Nbed6

Front 1

A patient complains of irritability, fatigue and
weakness. She is losing weight and has
diarrhea. The clinical examination shows
diffuse brown macular pigmentation of the
oral mucosa. The pigmentation appeared
recently. The most likely diagnosis is
A. iron deficiency anemia.
B. Addison’s disease.
C. acute myeloid leukemia.
D. Crohn’s disease

Back 1

B

Front 2

A 32 year old male complains of weight loss
and diarrhea. The clinical examination shows
lymphadenopathy, multiple flat erythematous
lesions on the palate and a linear gingival
erythema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Crohn’s disease.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. AIDS.
D. Leukemia.

Back 2

C

Front 3

A mandibular right second molar has tipped
mesially into the adjacent edentulous space.
Which of the following tooth movements will
most likely occur when uprighted by fixed
orthodontic therapy (fixed appliance on
teeth 4.7, 4.5, 4.4 and 4.3)?
1. Extrusion of the second molar.
2. Lingual tipping of the second molar.
3. Intrusion of the anchor unit.
4. Buccal tipping of the anchor unit.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 3

E

Front 4

The pain associated with pulpitis often
disappears when a patient visits a dental
office. This occurs due to which of the
following events?
A. Stress-induced sympathetic activity
inhibits pulpal sensory fibres that
cause pain.
B. Stress-induced sympathetic activity
causes vasodilatation of pulpal blood
vessels.
C. Local mediators of pulpal pain are
not released when a stress-induced
rise in blood pressure occurs.
D. Pulpal pain receptors undergo
fatigue.

Back 4

A

Front 5

The most appropriate treatment of chronic
sclerosing osteomyelitis of the mandible
includes
1. intravenous antibiotics followed by long term
oral antibiotics.
2. hyperbaric oxygen.
3. decortication.
4. radiotherapy.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 5

A

Front 6

Dental implants are CONTRAINDICATED in
patients who
1. are over age 80.
2. have unrepaired cleft palates.
3. are taking anticoagulants.
4. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 6

D

Front 7

A patient has a displaced right subcondylar
fracture of the mandible. On opening, the
mandible deflects to the right. Which muscle
is prevented from functioning appropriately?
A. Medial pterygoid.
B. Temporalis.
C. Masseter.
D. Lateral pterygoid

Back 7

D

Front 8

The most prevalent inflammatory cells found
in gingival tissue 24 hours following flap
surgery are
A. monocytes.
B. macrophages.
C. lymphocytes.
D. polymorphonuclear leukocytes

Back 8

D

Front 9

An 8 year old patient with all primary molars
still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship
of permanent maxillary and mandibular first
molars and good alignment of the lower
incisors. The management of this patient
should be to
A. refer for orthodontic consultation.
B. use a cervical headgear to reposition
maxillary molars.
C. disk the distal surfaces of primary
mandibular second molars.
D. place patient on appropriate recall
schedule.

Back 9

D

Front 10

A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid of
filiform papillae, located in the midline of the
dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to
the circumvallate papillae is indicative of
A. benign migratory glossitis.
B. median rhomboid glossitis.
C. a granular cell tumor.
D. iron deficiency anemia.
E. a fibroma

Back 10

B

Front 11

A 25 year old female in her first trimester
of pregnancy presents with an acute dental
infection. Which of the following is
CONTRAINDICATED for this patient?
A. Prescription of a radiograph.
B. Prescription of penicillin V.
C. Extraction using 2% xylocaine with
1:100,000 epinephrine.
D. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain
management.

