Nbde8

Front 1

In comparing polysulfide, polyether and
addition cured silicone impression materials,
which of the following statements is true?
A. All three of the materials contract
slightly during curing.
B. All the materials expand slightly
upon cooling from mouth
temperature (37 degrees C) to room
temperature (20 degrees C).
C. After one week, addition cured
silicones will undergo more
distortion than polysulfides.
D. Lead oxide is used as an activator in
silicones.

Back 1

A

Front 2

In minimizing the firing shrinkage of
porcelain, the principal factor is the
A. fusion temperature.
B. ratio of flux to feldspar.
C. uniformity of particle size.
D. thoroughness of condensation.

Back 2

D

Front 3

Which of the following physical properties
would be_least_important for an impression
material for partially edentulous patients?
A. Biocompatibility.
B. Dimensional stability.
C. Ease of manipulation.
D. Adhesion to calcium.
E. Elasticity.

Back 3

D

Front 4

A removable partial denture is preferable to a
fixed bridge when the
A. edentulous areas are large.
B. abutment teeth have large undercuts.
C. abutment teeth are rotated.
D. residual ridges are severely resorbed.
E. abutment teeth are tipped.

Back 4

A

Front 5

To ensure the greatest accuracy, rubber base
impressions should be poured
A. within 10 minutes.
B. within 1 hour.
C. within 8 hours.
D. after 24 hours.

Back 5

B

Front 6

Improper temporary coverage of bridge
abutments can cause
A. increased tooth sensitivity.
B. gingival recession.
C. tooth migration.
D. occlusal prematurities.
E. All of the above. .

Back 6

E

Front 7

During the fabrication of new complete
dentures, which of the following can be
modified to achieve the desired occlusion?
1. The compensating curve.
2. The orientation of the occlusal plane.
3. The cusp inclination.
4. The condylar inclination.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 7

A

Front 8

At his first post insertion appointment, a
patient with a new removable partial denture
complains of a tender abutment tooth. The
most likely cause is
A. overextended borders of the partial.
B. inadequate polishing of the
framework.
C. improper path of insertion.
D. the occlusion

Back 8

D

Front 9

The contour of an occlusal rest area should be
A. angular and box shaped with
precision type vertical walls.
B. rounded and spoon shaped in general
outline.
C. flat and forming an obtuse angle to
the proximal surface of the tooth.
D. None of the above.

Back 9

B

Front 10

The polymerization of methyl methacrylate is
A. endothermic.
B. hydrophilic.
C. hydrolytic.
D. exothermic.

Back 10

D

Front 11

Alginate hydrocolloids
A. shrink when stored in air.
B. show syneresis.
C. expand when stored in water.
D. All of the above.

Back 11

D

Front 12

Silicone impression materials that set by
condensation polymerization
A. liberate ethyl alcohol as a byproduct of
the polymerization reaction.
B. polymerize more slowly.
C. undergo high shrinkage during the first 24
hours.
D. contain an accelerator consisting of a
stannous sulfate.

Back 12

A

Front 13

Patients with new dentures should be
instructed to
1. clean dentures over a bowl of water.
2. hold dentures properly when cleaning.
3. correct minor soreness by filing dentures.
4. persist with soreness for one week, then return
for an appointment.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) (2) (4)
C. (1) and (2)
D. (2) and (4)
E. All of the above.

Back 13

C

Front 14

Which of the following problems of a permanent fixed bridge, detected at the delivery appointment, can be caused by an inadequate temporary restoration?

1. Hypersensitivity of the abutments that decreases after permanent luting.
2. Exposed gingival margins in an esthetic area.
3. Contacts with adjacent teeth that prevent complete seating of the bridge.
4. Need for significant occlusal adjustment.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 14

E

Front 15

Gold casting alloys are classified as Type I-IV according to which of the following physical properties?

A. Percentage of gold present in the alloy.
B. Surface hardness.
C. Melting point.
D. Elastic strength.
E. Ductility.

Back 15

B

Front 16

Prior to cementing an onlay in a vital tooth
using polycarboxylate cement, the tooth may
be coated with cavity varnish
A. to protect the pulp.
B. to improve seal.
C. to prevent post-operative sensitivity.
D. None of the above.

