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620 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
If the ovum is fertilized, the corpus luteum is maintained by the production of ___ by the syncytiotrophoblast.
|
chorionic gonadotropin 544
|
|
What causes the mother's basal body temperature to continue at its elevated level following ovulation?
|
progesterone from the corpus luteum 544
|
|
Which hormones does the placenta produce?
|
estrogens, progesterone, chorionic gonadotropin, chorionic somatomammotropin (aka human placental lactogen) 544
|
|
What is pseudocyesis?
|
imaginary pregnancy 544
|
|
Which two hormones are responsible for the presumptive signs of breast enlargement?
|
estrogen and chorionic somatomammotropin (HPL) 544
|
|
Which two hormones are thought to cause pigment changes in the skin during pregnancy?
|
estrogen and progesterone 544
|
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When do skin pigmentation changes such as chloasma, linea nigra, stretch marks and secondary areolae usually occur?
|
around the 5th or 6th lunar month of pregnancy 544
|
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Most of the pigmentation changes of pregnancy (including chloasma) _____ and ___ after pregnancy has ended, with the exception of striae.
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regress and disappear 545
|
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Fine silvery white striae are ___.
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old 545
|
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New striae are which color?
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reddish brown 545
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|
What are vascular spiders?
|
minute reddened elevations of the skin, each with a central body from which radicles branch out 545
|
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Where do vascular spiders generally occur?
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on the face, neck, upper chest and arms 545
|
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To what are vascular spider and palmar erythema during pregnancy generally attributed?
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a hyperestrogenemic state 545
|
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When do vascular spider and palmar erythema generally occur?
|
around the 5th to 6th lunar month of pregnancy 545
|
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Palmar erythema in the first trimester indicates the possibility of ...
|
hepatitis 545
|
|
Nausea is considered a ___ sign of pregnancy.
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presumptive 545
|
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____ signs of pregnancy are maternal physiological changes that the woman experiences and that in most cases indicate to her that she is pregnant.
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Presumptive 544
|
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____ signs of pregnancy are maternal physiological and anatomical changes that are detected upon examination and documented by the examiner.
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Probable 544
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____ signs of pregnancy are those directly attributable to the fetus, as detected and documented by the examiner.
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Positive 544
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The ___ undergoes a number of changes to become the corpus luteum of menstruation.
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ruptured graafian follicle 544
|
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What becomes the corpus luteum of pregnancy?
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the syncytiotrophoblast surrounding the blastocyst 544
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What produces the progesterone needed to maintain the uterine lining for implantation and the earliest stages of pregnancy?
|
the corpus luteum 544
|
|
Which hormone produced by the corpus luteum maintains the uterine lining for implantation and the earliest stages of pregnancy?
|
progesterone 544
|
|
Shortly after implantation, the placenta begins producing enough ____ to maintain the uterine lining for pregnancy.
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progesterone 544
|
|
Which hormone is the basis for immunologic pregnancy test?
|
chorionic gonadotropin 544
|
|
What is another name for human placental lactogen?
|
chorionic somatomammotropin 544
|
|
What is another name for chorionic somatomammotropin?
|
human placental lactogen 544
|
|
"Normal" nausea and vomiting in pregnancy rarely extend past the ____
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first trimester 545
|
|
_____ (the basis for the take-home pregnancy test), is produced by the syncytiotrophoblast.
|
Human chorionic gonadotropin 545
|
|
Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced by ...
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the syncytiotrophoblast 545
|
|
Implantation time varies from __ to __ days after ovulation.
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6 to 12 days 545
|
|
Is it possible to detect hCG in maternal plasma or urine before implantation takes place?
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no 545
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Is it always possible to detect hCG and therefore pregnancy when a woman misses the first days of her menstrual period?
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No, if implantation has not yet occurred, hCG cannot be detected 545
|
|
Once implantation occurs, hCG levels ___ every 2 days.
|
double 545
|
|
When do hCG levels peak?
|
at about 8.5 to 10 weeks gestation 545
|
|
A positive pregnancy test is considered a ___ sign of pregnancy.
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probable 546
|
|
How is uterine growth during the early months of pregnancy accomplished?
|
hyperplasia (an increased number of cells) 547
|
|
Which two hormones are responsible for uterine enlargement?
|
estrogen and progesterone 547
|
|
What is hypertrophy?
|
an increase in the size of the cells 547
|
|
What is hyperplasia?
|
an increase in number of cells 547
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|
What is Chadwick's sign?
|
the bluish or purplish discoloration of the vulva and vaginal mucosa and vaginal portion of cervix 547
|
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What is Goodell's sign?
|
softening of the cervix 547
|
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What is Hegar's sign?
|
softening and compressibility of the uterine isthmus 547
|
|
When are Chadwick's, Goodell's and Hegar's signs evident?
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by about 6 weeks gestation 547
|
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Which way does the uterus dextrorotate as it rises up to become an abdominal organ?
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to the right 547
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|
Whan does Piscacek's sign become evident?
|
around the 8th to 10th week of pregnancy 547
|
|
What is Piscacek's sign?
|
a rough irregular contour in one of the cornual areas of the uterus 547
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___ are nonrhythmic, sporadic, painless uterine contractions that start about the 6th week of pregnancy.
|
Braxton Hicks contractions 547
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____ contractions increase in frequency, duration and intensity as well as attain some degree of rhythm and regularity close to term, at which time they are frequently misinterpreted as labor contractions.
|
Braxton Hicks contractions 547
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The ____ uterus has one horn with its associated fallopian tube and uterus and one cervix. The opposite side of the uterus may be absent or underdevelped
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unicornuate 407
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The ___ uterus has two separate cavities, each with its own cervix. The uterus itself may have a v-shape.
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didelphys 407
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In a didelphys uterus, pregnancy may occur in ____ cavities.
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either or both 408
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The ___ uterus has a heart-shape, owing to two separate uterine cavities separated by myometrial tissue and one cervix
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bicornuate 408
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The ___ uterus is essentially a normal uterus with a septum running down its midline.
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septate 408
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In a septate uterus, the septum may be complete, or ____
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partial 408
|
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How many cervixes does the septate uterus have?
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one 408
|
|
With which two pelves is deep transverse arrest associated?
|
platypelloid and android 873
|
|
What are signs of deep transverse arrest?
|
1) prolonged 2nd stage
2) sagittal suture in the transverse diameter of mother's pelvis 3) development of 2nd stage hypotonic uterine dysfunction 4) extensive molding of head 5) considerable caput formation 6) lack of descent of fetal head 873 |
|
What is the primary management plan for deep transverse arrest?
|
prevention - when you suspect from your original evaluation of the mother's pelvis that this may be a possibility 874
|
|
Which 3 maternal signs may indicate the possibility of CPD?
|
1) shoulders wider than hips, regardless of height
2) short, square stature 3) short, broad hands and feet 872 |
|
It is quite unusual to find a pelvis so ____ that labor is absolutely contraindicated.
|
so severely contracted 872
|
|
What is the only true test for CPD?
|
a trial of labor 873
|
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A cesarean section is called for when there is a combination of failure to progress, arrested labor, and hypotonic uterine dysfunction along with suspected CPD before ____ occurs.
|
deep transverse arrest 873
|
|
What do slowly rising or leveling hCG levels indicate?
|
ectopic pregnancy 624
|
|
What do dropping hCG levels indicate?
|
early pregnancy loss or viable pregnancy that is actually more than 12 weeks gestation 624
|
|
What do very rapidly increasing hCG levels indicate?
|
hydatidiform mole or multiple gestation 624
|
|
hCG levels should double every two days until ____ weeks gestation.
|
10 weeks 624
|
|
Signs of lightening occurs approximately ____ before labor.
|
2 weeks 737
|
|
What are 5 signs of lightening?
|
1) decrease in shortness of breath
2) increased frequency of urination 3) increased pelvic pressure (feels like she has to poop) 4) leg cramps 5) edema in lower extremities 737 |
|
When pregnancy is carefully dated and menstrual and ultrasound assessments are consistent, the incidence of postdates pregnancy falls to ___%
|
1-3% 721
|
|
The standard definition of a postdates pregnancy is ___ days beyond LMP.
|
294 page 721
|
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The standard definition of a postdates pregnancy is ___ days beyond ovulation/fertilization.
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280 page 721
|
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The first trimester (12 weeks) covers the entire ___ period and the first two weeks of the ___ period.
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embryonic and fetal 556
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At the moment of fertilization, the male and female ___ from the ovum and sperm fuse.
|
pronuclei 556
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The pronucleus of each gamete contains ____ chromosomes.
|
23 page 556
|
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What is the name of the process by which mature ova and sperm are developed?
|
gametogenesis 556
|
|
Every cell in an individual's body undergoes this type of cellular division, except gametes.
|
mitotic 556
|
|
Immediately following fertilization, the resulting zygote begins to undergo mitotic cellular division, called ____.
|
cleavage 560
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The zygote undergoes cleavage and becomes a ...