Back 11

D

Front 12

The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B Virus
(HBV) is greater than that of Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) because HBV
is
1. more resistant than HIV.
2. transmissible through saliva.
3. in higher numbers in blood than HIV.
4. autoclave resistant.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 12

A

Front 13

With two rescuers performing
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an
adult patient, how many external chest
compressions are given per minute?
A. 40
B. 60
C. 80
D. 100

Back 13

D

Front 14

The most appropriate treatment for a permanent molar with occlusal caries confined to enamel is a/an

A. amalgam.
B. composite resin.
C. flouride varnish application.
D. preventive resin restoration.

Back 14

D

Front 15

The most appropriate time to remove a
supernumerary tooth that is disturbing the
eruption of a permanent tooth is
A. as soon as possible.
B. after two thirds of the permanent root
has formed.
C. after the apex of the permanent root
has closed.
D. after the crown appears calcified
radiographically.

Back 15

A

Front 16

Which of the following is a possible cause for
a low density radiograph (light film)?
A. Cold developer.
B. Over exposure.
C. Improper safety light.
D. Excessive developing time.

Back 16

A

Front 17

The risk of latex allergy increases with a/an
1. increased exposure to latex.
2. history of spina bifida.
3. history of allergy to bananas, chestnuts or
avocado.
4. history of eczema.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 17

E

Front 18

Appropriate management for the relief of
symptoms of primary herpetic
gingivostomatitis in an immunocompromised
patient may include
1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml.
2. Triamcinolone acetonide in Orabase.
3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg.
4. Dexamethasone elixir 0.5mg/ml.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 18

B

Front 19

Gingival enlargement may result from the
administration of
1. nifedipine.
2. cyclosporine.
3. phenytoin sodium.
4. prednisolone.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 19

A

Front 20

The survey of the diagnostic cast that is done
as part of a removable partial denture design
procedure is needed to
1. determine the path of insertion of the
removable partial denture.
2. evaluate the retention potential of the
abutment teeth.
3. evaluate the modifications needed to create
parallel guiding planes.
4. locate the height of contour abutment teeth.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 20

E

Front 21

The best way to protect the abutments of a
Class I removable partial denture from the
negative effects of the additional load applied
to them is by
A. splinting abutments with adjacent
teeth.
B. keeping a light occlusion on the
distal extensions.
C. placing distal rests on distal
abutments.
D. using cast clasps on distal abutments.
E. regular relining of the distal
extensions.

Back 21

E

Front 22

When designing a removable partial denture,
changing the tilt of the cast on the surveyor
alters the
1. path of insertion of the planned removable
partial denture.
2. the position of the survey line on the cast.
3. the undercut and non-undercut areas.
4. the direction of forces applied to the partial
denture.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 22

A

Front 23

Which of the following can increase the
chances of successful osseointegration of a
dental implant?
1. An atraumatic surgical approach.
2. The availability of dense cancellous bone.
3. A good initial stability of the implant.
4. Immediate loading of the implant.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 23

A

Front 24

Shortly after the administration of an inferior
alveolar nerve block, a healthy adult patient
rapidly develops a facial rash. Which of the
following signs and symptoms should be
watched for before initiating the planned
dental treatment?
1. Pallor and perspiration.
2. Shortness of breath.
3. Hyperventilation.
4. Edema of the lips.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 24

E

Front 25

The angle SNA can be used to evaluate the
A. maxillary protrusion.
B. overbite.
C. upper incisor inclination.
D. facial height.
E. mandibular angle. .

Back 25

A

Front 26

A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be
caused by
1. inadequate ceramic thickness.
2. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation.
3. excessive occlusal load.
4. use of an inappropriate luting material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 26

E

Front 27

A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5
and 3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture
have different paths of insertion with respect
to 3.7. A semi-precision attachment is chosen
rather than preparing the teeth again. Where
should the male part of the attachment ideally
be located?
A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer.
B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic.
C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer.
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.

Back 27

D

Front 28

A Bolton relationship has determined a
• maxillary “12” excess of 3.5mm
• maxillary “6” excess of 3.0mm
What effect(s) could this Bolton relationship have
on a Class I malocclusion?
1. Deeper overbite.
2. Maxillary crowding.
3. Reduced overjet.
4. Increased overjet.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 28

C

Front 29

The normal growing mandible exhibits which of the following characteristics?
A. Resorbs along the posterior rami.
B. Grows more vertically than horizontally.
C. Has completed 100% of its growth by
age 13 in females.
D. Has latent post pubertal growth potential.