Back 16

D

Front 17

In cementing a full crown, it is desirable to
A. retard the set of the cement.
B. apply continuous occlusal loading.
C. have excess cement covering the
margins.
D. All of the abov

Back 17

D

Front 18

The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain is
A. better colour.
B. less shrinkage.
C. more translucency.
D. increased strength

Back 18

C!

Front 19

Heat treatment alters a gold alloy's
A. hardness.
B. proportional limit.
C. percentage elongation.
D. All of the above

Back 19

D

Front 20

Immediately prior to cementation of a fixed
bridge, it is important to check
A. occlusal relationships.
B. firmness and location of contact points.
C. pressure of pontics against soft tissues.
D. All of the above.

Back 20

D

Front 21

A circumferential clasp arm on a tooth is one
which
A. originates above the height of
contour.
B. approaches the undercut from an
occlusal direction.
C. traverses a portion of the suprabulge
of the tooth.
D. All of the above.

Back 21

D

Front 22

Impressions made with thiokol (polysulfide)
rubber may be
A. silver plated.
B. copper plated.
C. poured directly in die stone.
D. All of the above.

Back 22

D

Front 23

The microorganism most commonly associated
with root surface caries is
A. Actinomyces viscosus.
B. Streptococcus mutans.
C. Streptococcus salivarius.
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus.

Back 23

A

Front 24

Using pins to retain amalgam restorations
increases the risk of
1. cracks in the teeth.
2. pulp exposures.
3. thermal sensitivity.
4. periodontal ligament invasion.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 24

E

Front 25

The use of cavity varnish under an amalgam
restoration will
1. have a bactericidal effect.
2. decrease marginal leakage.
3. stimulate secondary dentine formation.
4. decrease tooth discolouration.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 25

C

Front 26

If an impression were taken with a mercaptan rubber base material of teeth exhibiting severe external undercuts a stone model should be poured
A. immediately.
B. after 30 minutes.
C. after 24 hours.
D. None of the above

Back 26

B

Front 27

Prevention of gingival irritation by a major
connector of a removable partial denture is
accomplished by
A. using split palatal bars.
B. reducing the size of the connector.
C. ensuring maximum distribution of
occlusal forces.
D. providing relief between the connector
and the gingiva.

Back 27

D

Front 28

Following orthodontic alignment , relapse of the mandibular incisors cannot
A. Be predicted from characteristics of the original malocclusion.
B. Occur if the second or third molars are removed.
C. Occur if retainers are worn until the mandibular growth is complete
D. Occur if a supracrestal fiberotomy is performed.

Back 28

A

Front 29

Propylthiouracil is a drug used in the
treatment of
A. leukemia.
B. hyperthyroidism.
C. sodium retention.
D. intestinal parasites.
E. allergic manifestations

Back 29

B

Front 30

Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum
products will increase the compressive strength
of the set material?

A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.

Back 30

B

Front 31

Indirect retention is NOT required for a
removable partial denture which has
A. a unilateral distal extension base.
B. bilateral distal extension bases.
C. complete tooth support.
D. an anterior extension base.

Back 31

C

Front 32

Reduction of free-way space in complete
denture construction will
1. impair aesthetics.
2. cause the dentures to click.
3. traumatize the underlying supporting tissues.
4. induce generalized soreness over the ridges.
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
E. All of the above. .

Back 32

E

Front 33

In complete denture construction, a custom
tray should be selected so that the impression
will ascertain that
A. the flanges are not overextended.
B. the distal extension is adequate.
C. there is relief for muscle attachments.
D. the tray has adequate space for the
impression material.
E. All of the above

Back 33

E

Front 34

Longer trituration of alloy and mercury will
result in an amalgam restoration which will
have
A. greater expansion during setting.
B. reduced strength.
C. increased flow.
D. None of the above. .

Back 34

D!

Front 35

Which permanent teeth will normally be
present in an 8-year old child?
A. Maxillary and mandibular central
and lateral incisors.
B. Mandibular central and lateral
incisors and first molars.
C. All central and lateral incisors and
first molars.
D. All central and lateral incisors, first
molars and first premolars.

Back 35

C

Front 36

A 9-year old boy sustains a fracture of the
crown of his central incisor with minimal
pulp exposure. He is brought to your
office within one hour of the injury. A
periapical radiograph reveals that the root
of the tooth is complete but the apex is
open. You would
A. pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and
restore.
B. perform a pulpotomy and seal
temporarily.
C. perform a pulpectomy and seal
temporarily.
D. perform a pulpectomy and fill
immediately with gutta-percha and
restore.