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morula 560
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The morula reorganizes cells and becomes a ....
|
blastocyst 560
|
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What is the name of the cellular mass that implants in the uterine lining?
|
blastocyst 560
|
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When is the process of implantation in the uterine lining completed?
|
on the tenth or eleventh day postfertilization 560
|
|
What event marks the beginning of the embryonic period?
|
the implantation of the blastocyst in the uterine lining 560
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At the time of implantation, the embryo is known as a _____ embryo.
|
bilaminar 50
|
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What are the names of the two layers of cells that arise from the inner cell mass of the bilaminar embryo?
|
epiblast and hypoblast 560
|
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What does the embryonic epiblast become?
|
the embryonic ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm 560
|
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What does the embryonic hypoblast become?
|
the yolk sac 560
|
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Morphogenesis is the development of ...
|
body form 560
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_____ is a process by which the bilaminar embryonic disc is converted into a trilaminar embryonic disc.
|
Gastrulation 560
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The bilaminar embryonic disc becomes a .... embryonic disc.
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trilaminar 560
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The primitive streak forms on the surface of the _____
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epiblast 560
|
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The trilaminar embryonic disc gives rise to the three germ layers:
|
1) endoderm, 2) ectoderm, 3) mesoderm 560
|
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The mesoderm gives rise to ____ and ___
|
connective tissues and muscles 561
|
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The endoderm forms the _____ of the gastrointestinal tract.
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epithelial lining 561
|
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The ectoderm divides into the ___ ectoderm and the ___ ectoderm.
|
the surface ectoderm and the neuroectoderm 561
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Which forms the skull and skeleton: the endoderm, mesoderm or ectoderm?
|
mesoderm 561
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The endoderm primarily forms the ____ or many organs.
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epithelial lining 561
|
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Which forms hair, nails and skin: endoderm, mesoderm or ectoderm?
|
ectoderm 561
|
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Which forms the retina: endoderm, mesoderm or ectoderm?
|
ectoderm 561
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Which forms the blood cells: endoderm, mesoderm or ectoderm?
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mesoderm 561
|
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How many pairs of somites are there in the embryo?
|
43-44 page 560
|
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The first trimester includes weeks __ through __
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1 through 12 563
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The second trimester includes weeks __ through __
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13 through 27 563
|
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The first trimester is ___ weeks long
|
12 page 563
|
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The second trimester is __ weeks long
|
15 page 563
|
|
The third trimester is __ weeks long
|
13 page 563
|
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The third trimester includes weeks __ through __
|
28 through 40 page 563
|
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What happens on day 1 of embryonic development?
|
fertilization, zygote forms
|
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What happens on day 3 of embryonic development?
|
zygote becomes a morula of 12 cells
|
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What happens on day 4 of embryonic development?
|
morula becomes a blastocyst
|
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What happens on day 6 of embryonic development?
|
blastocyst begins implantation in uterine lining
|
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What happens on day 10 of embryonic development?
|
blastocyst is firmly embedded in the uterine lining and is now a bilaminar embryo
|
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What happens on day 15 of embryonic development?
|
morphogenesis begins
|
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What happens in week 2 of embryonic development?
|
implantation
|
|
What happens in week 3 of embryonic development?
|
development of trilaminar disc and ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm
|
|
What happens on day 20 of embryonic development?
|
formation of neural tube, blood cells and primordial cardiovascular system
|
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What happens on day 22 of embryonic development?
|
heart begins to beat
|
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What happens on day 21 of embryonic development?
|
somites begin to develop
|
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What happens in week 4 of embryonic development?
|
trilaminar folding begins and baby looks like c-shaped salamander
|
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What happens in week 5 of embryonic development?
|
rapid development of brain and eyes begin to develop and head is very large compared to the rest of the body
|
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What happens in week 6 of embryonic development?
|
mouth, nose, palate and finger buds begin to form, legs and arm development
|
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What happens in week 7 of embryonic development?
|
intestines are outside the body, ears begin to form, eyelids form, and toe buds form
|
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What happens in week 8 of embryonic development?
|
ossification of bones, head is half the size of the body
|
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What happens in week 9 of embryonic development?
|
fetal period begins
|
|
What happens in week 10 of embryonic development?
|
external genitalia clearly visible, fetus makes breathing motions, intestines inside the abdomen, urination, fetus can swallow
|
|
What happens in month 4 of embryonic development?
|
fingernails develop, bone development continues, toenails are not developed yet, reflex response begins, eyelids are fused
|
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What happens in month 5 of embryonic development?
|
baby covered in vernix, mother can feel baby's movements, legs become long, toenails form
|
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What happens in month 6 of fetal development?
|
hair growth (eyebrows, eyelashes, lanugo, head hair), crying and sucking begin, baby begins to dream
|
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What happens in month 7 of fetal development?
|
baby appears old and wrinkly, eyes open and close, fat development begins
|
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What happens in month 8 of fetal development?
|
fingernails become long, lanugo disappears from face, fat continues to develop, vernix still present
|
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What happens in month 9 of fetal development?
|
toenails are long, fat continues to develop, baby is chubby
|
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What happens in month 10 of fetal development?
|
lanugo disappears, baby is chubby
|
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The period of postpartum recovery lasts approximately ___ weeks.
|
6 1041
|
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The speed of involution of the uterus in the postpartal period is not affected by the administration of...
|
medications 1041
|
|
___ will speed the process of uterine involution postpartum.
|
Breastfeeding 1041
|
|
Complete regeneration of the endometrium at the placental site postpartum takes approximately ___
|
6 weeks 1042
|
|
The uterus loses ____ of its weight in the first week postpartum.
|
half 1042
|
|
The uterus is nonpalpable by the ___ day postpartum.
|
10th day 1042
|
|
Lochia rubra lasts for the first 2-3 days postpartum and contains primarily ___ and ___
|
blood and decidual 1043
|
|
Lochia alba begins on the ___ day postpartum (the same day that the uterus cannot be palpated any longer)
|
the 10th day 1042
|
|
Lochia alba contains primarily __ and ___
|
leukocytes and decidual cells 1043
|
|
Approximately 40% of postpartal women have nonpathological ___ from immediately postdelivery up to the 2nd day postpartum.
|
proteinuria 1044
|
|
What explains the profuse perspiration that can occur in the early postpartum days?
|
diuresis, the body discarding excess interstitial fluid and excess blood volume 1044
|
|
How long does it take for stretch marks to change from brown to silvery white?
|
several months 1044
|
|
The white blood cell count may be ____ during labor, due to leukocytosis.
|
elevated 1045
|
|
There is usually a reduction of approximately ____ in total blood volume during delivery and the puerperium. Not all of this is blood loss. Some is excreted through diuresis.
|
1.5 Liters 1045
|
|
Why does the mother often speak to the baby in a high pitched voice?
|
the baby can hear especially well in the high-frequency range 1047
|
|
In breastfeeding women, the suckling of the baby stimulates the production of oxytocin by the ___
|
posterior pituitary 1059
|
|
Afterbirth pains can be relieved by...
|
frequent urination (a full bladder keeps the uterus from contracting fully and the periods of relaxing and contraction cause the most pain, rather than just a uterus that remains well contracted) 1059
|
|
Which type of medication is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers who want relief from afterpains?
|
aspirin because it may decrease platelet counts 1059
|
|
Which two medications can a breastfeeding mother take for afterpains?
|
tylenol (acetominophen) and ibuprofen, but ibuprofen is best because of its anti-inflammatory properties 1059
|
|
Although engorgement is not an inflammatory process, the increased metabolism associated with milk production may cause a mildly elevated ____
|
temperature 1059
|
|
What do Montgomery's tubercles do?
|
they secrete a substance that is both lubricating and antimicrobial, protecting the nipples and areolae during pregnancy and lactation 1071
|
|
Prolactin is secreted by the ____
|
pituitary 1071
|
|
Which 3 hormones are most responsible for the continued and accelerated growth of the breasts during pregnancy?
|
human placental lactogen, prolactin and chorionic gonadotropin 1071
|
|
Although prolactin levels increase as much as 10 to 20 fold during pregnancy, milk is not produced because of the elevated levels of ....
|
progesterone 1071
|
|
Without nipple stimulation, prolacting levels drop to those of nonpregnant, nonlactating women within ____ weeks.
|
2 page 1071
|
|
Nipple stimulation via suckling provides the stimulation for the release of this hormone.
|
prolactin 1071
|
|
Colic is characterized as crying and screaming that continues for ___ to ___ hours at a time.
|
3-4 hours 1080
|
|
Research indicates that more than 1/3 of colicky infants improved after their mothers removed this food from their diet for more than a week.
|
cow's milk and its byproducts 1081
|
|
Can the food the mother ate cause gas in the baby?
|
No 1080
|
|
Why does a baby get gassy?
|
gas is formed as a byproduct of the digestion of insoluble fiber in the intestinal tract, not because the mother ate gassy foods 1080
|
|
Can colic be caused by eating broccoli, chocolate, onions or any other foods?