Back 29

D

Front 30

Which patient would NOT be predisposed to liver toxicity following a dose of 1,000mg of acetaminophen?
A. An adult with liver cirrhosis. B. A chronic alcoholic.
C. A diabetic.
D. A 15kg, 4 year old child.

Back 30

D

Front 31

Which of the following can be considered to
compensate for the lack of parallelism
between abutments when a severely tilted
second molar is to be included in a fixed
bridge?
1. Orthodontic uprighting of the second molar.
2. Using a coping and telescopic crown as the
retainer on the second molar.
3. Including a non-ridge connector in the fixed
partial denture design.
4. Hemisecting the second molar.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 31

A

Front 32

which of the following diseases may cause an enlargement of the jaws, development of diastemas and poorly fitting denture??
A. Phantom bone disease
B. Rickets
C. paget's disease
D. Osteoporosis
E. Hypophosphatasia

Back 32

C

Front 33

Multiple osteomas and supernumerary teeth
may be associated with
A. Gorlin’s syndrome.
B. Rubenstein – Taybi syndrome.
C. Gardner’s syndrome.
D. Cleidocranial dysplasia.
E. Ectodermal dysplasia.

Back 33

C

Front 34

The direct immunoflourescence pattern seen
in pemphigus vulgaris has been described as
A. target-like.
B. chicken wire.
C. soap-bubble.
D. corrugated.
E. cotton wool. .

Back 34

B

Front 35

The preparation of an anterior tooth for a
porcelain fused to metal crown should provide
1. adequate length for retention-resistance.
2. space for a thickness of metal that will resist
deformation.
3. space for a thickness of porcelain that will be
esthetic.
4. a single path of insertion.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 35

E

Front 36

Which of the following may affect probing
depth measurements of a periodontal pocket?

1. Probing force.
2. Diameter of the probe tip.
3. Angulation of the probe.
4. Subgingival calculus.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 36

E

Front 37

A Class II dental malocclusion in the mixed
dentition will likely
A. develop into a Class I malocclusion
with normal exfoliation of the
primary molars.
B. worsen with forward growth of the
maxilla.
C. develop into a Class I malocclusion
with late mandibular growth.
D. develop into a skeletal malocclusion
with growth of the maxilla and
mandible.
E. not change as the maxilla and
mandible grow.

Back 37

A

Front 38

The primary purpose(s) of relining a distal
extension base of a removable cast framework
partial denture is/are to improve
1. fit of the framework.
2. occlusion.
3. function.
4. tissue adaptation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 38

D

Front 39

All of the following are well documented
initiating factors of hairy tongue EXCEPT
A. candidiasis.
B. mouth rinses.
C. antibiotics.
D. systemic corticosteroids
(Prednisone).
E. radiotherapy to the head and neck.

Back 39

A

Front 40

Alteration of the intestinal flora by some
chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with
reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus
preventing the recirculation of the drug
through the enterohepatic circulation. Which
of the following can interfere with this
mechanism?
1. Codeine.
2. Penicillin V.
3. Acetaminophen
4. Tetracycline.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 40

C

Front 41

In an insulin dependent diabetic,
hypoglycemia is characterized by
1. mental confusion.
2. tachycardia.
3. sweating.
4. nausea.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 41

E

Front 42

Which of the following clinical conditions is
the most serious?
A. Acute periapical abscess of a
mandibular central incisor.
B. Middle face cellulitis.
C. Chronic periapical abscess of a
mandibular third molar.
D. Infected dentigerous cyst.