Back 36

A (because less then 2 h)

Front 37

In cephalometric analysis of children with
malocclusion, the angle ANB is frequently
used. In patients with severe Class~II
malocclusion, this angle is
A. greater than the normal.
B. less than the normal.
C. normal.
D. unrelated

Back 37

A ( maxilla protruded)

Front 38

A skeletal cross-bite, as contrasted with
functional cross-bite, usually demonstrates
A. marked wear facets.
B. interference free closure to centric
occlusion.
C. deviated closure to centric occlusion.
D. None of the above

Back 38

B

Front 39

Which of the following malocclusions is most
commonly associated with mouth breathing?
A. Class I.
B. Class II, Division 1.
C. Class II, Division 2.
D. Class III

Back 39

B

Front 40

Which of the following conditions should
NOT commonly be treated during the mixed
dentition stage?

A Anterior cross-bite.
B Posterior cross-bite.
C Maxillary incisor rotation.
D Class II molar relationship.

Back 40

C

Front 41

Angle used the term "subdivision" to refer to a
malocclusion in which the abnormal molar
relationship was
A. bilateral.
B. unilateral.
C. only mildly abnormal.
D. severely abnormal.
E. coupled with labioversion of the
maxillary incisors.

Back 41

B

Front 42

Serial extraction may result in
A. development of a closed bite.
B. mandibular incisors tipping lingually.
C. persistent spacing at extraction sites.
D. canines tipping distally and second
premolars tipping mesially.
E. All of the above

Back 42

E

Front 43

Following orthodontic rotation of teeth, which
of the periodontal ligament fibres are most
commonly associated with relapse?
A. Oblique.
B. Diagonal.
C. Horizontal.
D. Supracrestal

Back 43

D

Front 44

In acutely inflamed gingival tissue, there is an
increase in the
A. number of mast cells.
B. number of plasma cells.
C. level of histamine.
D. A. and B.
E. A. and C. .

Back 44

E

Front 45

In clinical dentistry, stiffness of wire is a
function of
A. length of the wire segment.
B. diameter of the wire segment.
C. alloy composition.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Back 45

D

Front 46

The accuracy of alginate impression materials
will be improved if
A. the space between the tray and the
teeth is 1-2mm.
B. the space between the tray and the
teeth allows 4-5mm of alginate.
C. the impression is removed slowly
from the undercuts around the teeth.
D. the impression is soaked in water for
1 hour

Back 46

B

Front 47

Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. better polishability.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 47

A

Front 48

Premature loss of a primary maxillary second
molar usually produces a malocclusion in the
permanent dentition that is characterized by
A. anterior crowding.
B. labially displaced maxillary canines.
C. delayed eruption of the permanent
first molar.
D. a Class II molar relationship on the
affected side.
E. a Class III molar relationship on the
affected side

Back 48

D

Front 49

An anterior cross-bite of a permanent
maxillary incisor in a mixed dentition is often
associated with
A. a functional shift.
B. unexplainable genetic factors.
C. lingually situated supernumerary
teeth.
D. prolonged retention of a primary
incisor.
E. premature eruption of a maxillary
incisor

Back 49

D

Front 50

Excessive orthodontic force used to move a
tooth may
1. cause hyalinization.
2. cause root resorption.
3. crush the periodontal ligament.
4. impair tooth movement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 50

E

Front 51

A unilateral cross-bite involving the permanent maxillary first molar may be

A. associated with a mandibular shift.
B. a bilateral constriction of the maxilla.
C. corrected with palatal expansion.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Back 51

D

Front 52

A 10 year old boy has an Angle Class III molar relationship and an incisor cross-bite when in centric occlusion. When his jaws are guided to a centric relation, the molar relationship is Class I and the incisors are edge-to-edge. You should advise the parent that
A. the child has a growth problem and occlusal correction will not be completed until growth is complete.
B. if the molar relationship is corrected now, future growth will likely undo the correction.
C. the incisor malrelationship should be corrected now.
D. future growth is likely to correct this problem.

Back 52

C (because of crossbite)

Front 53

Cultures made from a dental abscess indicate
the infection is caused by beta hemolytic
streptococcus. Which of the following is the
drug of choice?
A. Penicillin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Cloxacillin.