|
it is unlikely 1080
|
|
Milk production over the first four months postpartum is generally this amount per day...
|
.75 liters 1081
|
|
Does a mothers fluid intake affect her milk volume?
|
NO, she cannot increase or decrease her milk supply (or change its consistency) by drinking more or less 1081
|
|
Can women who "diet" in the postpartum period negatively affect their baby's growth?
|
No 1081
|
|
Will working hard (physical labor) cause less milk production?
|
No 1081
|
|
Will eating better make better milk?
|
No, diet has almost no effect on the volume or composition of milk unless the mother is grossly undernourished, as in a prolonged famine 1081
|
|
Will eating poorly cause milk to be inferior?
|
No, diet has almost no effect on the volume or composition of milk unless the mother is grossly undernourished, as in a prolonged famine 1081
|
|
According to Varney's, are there any herbs that can help a mother produce more milk?
|
no, there is no evidence that eating or drinking specific herbs or foods will increase the milk supply 1081
|
|
Occasional-use and casual use pumps are used by a mother when she is away from a nursing infant, at work or school for example. These pumps are capable of removing substantial quantities of milk but not of _____.
|
building the milk supply 1084
|
|
What is the 4-3-3 rule for storing breastmilk?
|
Milk can be stored at room temperature for 4 hours, in the refrigerator for 3 days or in the freezer for 3 to 6 months 1084
|
|
If the midwife suspects an HSV infection on the breast, should the baby breastfeed?
|
Not until it is completely healed and the infant should be fed formula or banked milk during this period 1086
|
|
Temperature elevation caused by dehydration usually occurs in the first ____ hours postpartum.
|
24 hours 1093
|
|
Pyelonephritis is characterized by a low-grade fever with ..
|
spikes 1094
|
|
Other than severe engorgement, precursory signs and symptoms of mastitis usually are not evident before the end of the ____
|
first postpartal week 1096
|
|
Does the pulse rate increase with mastitis?
|
yes, often 1096
|
|
The acute onset of sharp, stabbing pain at the nipple when the infant nurses should lead the midwife to consider that the mother has...
|
thrush 1097
|
|
What is the main sign of thrush on the breast?
|
acute sharp stabbing pain at the nipple when the infant nurses 1097
|
|
If the mother has thrush on the breast, should the infant be treated?
|
yes, even if the infant shows no symptoms 1097
|
|
What are the signs of superficial thrombophletis?
|
leg pain, inflammation at the site, localized heat and tenderness, palpation of a knot or cord 1097
|
|
What is Homan's sign used to diagnose?
|
deep thrombophlebitis 1097
|
|
How do you elicit Homan's sign?
|
place one hand on the mother's knee and apply gentle pressure to keep leg straight. dorsiflex the foot. if there is calf pain, the sign is positive and the diagnosis is deep thrombophlebitis 1097
|
|
What are the symptoms of deep thrombophlebitis?
|
positive Homan's sign, mild fevere, mild tachycardia, abrupt onset with severe leg pain worsening with motion or when standing, edema of the ankle, leg and thigh, pain with calf pressure, tenderness along entire course of the involved vessel(s) 1097
|
|
What is the treatment for thrombophlebitis?
|
bed rest, elevation of leg, hot packs, elastic stockings and analgesia if needed. under no circumstances should the leg be massaged 1097
|
|
What is thrombophlebitis?
|
pain and swelling caused by a vein blocked by a blood clot 1097
|
|
Is the risk for pulmonary embolism less/equal/or more for deep vein thrombosis than for superficial vein thrombosis?
|
more risk 1097
|
|
Pulmonary embolism is ____ with superficial thrombophlebitis.
|
unlikely 1097
|
|
What are the most common three symptoms of pulmonary embolism?
|
tachypnea, dyspnea and sharp chest pain of sudden onset 1097
|
|
What is a hematoma?
|
a tissue swelling that contains blood 1097
|
|
What are the dangers of hematoma?
|
blood loss amounting to hemorrhage, anemia and infection 1097
|
|
Hematomas arise from spontaneous or traumatic rupture of ____
|
a blood vessel 1097
|
|
What is the most common sign of hematoma?
|
extreme pain out of proportion to the expected amount of discomfort and pain 1097
|
|
What might perineal, vaginal, urethral, bladder or rectal pressure and severe pain following birth indicate?
|
hematoma 1097
|
|
Which type of maternal hematoma might necessitate consulting a physician for care?
|
one that continues to enlarge rather than stabilizing 1098
|
|
If a broad ligament hematoma is suspected, what should the midwife do?
|
consult with a physician 1098
|
|
What is the definition of late postpartum hemorrhage?
|
hemorrhage that occurs after the first 24 hours postpartum 1098
|
|
_____ occurs when the process of uterine contraction does not take place as it should and is either prolonged or stops.
|
Subinvolution 1098
|
|
True postpartum depression can develop at any point in the first ___ months.
|
3 months 1099
|
|
If a mother is suspected of having postpartum depression, what should the midwife screen for?
|
hypothyroidism 1099
|
|
How long does it take for the newborn to make its complete transition to extrauterine life?
|
one month 961
|
|
Can prolonged rupture of membranes cause fetal dehydration?
|
yes, 961
|
|
In which four areas are the most quick and dramatic transitions to extrauterine life seen?
|
respiratory system, circulatory system, ability to thermoregulate and the ability to procure a source of glucose 961
|
|
What is the organ responsible for fetal oxygenation prior to birth?
|
the placenta 962
|
|
What is the name of the phospholipid that reduces surface tension at the alveolar-air interface?
|
surfactant 962
|
|
Surfactant is a ...
|
phospholipid 962
|
|
What causes TTN (transient tachypnea of the newborn)?
|
wet lungs 962
|
|
Fetal circulation bypasses the lungs and instead flows through the opening between the right and left atria, called the ____
|
foramen ovale 963
|
|
Why does fetal blood bypass the lungs?
|
because they are a closed, fluid-filled organ and need minimal blood flow 963
|
|
In fetal circulation, oxygenated blood flows through the ___ to the brain.
|
ductus arteriosus 963
|
|
The pressure from increased blood flow in the left side of the neonatal heart causes the ___ to shut.
|
foramen ovale 963
|
|
How long does it take the ductus arteriosus in the newborn to shut?
|
about 48 hours 963
|
|
In fetal circulation, blood is shunted from ___ to ___ across the foramen ovale of the heart.
|
right to left 964
|
|
After birth, blood flow direction changes from ____ to ___ to ___ to ____.
|
from right to left to left to right 964
|
|
Closure of the foramen ovale is caused by increased pressure in the ....
|
left atrium 964
|
|
The fetal circulation system is a ___ system, while the neonatal circulation is a ___ system.
|
low-pressure system becomes a high-pressure system 964
|
|
The fetal temperature is typically ___ degrees higher the mother's.
|
1.08 degrees 964
|
|
How long does it take a term newborn to stabilize is ability to control its temperature adequately?
|
2 days of life 964
|
|
What are the clinical symptoms of hypothermia?
|
tachypnea and increased heart rate (newborn speeds up metabolism which requires higher oxygen levels to keep warm) 965
|
|
Any baby who has been stressed by hypothermia should be assessed for ____ and ____.
|
hypoglycemia and hypoxia 965
|
|
Which type of thermometer is probably the least reliable for newborns?
|
tympanic thermometer (ear) 965
|
|
Rectal temperature of a newborn is usually about ____ degrees above axillary temperature.
|
.72 degrees but can be up to 3.6 degrees higher 965
|
|
What is the preferred rectal and axillary temperature range for a newborn?
|
97.7 to 99.5 degrees 965
|
|
Which type of temperature may be falsely elevated in a cold-stressed infant secondary to metabolism of brown fat?
|
axillary 966
|
|
Before birth, the fetus is exposed to almost constant glucose levels that are at ___ to ___% of the mother's levels.
|
60-70% of the mother's 965
|
|
In preparation for extrauterine life, the healthy fetus stores glucose as ____, in the liver.
|
glycogen 966
|
|
Newborns who have low stores of glycogen, such as IUGR infants, postterm infants, preterm infants and infants experiencing fetal distress, are at risk for ...
|
hypoglycemia 966
|
|
What are some symptoms of hypoglycemia?
|
jitteriness, cyanosis, apnea, weak cry, lethargy, limpness and refusal to feed 966
|
|
Why must the midwife make every effort to minimize extremes of position of the infant in relation to the vaginal introitus (and thus the placenta) at birth?
|
If the baby is too low, a blood bolus could cause respiratory distress, polycythemia, hyperviscosity or hyperbilirubinemia. If the baby is too high, reverse blood flow from the fetus to the placenta could cause severe hypovolemia 968
|
|
Why doesn't blood normally reverse from the fetus back to the placenta after birth?
|
the umbilical arteries (which carry blood from the fetus to the placenta) spasm quickly in the ambient temperature of the birth room and block blood flow (usually) 968
|
|
Why should the midwife warm the heel before attempted to check glucose levels in the newborn?
|
venous stasis (particularly in the cold newborn) can give incorrect results 968
|
|
What is the capacity of the term newborn's stomach?
|
less than 30cc 969
|
|
Why do newborn's frequently regurgitate the contents of their stomachs?
|
the cardiac sphincter - the juncture of the lower esophagus and the stomach - is incomplete 968
|
|
Which type of immunoglobulin can cross the placenta and provides immunity to the fetus before it is born?
|
IgG.