Back 42

B

Front 43

Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. periapical granuloma.
3. traumatic injury.
4. cementoma.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 43

A

Front 44

Which of the following are characteristics of
restorative glass ionomer cements?
1. Release of fluoride.
2. Bonding to enamel.
3. Setting is affected by moisture.
4. Irritating to pulpal tissues.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 44

A

Front 45

The primary retention of a Class II gold inlay
is achieved by
1. adding an occlusal dovetail.
2. increasing the parallelism of walls.
3. lengthening the axial walls.
4. placing a gingival bevel.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 45

A

Front 46

A bitewing radiograph of tooth 1.4 reveals
caries penetrating one third into the mesial
enamel. The correct management of tooth 1.4
is to
A. place an amalgam restoration.
B. place a porcelain inlay.
C. place a direct composite restoration.
D. apply fluoride and improve oral
hygiene.

Back 46

D

Front 47

A patient with Alzheimer’s dementia presents
with his personal care worker. His daughter,
who is his legal guardian, is unavailable.
What is required to obtain informed consent
for an elective invasive procedure?
A. The patient’s presence implies
consent.
B. Obtain written consent from the
patient.
C. Obtain written consent from the
personal care worker.
D. Obtain consent from the patient’s
daughter

Back 47

D

Front 48

Enamel pearls form when
A. ameloblasts migrate apically down
the root.
B. cells of the epithelial root sheath do
not migrate away from the dentin.
C. cells of the dental follicle fail to
develop.
D. epithelial rests transform into
ameloblast vesicles.

Back 48

B

Front 49

Hydrocolloid impressions are removed from
the mouth with a snap because they exhibit
A. syneresis.
B. imbibition.
C. viscoelasticity.
D. low elastic recovery.
E. low tear strengt

Back 49

D

Front 50

Zinc oxide eugenol cement is a/an
A. phosphate cement.
B. phenolic cement.
C. resin modified glass ionomer cement.
D. polyalkenoic acid cement.
E. adhesive resin cement.

Back 50

B

Front 51

In alginate impression materials, sodium
phosphate (Na3PO4) is the
A. reactor.
B. catalyst.
C. retarder.
D. disinfectant.
E. cross linking agent.

Back 51

C

Front 52

A white, diffuse, wrinkled appearance of the
buccal mucosa which diminishes in prominence
or disappears upon stretching is indicative of
A. leukoedema.
B. lichen planus.
C. candidiasis.
D. linea alba.
E. white sponge nevus.

Back 52

A

Front 53

Which of the following principle fibre groups
of the periodontal ligament is the most
numerous and provides the main support for
the tooth?
A. Horizontal.
B. Transseptal.
C. Oblique.
D. Gingival.

Back 53

C

Front 54

In comparison to visible light, x-rays
A. have a longer wave length.
B. have higher energy.
C. travel faster.
D. can be focused.

Back 54

B

Front 55

An altered cast impression technique for freeend
extension mandibular partial denture
cases is done primarily to
1. capture soft tissue in a supporting form.
2. capture the retromylohyoid area.
3. prevent displacement of the retromolar pad.
4. allow jaw relation records to be made
simultaneously with impression making.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 55

B

Front 56

When compared to dental amalgams made from lathe cut particles, dental amalgams made from spherical particles(/2013/new question)
A. require more mercury.
B. set more quickly.
C. are more difficult to adapt to the cavity preparation.
D. require higher condensation forces

Back 56

B

Front 57

The most likely indication of a poor
periodontal prognosis for a furcation involved
tooth is the presence of
A. wide root separation.
B. narrow root separation.
C. a bifurcation ridge.
D. a cemento-enamel projection

Back 57

B

Front 58

Which of the following types of bone contain
the insertions of the periodontal ligament
fibres?
A. Woven.
B. Bundle.
C. Lamellar.
D. Cortical

Back 58

B

Front 59

The single most important measure to reduce
the risk of transmitting organisms to patients
is
A. use of personal protective barriers:
masks, eyewear, outerwear and
gloves.
B. sterilization of instruments and
disinfection of the operatory.
C. handwashing.
D. introduction of single use
instruments and disposables.