Back 53

A

Front 54

Acid etching of dentin with 10-15% phosphoric
acid for 15-20 seconds
1. removes the smear layer.
2. increases dentinal permeability.
3. opens the dentinal tubules.
4. decalcifies the intertubular and peritubular
dentin.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 54

E

Front 55

For which of the following teeth is the risk of
root fracture increased if a rotational force is
used during extraction?
A. Upper canine.
B. Lower canine.
C. Upper first bicuspid.
D. Lower first bicuspid.
E. Upper lateral incisor.

Back 55

C

Front 56

A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a
patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift
should be taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.
C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position. .

Back 56

B!

Front 57

A 12-year old male with a history of
thumbsucking has an Angle Class II molar
relationship with a SNA = 83° and a
SNB = 79°. The etiology of this patient's
malocclusion is
A. dental.
B. skeletal.
C. neuromuscular.
D. dental and neuromuscular.
E. skeletal and neuromuscular

Back 57

SNB 79 + - 3 normal
SNA 82 +- 3 normal

A?

Front 58

A patient complains of sensitivity the day
following placement of a conservative
posterior composite resin restoration. The
most probable cause is
A. acid etching.
B. microleakage.
C. unpolymerized resin.
D. prolonged application of the curing
light.
E. inadequate base thickness

Back 58

B

Front 59

Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated
with which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts

Back 59

C

Front 60

Which of the following structures may be
associated with the role of the central nervous
system in sleep (nocturnal) bruxism?
A. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal).
B. A delta and C nerves.
C. Sphenopalatine ganglion.
D. Petrous nerves. .

Back 60

A

Front 61

Which of the following would maximize
vitamin E intake following osseous surgery?
A. Lettuce.
B. Wheat germ.
C. Eggs.
D. Fish.

Back 61

B

Front 62

If a person falls from a bicycle, striking the
chin, the most likely region(s) of the mandible
to fracture is/are:
1. Symphysis.
2. Condylar necks.
3. Mid-body.
4. Angles of the mandible.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 62

С

Front 63

The antibiotic of choice for a periapical
dental abscess is
A. pen V.
B. cephalosporin.
C. erythromycin.
D. metronidazole.
E. ampicillin.

Back 63

A

Front 64

Which of the following impression materials
has the best dimensional stability?
A. Polysulfide rubber.
B. Condensation silicone.
C. Polyvinylsiloxane.
D. Irreversible hydrocolloid.

Back 64

C

Front 65

The incidence of tooth loss due to periodontal
disease is highest for
A. maxillary molars.
B. maxillary premolars.
C. mandibular incisors.
D. mandibular premolars.
E. mandibular molars

Back 65

A

Front 66

A patient presents with a 3 week history of prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. Three days ago the symptoms changed to moderate pain on biting combined with a dull, spontaneous ache relieved by cold. The most likely diagnosis is
A. chronic apical abscess. B. a cracked tooth.
C. pulpal necrosis.
D. reversible pulpitis.
E. a vertical root fracture.

Back 66

C

Front 67

For a 20 year old, 80kg, patient with a
confirmed allergy to codeine, which of the
following is/are appropriate for pain control
following the removal of an impacted third
molar?
1. Hydromorphone, 2mg every 4 - 6
hours p.r.n.
2. Ibuprofen, 800mg 1 hour preoperatively
followed by 400mg every 4 - 6
hours p.r.n.
3. Acetaminophen, 650mg with
oxycodone, 10mg every 4 - 6 hours p.r.n.
4. Ketorolac, 10mg every 4 - 6 hours
p.r.n.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 67

C

because codeine, hydromorphone and oxycodone resemble morphine

Front 68

Root caries risk in adults is
1. associated with previous enamel caries
experience.
2. reduced in communities with fluoridated
water.
3. greater in adults who have high streptococcus
mutans counts.
4. similar in institutionalized and noninstitutionalized
patients.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 68

A

non-institutionalized have more root caries

Front 69

Normal aging changes in the hard tooth
tissues include
1. continuous deposition of cementum.
2. continuous deposition of dentin.
3. decreased blood supply to the pulp.
4. increased porosity of enamel.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 69

A

Front 70

Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of
the following?
1. Shingles.
2. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
3. Chickenpox.
4. Infectious mononucleosis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 70

C

Front 71

A mandibular fracture during normal
mastication is most likely to occur in a
patient with
A. osteoporosis.
B. a large intraosseous lesion.
C. an impacted tooth at the inferior
border.
D. advanced alveolar atrophy.