IgM and IgA cannot cross the placenta 971 |
|
Why do small children get sick so often?
|
their immune system is not fully developed until well into childhood 971
|
|
What is one of the primary biological tasks during infancy and early childhood?
|
building of immunity 971
|
|
Abdominal masses found on physical newborn exam frequently are..
|
renal 971
|
|
When should bowel sounds be present in the newborn?
|
by 30 minutes after birth 976
|
|
How many hours after birth does physiological hypoglycemia occur and by when does it usually resolve?
|
hypoglycemia occurs around 1.5 hours after birth and resolves by 3-4 hours after birth 966
|
|
What can a murmur heard a few hours after birth in the neonate be?
|
an indication that the ductus arteriosus has not fully closed 976
|
|
Early feeding of the neonate provides the bacterial colonization of the intestines that leads to the development of ____
|
vitamin K 977
|
|
Where is vitamin K in the newborn created?
|
in the intestinal tract 977
|
|
What color is bile?
|
dark green to yellow-brown
|
|
What type of neonate mucus necessitates physician collaboration?
|
bile-stained mucus 977
|
|
The presence of large amounts of mucus in the newborn may indicate a problem such as...
|
esophageal atresia 977
|
|
Bile-stained mucus in the newborn is always a sign of ...
|
illness, and feeding should be delayed until the cause has been determined 977
|
|
Mucus in the newborn should be what color? (otherwise it's an indication of illness)
|
clear 977
|
|
Recovery from secondary apnea is prolonged and is directly related to..
|
the length of the asphyxia 985
|
|
The newborn in a state of asphyxia retains many of the features of the ___
|
fetal circulation (lungs become resistant to expansion due to constriction of blood vessels and the formane ovale and ductus arteriosus continue to shunt blood around the lungs, bypassing them 986
|
|
What is hypercarbia?
|
build up of carbon dioxide 986
|
|
Within a short period of time, a lack of oxygen causes a newborn to switch to an ____ pathway for metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
|
anaerobic 986
|
|
What might the midwife suspect if a newborn is born with an initially vigorous respiratory effort with then quickly decompensates?
|
a diaphragmatic hernia 996
|
|
What would you suspect of the baby born with an abdominal contour that is unusually flat or concave?
|
diaphragmatic hernia 996
|
|
What is a diaphragmatic hernia?
|
when part of the abdominal contents is above the diaphragm and in the chest cavity 996
|
|
What is the most serious issue with diaphragmatic hernia in the newborn?
|
the question of whether any lung development took place during the fetal period. if the herniation occurred early and is extensive, there will be little lung development and even with aggressive resuscitation and surgery, most of these infants die 996
|
|
Normally, in a newborn, the ___ circumference is larger than the __ circumference.
|
head is larger than chest 1005
|
|
Why should a midwife who has any doubts about ambiguous genitalia in a newborn immediately contact a physician?
|
because in some instances the finding of ambiguous genitalia has been linked with congenital adrenal hyperplasia, a condition that will cause life-threatening dehydration shortly after birth 1006
|
|
Can newborns see in color right after they are born?
|
Not really 1015
|
|
Which pattern are newborns particularly attracted to?
|
stripes! 1015
|
|
What is a good rule of thumb in regards to newborn behavioral patterns in the first month?
|
there is no pattern! 1014
|
|
Healthy newborns spend up to __% of their time sleeping.
|
60% 1014
|
|
Complete absence of any of the newborn reflexes is a cause for...
|
alarm 1014
|
|
The loss of a previously strong reflex in the first month of life is a cause for ...
|
alarm 1014
|
|
Is the elicitation of an incomplete or depressed reflex necessarily a cause for alarm?
|
not necessarily; this is fairly frequent and can be caused by neurological depression secondary to medication 1014
|
|
Use of a barrier cream containing ___ can sometimes stop diaper rash at the earliest stages.
|
zinc oxide 1018
|
|
Because infants cannot ____ effectively, symptoms of overheating are mainly a red skin color, irritability and body warmth.
|
sweat 1018
|
|
The space between crib bars should be less than ___ inches
|
2-3/8 inches page 1018
|
|
When should the developmental milestone of rolling over generally be reached and what can delay this?
|
by 4 months, but consistent placing of baby in the supine position for sleep may delay this 1018
|
|
Why should a prolonged bottle feed never be used to calm an infant?
|
residual sugars can cause dental caries and the accumulation of milk in the back of the oropharynx may also lead to ear infection 1020
|
|
What is periodic breathing of the newborn?
|
pauses in respiratory movement that last for up to 20 seconds alternating with breathing 1024
|
|
Is cradle cap a concern?
|
Only a cosmetic one 1024
|
|
Breastmilk has very low concentrations of these three minerals, however all of these elements are extremely bioavailable and, therefore, efficiently absorbed.
|
iron, zinc and calcium 1022
|
|
By what age might a breastfed baby need an iron supplement?
|
4-6 months of age, when the prenatal stores are used up because of rapid growth 1022
|
|
What causes hiccups?
|
spasmodic contractions of the diaphragm caused by irritation from regurgitation of gastric contents 1023
|
|
Why do babies get hiccups so often?
|
because the irritation from regurgitation (cardiac sphincter) of gastric contents causes the diaphragm to contract spasmodically 1023
|
|
For how long should the infant be woken every 4 hours to eat?
|
for the first 2 weeks 1023
|
|
What is the possible diagnosis for a baby who starts to breastfeed and then pulls away from the breast while crying?
|
infant thrush 1024
|
|
Why do infants sometimes breathe noisily?
|
the upper airways of infants are narrow and any slight nasal swelling can produce some noise; suctioning makes this worse 1024
|
|
What are the most common abnormal finding in newborns?
|
respiratory symptoms 1030
|
|
Tachycardia in the newborn is a symptom of which five possible etiologies?
|
overheating, infection, anemia, shock, cardiac defect 1030
|
|
What are two symptoms of anemia in the newborn?
|
tachycardia and pallor 1030
|
|
Cold stress can cause the baby to breathe...
|
fast 1030
|
|
What are two symptoms of cold stress?
|
pallor and tachypnea 1030
|
|
With a larger pneumothorax, what symptoms might the midwife note?
|
diminished breath sounds on one side, cyanosis, and perhaps overdistention of the chest on the affected side 1031
|
|
What are signs of meconium aspiration syndrome?
|
uneven breath sounds, a barrel-chested appearance, rales and rhonchi and cyanosis 1031
|
|
Neonatal pneumonia may be acquired in the ____ period or during the passage through the birth canal.
|
intrauterine period 1031
|
|
What are the signs of neonatal pneumonia?
|
respiratory distress plus hypothermia, color changes, and apnea 1031
|
|
Neonatal pneumonia infection can be caused by ___, ____ or other organisms.
|
bacteria, viruses 1031
|
|
How long does transient tachypnea last?
|
up to 48-72 hours 1032
|
|
How long does it take for paralysis from brachial plexus injury to disappear?
|
3-6 months with initial improvement evident within a few weeks 1035
|
|
Should a baby with brachial plexus injury be seen by a doctor?
|
yes, to get the arm splinted 1035
|
|
If the midwife suspects a skull fracture (a depressed area of fetal skull, particularly over the parietal bones), what should she do?
|
position the newborn on the side opposite the affected area and consult with a doctor 1035
|
|
What are signs of bone fracture in the newborn?
|
swelling, skin discoloration, lack of movement, crepitus (sometimes), asymmetric Moro reflex 1035
|
|
What are subtle signs of newborn seizures?
|
chewing, sucking motions, bicycling of limbs, drooling, apnea, deviation of the eyes and eyelid fluttering. they are evidenced as short, repetitive bursts of activity 1035
|
|
What does seizure activity in the newborn indicate?
|
neurological compromise; hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (HIE), hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia and infection 1035
|
|
What is hypoxemia?
|
decreased oxygen content in blood 795
|
|
What is hypoxia?
|
decreased level of oxygen in tissue 795
|
|
What is acidemia?
|
increased concentration of hydrogen ions in the blood 795
|
|
What is acidosis?
|
increased concentration of hydrogen ions in tissue 795
|
|
What is asphyxia?
|
hypoxia with metabolic acidosis 795
|
|
What is the decidua basalis?
|
it lies beneath the site of implantation of the embryo; becomes maternal contribution to placenta
|
|
Possible causes of size smaller than dates in the third trimester.
|
IUGR, SGA (genetically small infant, normally grown), placental pathology, fetal death, oligo (covert ruptured membranes or maternal dehydration), transverse or oblique lie, poor maternal weight gain 720
|
|
Possible causes of size larger than dates in the first trimester.