Back 59

C

Front 60

On a semi-adjustable articulator, the incisal
guide table represents
A. a reference point for the
establishment of occlusal vertical
dimension.
B. the anterior equivalent of condylar
guidance.
C. a mechanical equivalent of the
horizontal and vertical overlap of the
anterior teeth.
D. the mechanical equivalent of the
Curve of Wilson.

Back 60

C

Front 61

In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process
will likely
A. limit the distal extent of the mandibular
denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of
posterior teeth.
C. aid in determining the location of the
posterior palatal seal.
D. limit the thickness of the maxillary buccal
denture flange.

Back 61

D

Front 62

The characteristics of "group~function"
occlusion are:
A. The teeth on the non-working side
make contact in lateral excursion.
B. The teeth on the working side make
contact in lateral excursion.
C. Only the canine and lateral incisors
make contact in lateral mandibular
excursion.
D. The posterior teeth on both sides
make contact in lateral excursion

Back 62

B

Front 63

When a simple tipping force is applied to the
crown of a single-rooted tooth, the centre of
rotation is located
A. at the apex.
B. at the cervical line.
C. within the apical half of the root.
D. within the cervical one third of the
root.

Back 63

C

Front 64

When prescribing antibiotics for an orofacial
infection in a healthy elderly patient, the usual
adult dose and duration of the prescription
should be written using the following
guidelines. The dose is
A. decreased by one half, duration
unchanged.
B. decreased by one third, duration
unchanged.
C. unchanged, duration unchanged.
D. increased by one third, duration
unchanged.
E. unchanged, duration extended by one
half

Back 64

C

Front 65

A pontic should
A. exert no pressure on the ridge.
B. be contoured by scraping the master
cast.
C. have a large surface area in contact
with the ridge.
D. contact nonkeratinized tissue.

Back 65

A

Front 66

A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavity
preparation on tooth 1.6 is
A. mesiopulpal.
B. buccopulpal.
C. linguopulpal.
D. axiopulpal.
E. None of the above.
Major connectors of a cast maxillary partial
denture are beaded at the periphery in order to
A. improve tissue contact.
B. aid in retention of the denture.
C. produce a stronger framework.
D. form a finish line between metal and
acrylic.
E. retain the acrylic to the metal of the
framework.
Which one of the following oral conditions is
NOT caused by a virus?
A. Benign mucous membrane
pemphigoid.
B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis.
C. Leukoplakia.
D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
A patient has a history of shortness of breath
and ankle edema. You would suspect
A. asthma.
B. emphysema.
C. rhinophyma.
D. cardiac insufficiency.
A primary molar, in the absence of its
permanent successor,
A. should be treated endodontically to
prevent root resorption.
B. may remain for years with no
significant resorption.
C. will undergo normal root resorption.
D. should be extracted.
E. is more susceptible to dental caries.
190

Back 66

A

Front 67

Voids on a dental cast could be caused by the high
A. surface tension of a silicone impression material.
B. surface tension of an irreversible hydrocolloid.
C. wettability of the dental stone.
D. wettability of the impression material

Back 67

A

Front 68

Wettability is NOT a desirable property for
which of the following?
A. Dental impression materials.
B. Acrylic resin for denture bases.
C. Uncured composite resins.
D. Hand instruments for placing resins.
E. Trituration of amalgam.

Back 68

D

Front 69

Which pontic type is best for a knife edge
residual ridge where esthetics is not a major
concern?
A. Sanitary.
B. Conical.
C. Ridge lap.
D. Modified ridge lap.

Back 69

B

Front 70

A dental radiograph will accurately
indicate
A. periodontal pocket depth.
B. the height of the bone on the facial
surfaces of the teeth.
C. the extent of furcation involvements.
D. infrabony pocket topography.
E. None of the above.

Back 70

E

Front 71

In a xerostomic patient, which salivary gland(s)
is/are most likely responsible for the lack of
saliva production?
A. Accessory.
B. Labial.
C. Parotid.
D. Sublingual and submandibular.