Back 71

B

Front 72

Which of the following factors influence(s)
the development of root caries?
1. A diet high in refined carbohydrates.
2. Periodontal disease.
3. The anatomy of the cemento-enamel junction.
4. Xerostomia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 72

E

Front 73

The average annual dose of ionizing radiation
that a patient receives from dental radiographs
is
A. greater than the average amount
received from natural sources.
B. about the same as the average
amount received from medical
sources.
C. about the same as the average
amount received from cosmic
radiation.
D. low when compared to the average
total amount of radiation received..

Back 73

D

Front 74

Which procedure(s) require(s) antibiotic
prophylaxis in a patient susceptible to bacterial
endocarditis?
1. Impressions for partial dentures.
2. Suture removal.
3. Mandibular block anesthetic injection.
4. Periodontal surgery.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 74

C!
new guidelines 2007

Front 75

A large, deeply furrowed tongue is commonly
found in patients with
A. Pierre Robin Syndrome.
B. geographic tongue.
C. ectodermal dysplasia.
D. Down’s Syndrome.

Back 75

D

Front 76

A recommended method for disinfecting
alginate impressions is to immerse the
impression for 10 minutes in
A. a complex phenolic.
B. 2% glutaraldehyde.
C. 10% ethyl alcohol.
D. a 1:10 dilution of sodium
hypochlorite

Back 76

B

Front 77

Cephalosporin antibiotics
1. may be cross-allergenic with penicillin.
2. have a narrower spectrum than penicillin.
3. have a mechanism of action similar to that of
penicillin.
4. may cause cholestatic hepatitis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 77

B

Front 78

In an infrabony periodontal pocket, the tip
of the periodontal probe is located
A. at the cemento-enamel junction.
B. at the level of the alveolar crest.
C. between the gingival margin and the
functional epithelium.
D. apical to the level of the alveolar
crest.

Back 78

D

Front 79

Crusted hemorrhagic and ulcerative lesions of the lips in a patient with target-like skin lesions are typical of
A. lupus erythematosus.
B. Reiter’s syndrome.
C. Behçet’s syndrome.
D. erythema multiforme. 

E. pemphigus vulgaris.

Back 79

D

Front 80

After setting, alginate impressions
A. absorb water.
B. remain dimensionally stable for 12
hours.
C. have higher tear strength than
polyvinylsiloxane impressions.
D. can be poured twice with little effect
on accuracy of the resulting cast.

Back 80

A

Front 81

Root planing is used in the treatment of
pockets which are
1. edematous.
2. fibrotic.
3. below the mucogingival junction.
4. infrabony.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) (2) (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. All of the above

Back 81

D

Front 82

A 9 year old boy sustains a fracture of the
crown of his central incisor with minimal pulp
exposure. The accident occurred one hour
prior. A periapical radiograph reveals that the
root of the tooth is intact but the apex is open.
The most appropriate treatment is to
A. pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and
restore.
B. perform a pulpotomy and seal
temporarily.
C. perform a pulpectomy and seal
temporarily.
D. perform a pulpectomy and fill
immediately with gutta-percha and
restore.

Back 82

A

Front 83

Which of the following cells are characteristic
of chronic inflammation of the dental pulp?
1. Plasma cells.
2. Macrophages.
3. Lymphocytes.
4. Neutrophils.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .

Back 83

A

Front 84

The extraction of a maxillary deciduous
central incisor at the age of 6 years will cause
A. loss of intercanine space.
B. increased intercanine space.
C. no change in intercanine space.
D. decreased overjet. .

Back 84

C

Front 85

Cleft lip and palate usually result from
A. failure of proper union of the median
and lateral nasal processes.
B. failure of the union of the median
nasal process with the lateral nasal
and maxillary processes.
C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia.
D. failure of development of both the
lateral nasal and maxillary processes.