|
inaccurate dates, inaccurate measurement, full bladder or bowel, multiple pregnancy, uterine fibroids, ovarian cysts, maternal build 720
|
|
Possible causes of size smaller than dates in the first trimester.
|
inaccurate dates, missed abortion, ectopic pregnancy, maternal build 720
|
|
Possible causes of size smaller than dates in the second trimester.
|
inaccurate dates, inaccurate measurement, fetal anomaly, chromosomal abnormality, placental pathology, oligo, fetal death, severe early onset IUGR, fetal infection, elevated MSAFP/hCG 720
|
|
Possible causes of size larger than dates in the second trimester.
|
inaccurate dates or measurement, multiple pregnancy, fetal anomaly, chromosomal abnormality, polyhydramnios, early macrosomia 720
|
|
Possible causes of size larger than dates in the third trimester.
|
macrosomia, LGA (normally grown), gestatioal diabetes, breech presentation, placenta previa, polyhydramnios, excessive maternal weight gain 720
|
|
IUD and PID can both cause anemia due to....
|
excess menstruation HH16
|
|
What are 7 nonhormonal methods for induction of labor?
|
1) stripping membranes
2) AROM 3) nipple stim 4) castor oil 5) foley bulb or balloon catheter 6) sex 7) herbs 728 |
|
What percentage of women begin labor with PROM?
|
12% page 738
|
|
What % of women with PROM begin labor spontaneously within 24 hours?
|
80% page 738
|
|
A cephalic presentation can have which four attitudes?
|
vertex, sincipital (military), brow, face 747
|
|
The anterior fontanel is also known as the...
|
bregma 750
|
|
The coronal suture lies between which two bones?
|
the parietal bone and the frontal bone 750
|
|
The lambdoidal suture lies between which two bones?
|
the parietal bone and the occipital bone 750
|
|
Does maternal age correlate with her baby's birth weight?
|
no 599
|
|
Which maternal factors influence her baby's birth weight?
|
prepregnancy weight, weight gain during pregnancy, maternal disease, smoking, nutrition during pregnancy, gestation 599
|
|
Which 4 maternal factors do not influence the baby's weight?
|
maternal age, height, marital status and income 599
|
|
Which type of juice is a good source of iron?
|
prune juice
|
|
Is whole wheat bread a good source of iron?
|
yes
|
|
Name 7 vegetarian sources of (incomplete) protein.
|
tofu, green peas, peanut butter, egg noodles, brown rice, white rice, whole wheat bread
|
|
Is white rice a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
Are green peas a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
Are egg noodles a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
The potential for infection of the fetus with toxoplasmosis is 5% if contracted prior to 8 weeks but increases to __ % as gestation continues.
|
80% 677
|
|
What are the common malformations associated with congenital rubella syndrome?
|
cataracts, cardiac defects, deafness, glaucoma, microcephaly and other defects involving eyes, ears, heart, brain and CNS (first 3 are most common) 674
|
|
What is Chadwick's sign?
|
bluish or purple discoloration of the vulva and vaginal mucosa 547
|
|
What is Goodell's sign?
|
softening of cervix from nonpregnant state (tip of nose) to pregnant state (lips) 547
|
|
What is Hegar's sign?
|
softening and compressibility of uterine isthmus 547
|
|
When do Chadwick's, Goodell's and Hegar's signs become evident?
|
about 6 weeks gestation 547
|
|
If rubella infection occurs during the first trimester, what are the possible effects?
|
miscarriage, stillbirth, fetal anomalies, 52% chance of baby having congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) (85% if contracted in first 8 weeks) 674
|
|
Is white rice a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
Are green peas a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
Are egg noodles a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
The potential for infection of the fetus with toxoplasmosis is 5% if contracted prior to 8 weeks but increases to __ % as gestation continues.
|
80% 677
|
|
What are the common malformations associated with congenital rubella syndrome?
|
cataracts, cardiac defects, deafness, glaucoma, microcephaly and other defects involving eyes, ears, heart, brain and CNS (first 3 are most common) 674
|
|
What is Chadwick's sign?
|
bluish or purple discoloration of the vulva and vaginal mucosa 547
|
|
What is Goodell's sign?
|
softening of cervix from nonpregnant state (tip of nose) to pregnant state (lips) 547
|
|
Is white rice a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
What is Hegar's sign?
|
softening and compressibility of uterine isthmus 547
|
|
Are green peas a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
When do Chadwick's, Goodell's and Hegar's signs become evident?
|
about 6 weeks gestation 547
|
|
Are egg noodles a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
If rubella infection occurs during the first trimester, what are the possible effects?
|
miscarriage, stillbirth, fetal anomalies, 52% chance of baby having congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) (85% if contracted in first 8 weeks) 674
|
|
The potential for infection of the fetus with toxoplasmosis is 5% if contracted prior to 8 weeks but increases to __ % as gestation continues.
|
80% 677
|
|
Is white rice a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
Are green peas a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
What are the common malformations associated with congenital rubella syndrome?
|
cataracts, cardiac defects, deafness, glaucoma, microcephaly and other defects involving eyes, ears, heart, brain and CNS (first 3 are most common) 674
|
|
Are egg noodles a good source of (incomplete) protein?
|
yes
|
|
What is Chadwick's sign?
|
bluish or purple discoloration of the vulva and vaginal mucosa 547
|
|
The potential for infection of the fetus with toxoplasmosis is 5% if contracted prior to 8 weeks but increases to __ % as gestation continues.
|
80% 677
|
|
What is Goodell's sign?
|
softening of cervix from nonpregnant state (tip of nose) to pregnant state (lips) 547
|
|
What is Hegar's sign?
|
softening and compressibility of uterine isthmus 547
|
|
What are the common malformations associated with congenital rubella syndrome?
|
cataracts, cardiac defects, deafness, glaucoma, microcephaly and other defects involving eyes, ears, heart, brain and CNS (first 3 are most common) 674
|
|
When do Chadwick's, Goodell's and Hegar's signs become evident?
|
about 6 weeks gestation 547
|
|
What is Chadwick's sign?
|
bluish or purple discoloration of the vulva and vaginal mucosa 547
|
|
If rubella infection occurs during the first trimester, what are the possible effects?
|
miscarriage, stillbirth, fetal anomalies, 52% chance of baby having congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) (85% if contracted in first 8 weeks) 674
|
|
What is Goodell's sign?
|
softening of cervix from nonpregnant state (tip of nose) to pregnant state (lips) 547
|
|
What is Hegar's sign?
|
softening and compressibility of uterine isthmus 547
|
|
When do Chadwick's, Goodell's and Hegar's signs become evident?
|
about 6 weeks gestation 547
|
|
If rubella infection occurs during the first trimester, what are the possible effects?
|
miscarriage, stillbirth, fetal anomalies, 52% chance of baby having congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) (85% if contracted in first 8 weeks) 674
|
|
Why don't you want to take your iron pill with your prenatal vitamin?
|
calcium in the prenatal vitamin will decrease iron absorption 685
|
|
TRUE or FALSE: Herpes zoster (shingles) is rare and has no known effect on mother or fetus.
|
TRUE 678
|
|
50% of human exposure to toxoplasmosis is through ...
|
infected meat, especially pork 677
|
|
Oocytes causing toxoplasmosis from cat feces in the soil can remain infectious for up to ...
|
one year 677
|
|
What are the effects of fetal toxoplasmosis infection?
|
seizures, motor and cognitive defects, mental retardation, anencephaly, hydrocephalus, microcephaly, intracranial calcifications 677
|
|
Which 2 clinical situations should lead to suspicion of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection?
|
1) symptoms of infectious mononucleosis with negative test results for mononucleosis and Epstein-Barr virus
2) signs of hepatitis with negative test results for Hep A, B and C 677 |
|
How many pregnant women are infected by toxoplasmosis each year?
|
1 in 1000 page 677
|
|
Infection with rubella after the __ week of gestation rarely causes birth defects.
|
20th 674
|
|
Has evidence of teratogenicity of the rubella vaccine been demonstrated?
|
no, a woman who didn't know she was pregnant when she was receiving the vaccine can be reassured 675
|
|
Toxoplasmosis is a ___ infection.
|
protozoal
677-8 |
|
Toxoplasmosis is caused by a ...
|
parasite
677-8 |
|
When are the most severe cases of toxoplasmosis seen?
|
when the mother contracts the parasite late in the first trimester
677-8 |
|
Do many infants with toxoplasmosis infection demonstrate symptoms at the time of birth?
|
no, they develop them throughout childhood
677-8 |
|
What are the effects of toxoplasmosis?
|
seizures, motor and cognitive deficits and mental retardation
the most severely affected with have neurologic anomalies such as anencephaly, hydrocephalus, microcephaly and intracranial calcifications 677-8 |
|
When do toxoplasmosis oocytes in infected cat feces become infectious?
