The nurse is caring for a patient who is to be discharged from the hospital who is on Methotrexate (Rheumatrex). Which of the following should the nurse include in the patient education?
|
Your immune system is impaired, so watch out for infections
|
|
|
Which of the following medication treatment for Rheumatoid arthritis follows current (aggressive) guidelines?
|
Start with a DMARD within 3 months of diagnosis and take an NSAID until the DMARD’s work
|
|
|
The following two drugs used in treating gout inhibit hyperuricemia by inhibiting the enzyme Xanthine oxidase and reducing uric acid formation:
|
Allopurinol (zyloprim) & feboxustat (Uloric)
|
|
|
Most drugs used to treat gout targets hyperuricemia by inhibiting the enzyme uric acid oxidase or excreting the excess uric acid by kidneys except the following drug. This drug works in gout by causing microtubule disruption in leucocytes. This drug also has severe side effects and prescribed only when others don’t work. Identify the exception:
|
Colchicine
|
|
|
Cell-mediated immunity involves different immune cells in the body. Which of the below combination of cells are required when cells are infected with bacteria such as tuberculosis?
|
CD4+ cells, macrophages
|
|
|
The public health nurse is providing an educational activity to a group of nurses at the public health clinic. The nurse asks, “Which of the following patients should not receive the MMR vaccine?” Which response best demonstrates understanding of the administration of the MMR vaccination?
|
A child who is allergic to gelatin
|
|
|
The nurse is teaching an immunization class to a group of parents. To evaluate the group’s understanding, the nurse stimulates discussion and poses questions. Which statement by one of the parents demonstrates a need for further teaching?
|
“The IPV vaccine helps prevent polio and is a live vaccine.”
|
|
|
A nurse counsels a parent regarding antipyretic choices for an 8-year-old with influenza. When asked why aspirin should be avoided, the nurse’s best explanation is that aspirin:
|
increases the risk of Reye’s syndrome.
|
|
|
Gardasil and cervarix are vaccines approved for HPV infections. The difference is
|
Gardasil offers protection for all 4 serotypes of HPV while Cervarix protects only
2 (16 & 18) |
|
|
A group of retirees plan to go on a cruise and were instructed to get vaccinations against a particular type of virus to avoid diarrhea. When asked what the vaccine is made off the nurse replies it is a combination of 5 different strains (serotypes) of the virus that is the causative agent of diarrhea in cruises. Identify the vaccine from the following list:
|
Rotorix
|
|
|
Even though both tacrolimus (prograf) and cyclosporine (sandimmune) work through the same mechanism for immunosuppression, tacrolimus may be preferred to cyclosporine because patients on tacrolimus:
|
experience fewer episodes of acute transplant rejection.
|
|
|
Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody used as an immunosuppressant to block activation of T-cells by blocking IL-2 receptor? This drug is mostly used in the prophylaxis of acute organ rejection during renal transplant:
|
Basiliximab (Simulect)
|
|
|
The following is a mTOR inhibitor and is a new drug introduced for prophylactic treatment for organ transplants and treatment of renal and other cancers. It is similar to another mTOR inhibitor known to bind to FKB12 and also has hyperlipidemia as one of its side effects. Which drug is it?
|
Evorolimus (Zortress)
|
|
|
The monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to CD3 on both mature and immature T cells and thereby blocks all T cell function is __________________.
|
Muromonoab -CD3 (Orthoclone ,OKT3)
|
|
|
Mast cells play a major role in asthma and allergies. Which description below best describes the immune-related actions of mast cells?
|
release histamines when an allergen binds to the IgE molecule
|
|
|
Second generation antihistamines such as Fexofenadine (Allegra) has an advantage over traditional antihistamines in that it is associated with:
|
decreased sedative effects because they do not cross the blood brain barrier
|
|
|
A patient comes to you with rheumatoid arthritis and you plan to treat them with a second generation COX inhibitor. During the pre-assessment, you come to find out that the patient has a sulfonamide allergy. Which drug listed below would you advise them NOT to take?
|
Celecoxib (Celebrex)
|
|
|
The following drug a first generation cyclooxygenease inhibitor cannot be prescribed for treatment for inflammation because it inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandin in the CNS but not the periphery. Identify the drug:
|
Acetoaminophen (Tylenol)
|
|
|
Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is an antidote prescribed for acetaminophen overdose in chronic alcoholics. Why?
|
Mucomyst substitutes for glutathione
|
|
|
‘ACE Inhibitors’ such as captopril (capoten) can cause vasodilation, decrease blood volume, & decrease cardiac and vascular remodeling. However, they can also cause cough and angioedema because of which of the following mechanisms of action?
|
Increase in bradykinin
|
|
|
Angiotensin-receptor blockers such as Losartan (cozaar) and ACE inhibitors such as captopril (Capoten) both work to decrease blood pressure by:
|
blocking aldosterone secretion
|
|
|
The only renin-angiotensin system drug that works by inhibiting the formation of angiotensin -1 and is primarily approved for treatment of hyperstension is:
|
Aliskiren (tekturna).
|
|
|
The reason that drugs such as verapamil (Calan) do not cause all of the direct effects that would be expected is due to:
|
indirect, or baroreceptor reflex effects of the body.
|
|
|
Which of the following drug is used mainly for hypertension and heart failure? This drug works by blocking aldosterone receptors, but also interacts with other steroid hormone receptors and causes adverse effects such as gynecomastia, impotence, hirsutism, etc.
|
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
|
|
|
A patient is being evaluated for oral therapy for his primary hypertension. One drug is being considered because it causes minimal postural hypotension. This drug works through selective dilation of arterioles and adverse effects include a systemic lupus erythematosus-like syndrome. Which drug is it?
|
Hydralazine (Apresoline)
|
|
|
A patient presents at the ER with a hypertensive crisis. An IV vasodilator is administered that is a potent venous and arterial vasodilator & considered the fastest acting anti-hypertensive agent and can accumulate thiocynate as its metabolite. Which one of the following drug is it?
|
Sodium Nitroprusside (Nitropress)
|
|
|
Adverse effects of one of the vasodilators include hypertrichosis. This has lead to the topical formulation (Rogaine, others) of this drug for the treatment of baldness. Which drug is it?
|
Minoxidil (Loniten)
|
|
|
Many therapeutic targets can be manipulated with drugs to treat hypertension. Which of the following is NOT considered a site of drug action for anti-hypertensive drugs?
|
cholinergic agents
|
|
|
Of all the drugs available for treating hypertension, the following drug is considered to be very effective and the cheapest as well and considered to be the first line of drugs to treat high blood pressure. Potassium loss and hypokalemia is a major side effect for this drug
|
Hydrocholorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
|
|
|
Although widely used for heart failure (HF), this drug has multiple interactions with other drugs. It has ‘non-cardiac’ side effects that can affect the CNS & GI (fatigue & visual disturbances). Which of the following is it?
|
Digoxin (Lanoxin)
|
|
|
The diuretic spironolactone (Aldactone) used for treatment of heart failure has been demonstrated to be different from the other 2 diuretics because:
|
it spares potassium excretion
|
|
|
When administering digoxin for heart failure, potassium levels have to be monitored. Why?
|
Low potassium levels will increase digoxin effect
|