Back 85

B

Front 86

Which of the following will result in splitting of developing roots?
A. Epithelial diaphragm forms too many lateromedial extensions.
B. Dental follicle cells migrate into the epithelial diaphragm.
C. Cementoblasts fail to develop on and stabilize the root’s surface.
D. Periodontal ligament forms too soon

Back 86

A

Front 87

Polymerization shrinkage associated with the
setting of composite resins is a result of
A. primary bonds replacing secondary
bonds.
B. reaction by-products evaporating
from the set material.
C. unreacted monomer evaporating
from the set material.
D. temperature changes occurring
during the polymerization reaction

Back 87

A. Cure shrinkage is an inherent property of polymerizing
systems due to the conversion of secondary bonds between
monomer (or prepolymer) molecules to primary bonds, which
have smaller interatomic distances. Cure shrinkage is highly
undesirable: it impairs dimensional control and causes poor
surface finish
in molded polymers; it also generates setting
stresses
in highly filled systems.

Front 88

In polyalkenoic cements Tartaric acid role is of:
A. Initiator
B. Retarder
C. Activator
D. Accelerator
E. Catalyst

Back 88

D

Front 89

To ensure a clinically acceptable setting time, polyalkenoic cements contain
A. salicylic acid.
B. phosphoric acid.
C. maleic acid.

D. tartaric acid.

E. itaconic acid.

Back 89

D

Front 90

A 75 year old male patient whose wife died
10 months ago presents for his recall
appointment. Looking wasted and fatigued,
he confirms he has lost about 6kg in the last 8
months but is otherwise in good health. The
most appropriate management for this patient
is to
A. recommend that he drink 3 cans of a
nutritional supplement each day.
B. refer him to a qualified
dietician/nutritionist and follow up
after his appointment.
C. refer him back to his physician
requesting a more thorough
assessment.
D. provide him with a copy of Canada’s
Food Guide to Healthy Eating

Back 90

C

Front 91

Increasing the kVp results in
A. increased long scale image contrast.
B. increased short scale image contrast.
C. decreased long scale image contrast.
D. decreased short scale image contrast.

Back 91

A

Front 92

Which anatomical structures form the
inverted Y (Y line) in maxillary periapical
radiographs?
A. Nasopalatine/incisive canal and floor
of the nasal fossa.
B. Anterior nasal spine and
nasopalatine/incisive canal.
C. Floor of the nasal fossa and
maxillary sinus border.
D. Zygomatic process of the maxilla and
maxillary sinus border.

Back 92

C

Front 93

Which of the following has the greatest effect
on the mechanical properties of composite
resin?

A. Modulus of elasticity of the filler
particles.
B. Weight fraction of the filler particles.
C. Volume fraction of filler particles.
D. Hardness of filler particles.
E. Size of the filler particles.

Back 93

C

Front 94

Which of the following maxillary incisor angulations complicates a functional appliance construction bite?

A. Retroclined central incisors.
B. Proclined lateral incisors.
C. Retroclined lateral incisors.
D. Proclined central incisors.

Back 94

A

Front 95

The most practical method to significantly
reduce the setting time of stone and plaster
is to use
A. warm mixing water.
B. a calcium sulfate dihydrate
nucleating agent.
C. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent.
D. a longer mixing time.

Back 95

B

Front 96

A patient with a pre-existing MOD amalgam
restoration has just had endodontic therapy
completed on tooth 4.6 but cannot afford a
laboratory fabricated final restoration. Interim
restorative management of 4.6 with the best
prognosis is to
A. restore with a MOD amalgam.
B. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion
and restore with a MOD amalgam.
C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps
and restore with a MOD amalgam.
D. restore with a bonded MOD
composite resin.

Back 96

C

Front 97

The goal of a diagnostic wax-up is to
A. guide tooth preparation.
B. fabricate the provisional restoration.
C. communicate with the technician.
D. All of the above

Back 97

D

Front 98

Which of the following is NOT a sign of
occlusal trauma?
A. Fremitus.
B. Gingival recession.
C. Widened periodontal ligament.
D. Tooth migration.

Back 98

B

Front 99

What is the essential etiologic factor for
generalized aggressive periodontitis?

A. Altered lymphocyte activity.
B. Generalized subgingival calculus.
C. Impaired polymorphonuclear
phagocytosis.
D. Bacterial plaque.

Back 99

D

Front 100

The combination (Kelley’s) syndrome refers to the destructive changes associated with the long term wear of a mandibular distal extension removable partial denture opposing a complete upper denture. Which of the following clinical findings is NOT normally characteristic of this syndrome?
A. Reduction in morphologic face height.
B. Advanced anterior maxillary ridge resorption.
C. Down growth of the maxillary tuberosities.
D. Advanced alveolar bone resorption under the posterior partial denture base areas

Back 100

A