|
three days after excretion
677-8 |
|
Most persons infected with toxoplasmosis are ___
|
asymptomatic
677-8 |
|
For pregnant women exposed to toxoplasmosis, treatment can reduce....
|
potential harmful effects to the fetus
677-8 |
|
The earlier in pregnancy the mother contracts varicella, the ____ the risk of congenital varicella syndrome.
|
greater
678-80 |
|
The greatest risk of congenital varicella syndrome occurs in the first ______ of pregnancy.
|
20 weeks
678-80 |
|
What anomalies are associated with congenital varicella syndrome?
|
cataracts, chorioretinitis, limb hypoplasia, hydronephosis, microcephaly, mental retardation, dermatome lesions and cutaneous scars
678-80 |
|
If a mother contracts varicella from 6 days before birth to 2 days postpartum, what is the risk to the baby?
|
mother has not yet had time to pass immunity on to the baby, 5% of infected babies die
678-80 |
|
What is the most common presentation of parvovirus B19?
|
a flushed red face with a characteristic "slapped cheek" pattern
680-1 |
|
Congenital anomalies are not associated with this virus, which can cause fetal hydrops, aplastic anemia and fetal death.
|
parvovirus
680-1 |
|
What are the effects of parvovirus on the fetus?
|
aplastic anemia, fetal hydrops and death
680-1 |
|
When is maternal contraction of parvovirus most dangerous for the baby?
|
in the first half of pregnancy
680-1 |
|
What is another name for rubella?
|
German measles
674-6 |
|
What are the most important consequences of rubella contraction during pregnancy?
|
miscarriage, stillbirth, fetal anomalies and therapeutic abortions
674-6 |
|
If a woman contracts rubella during the first trimester, there is approximately a __% chance that her baby will be born with congenital rubella syndrome.
|
52% chance
674-6 |
|
What anomalies are associated with congenital varicella syndrome?
|
cataracts, chorioretinitis, limb hypoplasia, hydronephosis, microcephaly, mental retardation, dermatome lesions and cutaneous scars
678-80 |
|
If a woman contracts rubella during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, what are her baby's chances of being born with congenital rubella syndrome?
|
85%
674-6 |
|
If a mother contracts varicella from 6 days before birth to 2 days postpartum, what is the risk to the baby?
|
mother has not yet had time to pass immunity on to the baby, 5% of infected babies die
678-80 |
|
What is the most common presentation of parvovirus B19?
|
a flushed red face with a characteristic "slapped cheek" pattern
680-1 |
|
Congenital anomalies are not associated with this virus, which can cause fetal hydrops, aplastic anemia and fetal death.
|
parvovirus
680-1 |
|
What are the effects of parvovirus on the fetus?
|
aplastic anemia, fetal hydrops and death
680-1 |
|
When is maternal contraction of parvovirus most dangerous for the baby?
|
in the first half of pregnancy
680-1 |
|
What is another name for rubella?
|
German measles
674-6 |
|
What are the most important consequences of rubella contraction during pregnancy?
|
miscarriage, stillbirth, fetal anomalies and therapeutic abortions
674-6 |
|
If a woman contracts rubella during the first trimester, there is approximately a __% chance that her baby will be born with congenital rubella syndrome.
|
52% chance
674-6 |
|
If a woman contracts rubella during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, what are her baby's chances of being born with congenital rubella syndrome?
|
85%
674-6 |
|
Does infection after 20 weeks of rubella cause problems?
|
no
674-6 |
|
What are the most common manifestations of congenital rubella syndrome?
|
cataracts, cardiac defects and deafness
674-6 |
|
Does infection after 20 weeks of rubella cause problems?
|
no
674-6 |
|
What areas of the body does congenital rubella syndrome affect?
|
eyes, ears, heart, brain and CNS
674-6 |
|
What are the most common manifestations of congenital rubella syndrome?
|
cataracts, cardiac defects and deafness
674-6 |
|
Infants with congenital rubella syndrome commonly exhibit growth retardation both ___ and ___.
|
in utero and postnatally
674-6 |
|
What areas of the body does congenital rubella syndrome affect?
|
eyes, ears, heart, brain and CNS
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:10 or above is indicative of ____
One of below 1:10 is indicative of ____ |
1:10 or above is immunity
below 1:10 is lack of immunity 674-6 |
|
Infants with congenital rubella syndrome commonly exhibit growth retardation both ___ and ___.
|
in utero and postnatally
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:64 or above may indicate...
|
present disease
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:10 or above is indicative of ____
One of below 1:10 is indicative of ____ |
1:10 or above is immunity
below 1:10 is lack of immunity 674-6 |
|
Is breastfeeding a contraindication to the rubella vaccine?
|
no
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:64 or above may indicate...
|
present disease
674-6 |
|
What is a classic sign of rubella infection in the mother other than flu-like symptoms?
|
a pale or bright red rash that spreads rapidly from the face over the entire body and fades rapidly
674-6 |
|
Does infection after 20 weeks of rubella cause problems?
|
no
674-6 |
|
Is breastfeeding a contraindication to the rubella vaccine?
|
no
674-6 |
|
Does infection after 20 weeks of rubella cause problems?
|
no
674-6 |
|
Cytomegalovirus is a member of the ___ group.
|
herpes-virus group
676-7 |
|
What is a classic sign of rubella infection in the mother other than flu-like symptoms?
|
a pale or bright red rash that spreads rapidly from the face over the entire body and fades rapidly
674-6 |
|
What are the most common manifestations of congenital rubella syndrome?
|
cataracts, cardiac defects and deafness
674-6 |
|
What are the most common manifestations of congenital rubella syndrome?
|
cataracts, cardiac defects and deafness
674-6 |
|
What areas of the body does congenital rubella syndrome affect?
|
eyes, ears, heart, brain and CNS
674-6 |
|
Does infection after 20 weeks of rubella cause problems?
|
no
674-6 |
|
Which is the virus most frequently transmitted to a developing child before birth?
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
What areas of the body does congenital rubella syndrome affect?
|
eyes, ears, heart, brain and CNS
674-6 |
|
Cytomegalovirus is a member of the ___ group.
|
herpes-virus group
676-7 |
|
Infants with congenital rubella syndrome commonly exhibit growth retardation both ___ and ___.
|
in utero and postnatally
674-6 |
|
What are the most common manifestations of congenital rubella syndrome?
|
cataracts, cardiac defects and deafness
674-6 |
|
Which is the virus most frequently transmitted to a developing child before birth?
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
Infants with congenital rubella syndrome commonly exhibit growth retardation both ___ and ___.
|
in utero and postnatally
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:10 or above is indicative of ____
One of below 1:10 is indicative of ____ |
1:10 or above is immunity
below 1:10 is lack of immunity 674-6 |
|
What areas of the body does congenital rubella syndrome affect?
|
eyes, ears, heart, brain and CNS
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:10 or above is indicative of ____
One of below 1:10 is indicative of ____ |
1:10 or above is immunity
below 1:10 is lack of immunity 674-6 |
|
Infants with congenital rubella syndrome commonly exhibit growth retardation both ___ and ___.
|
in utero and postnatally
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:64 or above may indicate...
|
present disease
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:64 or above may indicate...
|
present disease
674-6 |
|
Is breastfeeding a contraindication to the rubella vaccine?
|
no
674-6 |
|
Is breastfeeding a contraindication to the rubella vaccine?
|
no
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:10 or above is indicative of ____
One of below 1:10 is indicative of ____ |
1:10 or above is immunity
below 1:10 is lack of immunity 674-6 |
|
What is a classic sign of rubella infection in the mother other than flu-like symptoms?
|
a pale or bright red rash that spreads rapidly from the face over the entire body and fades rapidly
674-6 |
|
A rubella antibody titer of 1:64 or above may indicate...
|
present disease
674-6 |
|
What is a classic sign of rubella infection in the mother other than flu-like symptoms?
|
a pale or bright red rash that spreads rapidly from the face over the entire body and fades rapidly
674-6 |
|
Is breastfeeding a contraindication to the rubella vaccine?
|
no
674-6 |
|
Cytomegalovirus is a member of the ___ group.
|
herpes-virus group
676-7 |
|
Cytomegalovirus is a member of the ___ group.
|
herpes-virus group
676-7 |
|
What is a classic sign of rubella infection in the mother other than flu-like symptoms?
|
a pale or bright red rash that spreads rapidly from the face over the entire body and fades rapidly
674-6 |
|
Which is the virus most frequently transmitted to a developing child before birth?
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
Which is the virus most frequently transmitted to a developing child before birth?
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
Cytomegalovirus is a member of the ___ group.
|
herpes-virus group
676-7 |
|
Which is the virus most frequently transmitted to a developing child before birth?
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
Generally, ____ is not a highly contagious virus.
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
Infection with ____ requires close, intimate contact with a person excreting the virus in their urine, saliva, blood, tears, semen and breast milk.
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
When a woman is pregnant, she should be encouraged to maintain excellent hand washing technique so as not to contract ______, especially if she works often with children.