Back 71

D

Front 72

Which of the following would you NOT
prescribe for a patient receiving Warfarin
(Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin.
4. Codeine.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 72

A

Front 73

Which of the following should NOT be
prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin
(Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Oxycodone.
3. Ketorolac.
4. Codeine.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 73

B

Front 74

Which medication is used to control pulpal
hemorrhage when performing an emergency
pulpotomy?
A. Iodoform.
B. Ferric sulfate (15%).
C. C.M.C.P.
D. Cresatin.
E. Epinephrine (1:1000).
F. Formocresol.

Back 74

B

Front 75

All afferent impulses from the pulp result in
the sensation of
A. heat.
B. pain.
C. proprioception.
D. cold.

Back 75

B

Front 76

Which of the following teeth is most likely to
have two roots and two canals?
A. Maxillary second premolar.
B. Mandibular second premolar.
C. Maxillary first premolar.
D. Mandibular first premolar

Back 76

C

Front 77

Which of the following statements is true regarding endodontically treated teeth?
A. These teeth are more brittle than teeth with vital pulps due to desiccation.
B. Fracture of these teeth are usually due to loss of coronal tooth structure.
C. These teeth require full coverage to prevent fracture.
D. A post provides strength for these teeth

Back 77

B

Front 78

Which permanent maxillary molar root has a
higher incidence of two canals?
A. Distobuccal root of the first molar.
B. Distobuccal root of the second molar.
C. Mesiobuccal root of the first molar.
D. Mesiobuccal root of the second molar

Back 78

C

Front 79

Which of the following agents is most effective
in cold testing?
A. Ice water.
B. Air jet.
C. CO2 (dry ice).
D. Ethyl chloride

Back 79

C

Front 80

The best way to disinfect gutta-percha
cones prior to obturation is to
A. immerse in a 5.25% sodium
hypochlorite solution.
B. immerse in ethyl alcohol.
C. autoclave for a full cycle.
D. wipe with an alcohol soaked gauze.

Back 80

A

Front 81

Which statement is FALSE regarding the use of
a barbed broach?
A. Removal of vital or non-vital pulp tissue.
B. Removal of food debris from the canal.
C. Removal of paper points and cotton
pellets.
D. Removal of gutta-percha during nonsurgical
retreatment.

Back 81

B

Front 82

The occlusal parameter that is most useful
to differentiate between an overbite of
dental or skeletal origin is the
A. mandibular curve of Spee.
B. mandibular curve of Wilson.
C. molar sagittal relationship.
D. mandibular anterior lack of space.
E. maxillary curve of Wilson.

Back 82

A

Front 83

Which of the following is NOT related to an
interincisal diastema?
A. The presence of a mesiodens.
B. A tongue thrust when swallowing.
C. A hypertrophic labial frenum.
D. A thumb sucking habit.
E. A Class II canine relationship.

Back 83

E

Front 84

A patient, when in full intercuspation, shows a
right side posterior crossbite and a lower
midline that is deviated to the right. At initial
contact there are bilateral posterior crossbites
and coincident midlines. The most likely
cause of this finding is
A. severe temporomandibular
dysfunction.
B. two ideal occlusions.
C. true unilateral crossbite.
D. occlusal interference and functional
shift.

Back 84

D

Front 85

Resective osseous surgery is best suited for
periodontal sites with
A. severe attachment loss.
B. severe intrabony defects.
C. teeth with short roots.
D. early to moderate bone loss.

Back 85

D

Front 86

Most bone loss associated with dental implants
occurs at
A. 0 – 1 year.
B. 2 – 4 years.
C. 5 – 7 years.
D. 10 – 12 years.

Back 86

A

Front 87

Spontaneous hemorrhage from the gingiva
may be indicative of
A. parotitis.
B. Hodgkin’s disease.
C. diabetes.
D. leukemia.