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
Cytomegalovirus is most often spread within households and in ______ and ____
|
day care centers and in classrooms
676-7 |
|
Cytomegalovirus can be spread through contact with which bodily fluids?
|
urine, saliva, blood, semen, breastmilk, tears
676-7 |
|
Although this virus is a common infection, it is not frequently diagnosed because of the minimal presence of symptoms. Therefore, it is the infection most frequently passed on to unborn children.
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
______ infection is not usually recognized until after birth.
|
cytomegalovirus
676-7 |
|
Cytomegalovirus infection is not usually recognized until...
|
after birth
676-7 |
|
Most infants with cytomegalovirus disease survive, but 80-90% will have complications that can include...
|
hearing loss, vision impairment and varying degrees of mental retardation
676-7 |
|
Only 15% of infants with cytomegalovirus show signs ____
|
at birth
676-7 |
|
The Epstein-Barr virus causes...
|
mononucleosis
|
|
The Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the ____ group.
|
herpes virus
676-7 |
|
What are the signs of mononucleosis?
|
malaise, fever of 102-104 degrees, loss of appetite, chills, severe sore throat, reddened with a whitish coating on the tonsils in at least one-third of the cases
|
|
Vitamin C may be prophylactic for ...
|
postpartum hemorrhage 602
|
|
What are the three parts of the innominate bones of the pelvis?
|
the pubis, the ischium and the ilium
1215 |
|
The two ____ form the false pelvis.
|
ilia
1215 |
|
The pelvis is divided by the ___ into the false pelvis above this demarcation and the true pelvis below it.
|
linea terminalis
1215 |
|
The ____ diameter is the smallest diameter of the pelvis to which the fetus has to accommodate itself.
|
interspinous diameter
1215 |
|
What is leukorrhea?
|
a profuse, thin or thick vaginal secretion that begins in the first trimester. The secretion is acidic 592-4
|
|
Is cessation of menstruation a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is nausea and vomiting a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is tingling, tenseness, nodularity and enlargement of the breast and nipples a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Are primary and secondary areolar changes of the breast a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is increased frequency of urination a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is fatigue a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Are color changes to the breasts a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is the appearance of Montgomery's tubercles or follicles a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is continued elevation of basal body temperature in the absence of an infection a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is expression of colostrum from the nipples a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is excessive salivation a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is Chadwick's sign a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is quickening a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is skin pigmentation (chloasma, breast and abdominal striae, linea nigra, vascular spiders, palmar erythema) a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
presumptive 573
|
|
Is enlargement of the abdomen a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
probable 573
|
|
Is palpation of the fetal outline a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
probable 573
|
|
Is ballottement a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
probable 573
|
|
Is fetal movement a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
probable, although authorities vary, it could be positive 573
|
|
Is change in the shape of the uterus a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
probable 573
|
|
Are Piscacek's, Hegar's and Goodell's sign a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
probable 573
|
|
Is palpation of Braxton Hicks contractions a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
probable 573
|
|
Is a positive pregnancy test a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
probable 573
|
|
Is sonographic evidence of pregnancy a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
positive 573
|
|
Are fetal heart tones a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
positive 573
|
|
Is visualization of the fetal skeleton by x-ray a presumptive, probable or positive sign of pregnancy?
|
positive 573
|
|
A woman often mistakes ____ for a period because it can often occur at the time the period is supposed to begin.
|
implantation bleeding 579
|
|
Progressive uterine growth is considered indirect evidence of...
|
fetal growth 718
|
|
When does nausea and vomiting begin to occur in pregnancy?
|
around 5 to 6 weeks gestation 591-2
|
|
Acupressure wristbands can be used to relieve ....
|
nausea 591-2
|
|
About half of women are over nausea and vomiting by week ___ of gestation, and 90% by week __.
|
half by week 14 and 90% by week 22
591-2 |
|
When is the peak prevalence of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?
|
at 11 weeks gestation
591-2 |
|
Antihistamines are generally considered ___ during pregnancy.
|
safe
591-2 |
|
Which vitamin can be prescribed to relieve nausea and vomiting?
|
B6
591-2 |
|
Fatigue in pregnancy usually disappears by the ....
|
end of the first trimester 592
|
|
Fatigue occurs during the first trimester for no known reason. One idea is that it results from the initial fall in the the ....
|
basic metabolic rate early in the pregnancy
592 |
|
What are the two types of less common anemias?
|
B12 and folic acid anemia 684
|
|
Mean corpuscular volume indicates...
|
the average size of blood cells 684
|
|
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin indicates...
|
average amount of hemoglobin per cell 684
|
|
Is iron deficiency anemia microcytic or macrocytic?
|
microcytic 684
|
|
Iron deficiency anemia is microcytic, meaning...
|
size of the red cell is decreased 684
|
|
Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency are macrocytic, meaning...
|
the red cell size is increased 684
|
|
Which two vitamins aid the absorption of nonheme iron?
|
Vitamin A and C 684-5
|
|
High iron foods?
|
leafy vegetables (the greener the better), collard greens, red meat, egg yolks, raisins, prunes, liver, oysters and some fortified cereals 684-5
|
|
Phytic acid aids/inhibits iron absorption.
|
inhibits 684-5
|
|
Which foods contain phytic acid?
|
grains and soy proteins, coffee 684-5
|
|
Which food products inhibit nonheme iron absorption?
|
dairy products 684-5
|
|
Which sphincter is involved in regurgitation of stomach contents?
|
cardiac sphincter 593
|
|
Women with heartburn should avoid ____ and ____ with meals.
|
beverages and very cold foods with meals
593 |
|
What 11 recommendations would you give to a woman with heartburn?
|
1) eat small, frequent meals
2) maintain good posture 3) stretch your arms high over your head to give room for the stomach to function 4) avoid fats with meals 5) avoid beverages with meals 6) avoid cold foods with meals 7) avoid spicy foods 8) drink cultured milk rather than sweet milk 9) drink skim milk 10) avoid heavy foods before bed 11) use antacid preparations with aluminum hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide or magnesium trisilicate 593 |
|
This over the counter medication should be avoided during pregnancy because it contains sodium bicarbonate, which can increase edema.
|
Alka-Seltzer 593
|
|
Pain and numbness from carpal tunnel syndrome often worsen...
|
at night 156
|
|
What is the first treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome during pregnancy?
|
splinting at night to place the wrist in a neutral position 156
|
|
____ has been shown to reduce symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome during pregnancy.
|
aerobic exercise 156
|
|
These two minerals can help relieve leg cramps.
|
calcium and phosphorus 594
|
|
___ or ___ on the back can help relieve back pain.
|
Cold or heat 596-7
|
|
Only 1/3 of women who experience painless _____ in the first trimester are having symptoms of impending abortion.
|
vaginal bleeding 662
|
|
____ has been shown to have no effect on the outcome of a pregnancy when first trimester bleeding is apparent.
|
Bed rest 662
|
|
What are the possible causes of first trimester bleeding?
|
threatened abortion, ectopic pregnancy, severe cervicities, cervical lesions, cervical polyp, postcoital bleeding, spotting during implantation, bleeding from subchorionic bleed, demise of a twin, hydatidiform mole 662
|
|
A woman experience first trimester bleeding should be advised to...
|
avoid intercourse, avoid orgasm, do not change activity level (bed rest has no effect on outcome), notify midwife immediately if bleeding increases, if she gets lower abdominal cramps or back pain, pelvic pain other than cramping, gush of fluid from vagina, fever of more than 100.4 662
|
|
When does a miscarriage become a fetal demise?
|
at 20 weeks gestation 665
|
|
Prognosis for continuation of a pregnancy is poor when a woman experiences both bleeding and ..
|
pain 665
|
|
Inevitable abortion is when there is vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal or back pain in addition to...
|
cervical change or rupture of membranes 665
|
|
What are the criteria for a woman to be able to miscarry safely at home?
|
no excessive bleeding or pain, normal vital signs, not severely emotionally distressed, has previous hematocrit of 30% or more 664-5
|
|
When is OB referral necessary during a miscarriage?
|
if woman reports sharp pain on either side, experiences heavy bleeding last >1.5 hours or soaks >1 sanitary pad in 1 hour, has severe cramping lasting >1.5 hours, reports lightheadedness, rapid pulse, foul discharge, has a temp of 100.4 or higher, no products of conception are passed, bleeding continue >5 days
|
|
What is a sign of an incomplete abortion?
|
profuse or prolonged bleeding, infection 665
|
|
S/S of uterine rupture can either be ___ or ___.
|
dramatic or quiet 876-7
|
|
A change in the fetal heart rate pattern, especially recurrent late decels, may be an early sign of impending....
|
uterine rupture
876-7 |
|
The late FHR decels caused by ____ are not relieved by repositioning, stopping administration of any oxytoxic and administration of oxygen.
|
uterine rupture
876-7 |
|
What is the most ominous pattern of FHR suggesting uterine rupture? (3 things)
|
recurrent late decels, followed by prolonged decels and terminal bradycardia
876-7 |
|
Do uterine contractions stop when there is uterine rupture?