Back 87

D

Front 88

The most important factor in determining the
dosage of systemic fluoride supplementation
is
A. daily water consumption.
B. climate.
C. water fluoride concentration.
D. total daily fluoride intake.
E. patient age

Back 88

C

Front 89

Tooth 1.1 has a small fractured mesioincisal corner into dentin. Which of the following is true with respect to the preparation for the restoration?
A. Pins are usually necessary to achieve adequate retention.
B. A lingual dovetail is usually required for retention.
C. An enamel bevel of 1mm is placed where enamel thickness allows.
D. Dentin coves are the primary form of retention for the restoration

Back 89

C

Front 90

Pins for cusp replacement should ideally be
placed
A. within enamel.
B. at the dentino-enamel junction.
C. a minimum of 0.5-1.0mm from the
dentino-enamel junction.
D. a minimum of 1.5-2.0mm from the
dentino-enamel junction.

Back 90

C

Front 91

When light-cured composite resins are
placed
A. surface polymerization is inhibited
by carbon dioxide (CO2).
B. the degree of conversion is 85-95%.
C. increments of resin should not
exceed 2mm.
D. polymerization shrinkage increases
with filler content.

Back 91

C

Front 92

A small hinge articulator was used for the
fabrication of a cast gold onlay for tooth 4.6.
Which of the following movements will result
in the greatest discrepancy between the
articulator and the patient?
A. Laterotrusive.
B. Mediotrusive.
C. Protrusive.

Back 92

B

Front 93

Abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch could result in defects in the
A. zygomatic bones and external ears.
B. mandible and external nose.
C. maxilla and muscles of facial expression.
D. palate and hyoid bone.

Back 93

A

Front 94

The periodontal ligament is constantly remodeled due to the activity of
A. osteoclasts.
B. fibroblasts.
C. macrophages.
D. mesenchymal cells.

Back 94

B

Front 95

One of the mechanisms of bacterial adherence
to the dental pellicle is through
A. positively charged bacteria with the
pellicle.
B. interaction of cations such as calcium.
C. hydrophilic interactions.
D. interaction of salivary anions

Back 95

B

Front 96

Post-immunization serological test results
for a health care worker who has
completed the series of vaccinations
against hepatitis B is informed that their
anti-HBsAg is less than the value required
for immunity. The health care worker
should
A. receive one additional vaccination
followed by post-immunization
testing.
B. undergo the full series of hepatitis B
vaccinations followed by postimmunization
testing.
C. refrain from performing any
exposure-prone procedures for a
period of 3-6 months followed by a
full series of hepatitis B vaccinations.
D. have liver function tests performed to
assess liver damage from a previous
hepatitis B infection.

Back 96

B

Front 97

Oral foci of infection are of greatest
concern in patients with which of the
following conditions?
A. Type 2 diabetes.
B. Iron deficiency anemia.
C. Hypertension.
D. Rheumatic heart disease.

Back 97

D

Front 98

The full palatal major connector is indicated
where
A. there is a high, narrow palatal vault.
B. a well-defined, undercut palatal torus is
present.
C. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped
arch.
D. palatal tissue is soft and compressible.

Back 98

C

Front 99

A patient presents with 5mm of gingival
recession on the labial of tooth 1.3. The most
predictable surgical procedure to achieve root
coverage on this tooth is a
A. free gingival graft.
B. subepithelial connective tissue graft.
C. lateral sliding pedicle graft.
D. double papilla pedicle graft.

Back 99

B

Front 100

Which of the following is NOT a
component of a dental cartridge containing
2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine?
A. Methylparaben.
B. Water.
C. Sodium metabisulphite.
D. Sodium chloride.

Back 100

A

Front 101

warranted for a 10-year old child, the most
effective way to decrease radiation exposure
is to
A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron.
B. apply a radiation protection badge.
C. use high speed film.
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp.
E. take a panoramic film only.

Back 101

A (for the kid)