|
not usually 876-7
|
|
In a uterine rupture, bleeding may be ___ or ____.
|
slight or torrential
876-7 |
|
What are abdominal palpation findings if a uterine rupture has occurred?
|
1) presenting part is now moveable
2) loss of station and dramatic repositioning of fetus 3) fetal movements may become violent and then stop 4) fetal parts are more easily palpated 5) a round, firm contracted uterus may be felt beside the fetus (fetus is outside the uterus) 876-7 |
|
In a silent uterine rupture, the woman may ____
|
vomit
876-7 |
|
In a uterine rupture, why might the woman have chest pain?
|
bleeding into the peritoneum may irritate the diaphragm and caused referred pain to the chest
876-7 |
|
What are three confounding possible diagnoses for uterine rupture?
|
pulmonary embolism, amniotic fluid embolism (because of chest pain), abruptio placentae 876-7
|
|
When does tubal pregnancy rupture usually occur?
|
between 8-10 weeks 664
|
|
What possibility should be considered in the differential diagnosis of all early pregnancy vaginal bleeding and pelvic pain?
|
ectopic pregnancy
664 |
|
Is previous ectopic pregnancy a predisposing factor to ectopic pregnancy?
|
yes 666
|
|
Progesterone is produced by the ____ in the first trimester of pregnancy.
|
corpus luteum 666
|
|
Increased metabolic activity is reflected by an increased in which three vital signs?
|
temperature, pulse and respirations 752
|
|
Why does the mother's temperature rise during labor?
|
increased metabolic activity 752
|
|
Hyperventilation is evidenced by what 2 feelings?
|
dizziness and tingling in the extremities 752
|
|
Are liquids affected by the reduced gastric motility during labor?
|
no 753
|
|
Why are oral medications ineffective during labor?
|
gastric motility is at a virtual standstill 753
|
|
What is the pH of amniotic fluid?
|
7.0 to 7.5, alkaline 743-4
|
|
What are the organisms most frequently associated with chorioamnionitis and amnionitis?
|
GBS, E. coli, ureaplasma urealyticum, fusobacterium species and mycoplasma hominis 867-7
|
|
What are the effects of chorioamnionitis on the mother?
|
dysfunctional contractions, labor dystocia and abnormal cervical dilation; potential for being very sick both intrapartally and postpartally 867-7
|
|
What are the effects of chorioamnionitis on the baby?
|
life-threatening intrauterine pneumonia and acidosis, cerebral palsy 867-7
|
|
What are signs and symptoms of chorioamnionitis?
|
maternal fever, maternal tachycardia, fetal tachycardia, tender uterus, vaginal walls unusually warm (hot) to touch, foul-smelling purulent amniotic fluid, elevated white blood cell count 867-7
|
|
Vaginal walls hot to the touch: what is this a sign of?
|
possible amnio/chorioamnionitis 867-7
|
|
What does steamy translucence of the umbilical cord and fetal membranes after birth indicate?
|
chorioamnionitis 867-7
|
|
A baby born with chorioamnionitis may have an Apgar score below 7 or may have high scores and then...
|
crash 10-25 minutes after birth 867-7
|
|
What would foul-smelling amniotic fluid indicate?
|
chorioamnionitis 867-7
|
|
What is a possible cause of a baby born with intrauterine pneumonia?
|
chorioamnionitis 867-7
|
|
What is the length of the biparietal diameter?
|
9.5cm 823
|
|
What is the largest transverse diameter of the fetal head?
|
biparietal diameter 823
|
|
The suboccipitofrontal diameter extends from the...
|
base of the occiput to the forehead
|
|
What is the distance of the suboccipitobregmatic diameter?
|
9.5 cm 823
|
|
How long is the occipitofrontal diameter?
|
11.5 cm 823
|
|
The occipitofrontal diameter extends from the....
|
occiput to the bridge of the nose 823
|
|
Which fetal head diameter presents in the well-flexed aftercoming head in a breech baby as he starts to emerge?
|
the suboccipitomental
|
|
Which is the largest diameter of the fetal head?
|
the occipitomental 823
|
|
How long is the occipitomental diameter?
|
12.5 to 13.5 cm 823
|
|
The occipitomental diameter extends from the...
|
posterior fontanel to the chin 823
|
|
The submentobregmatic diameter of the fetal skull is presenting with which presentation.
|
face 823
|
|
The submentobregmatic diameter is also called the ...
|
trachelo 823
|
|
How long is the trachelo, or submentobregmatic diameter?
|
9.5 cm 823
|
|
What are the 10 cardinal movements of the RSA breech?
|
1) descent throughout
2) engagement of the hips in RSA 3) internal rotation of the buttocks 45 degrees to RST 4) birth of the buttocks by lateral flexion 5) external rotation of the buttocks 45 degrees from RST to RSA and engagement of the shoulders 6) internal rotation of the shoulder 45 degrees back to RST 7) birth of the shoulders by lateral flexion 8) engagement of the head with sagittal suture in transverse or left oblique diameter and occiput in right side of pelvis 9) internal rotation of the head 45 or 90 degrees bringing sagittal suture into the anteroposterior diameter 10) birth of the head by flexion 893-7 |
|
In a breech presentation, both the buttocks and the shoulders engage in the ____ diameter and then rotate to the ___ diameter to be born.
|
enter in oblique diameter and then rotate to anteroposterior diameter 893-7
|
|
In the breech, which hip and shoulder is birthed first, posterior or anterior?
|
posterior 893-7
|
|
In the breech, the head enters the pelvis in one of two diameters. What are they, in reference to the sagittal suture and the diameters of the pelvis?
|
the head enters the pelvis with the sagittal suture in the transverse diameter of the mother's pelvis or in the oblique diameters, with the baby's occiput anterior 893-7
|
|
What is the Pinard maneuver?
|
if the legs and feet are not born spontaneously in the frank breech, the pinard maneuver will cause delivery of the legs and feet by extracting them 894
|
|
With delivery of the breech, it is important to keep the head flexed by using the mariceau-smellie-veit maneuver and by having someone apply...
|
suprapubic pressure 898-9
|
|
What is the Mariceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver?
|
this maneuver maintains the breech head in flexion by placing the index finger in the baby's mouth 898-9
|
|
What is the difference between a nuchal arm and an extended arm in the breech?
|
extended arms go straight up, nuchal arms flex at the elbo so the arm is wedged behind the head and they can not be delivered like you would an extended arm 896-7
|
|
How do you deliver a nuchal arm in a breech?
|
turn the hips in the direction that the hand is facing 90-180 degrees so that the friction of the arm against the vaginal walls forces it to be dislodged from behind the head and then you can deliver the hand by splinting the forearm and bringing it down 896-7
|
|
What is an incomplete uterine inversion?
|
inside of fundus protrudes through the cervical os 915
|
|
What is a complete uterine inversion?
|
inside of fundus descends to immediately within the vaginal introitus 915
|
|
What is a uterine prolapse?
|
the uterine fundus extrudes beyond the vulva 914
|
|
What is the difference between a uterine prolapse and a uterine inversion?
|
in a prolapse, the inside of the fundus protrudes beyond the vulva. in an inversion is protrudes through the cervix or into the vaginal introitus but not outside
915 |
|
What is the major result of uterine inversion?
|
shock 915
|
|
Having the mother attempt to push out a placenta without a contraction can cause...
|
uterine inversion 915
|
|
If a woman goes into shock after giving birth without obvious reason, what should be checked?
|
a vaginal examination should be performed to check for uterine inversion 915
|
|
What five things are graded in the Apgar score?
|
heart rate, color, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability
|
|
What indicates circumoral cyanosis?
|
a blue ring around the mouth
|
|
Jaundice visible after a week to ten days is...
|
pathological 1026-7
|
|
The newborn who has acquired an intrauterine viral infection will present with signs that may include...
|
early jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, palpable lymph nodes and be small for dates 1033
|
|
Bacterial infections in the newborn are commonly caused by which two bacteria?
|
GBS or E. coli 1033
|
|
What is the difference between a uterine prolapse and a uterine inversion?
|
in a prolapse, the inside of the fundus protrudes beyond the vulva. in an inversion is protrudes through the cervix or into the vaginal introitus but not outside
915 |
|
What is the major result of uterine inversion?
|
shock 915
|
|
Having the mother attempt to push out a placenta without a contraction can cause...
|
uterine inversion 915
|
|
If a woman goes into shock after giving birth without obvious reason, what should be checked?
|
a vaginal examination should be performed to check for uterine inversion 915
|
|
What five things are graded in the Apgar score?
|
heart rate, color, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability
|
|
What indicates circumoral cyanosis?
|
a blue ring around the mouth
|
|
Jaundice visible after a week to ten days is...
|
pathological 1026-7
|
|
The newborn who has acquired an intrauterine viral infection will present with signs that may include...
|
early jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, palpable lymph nodes and be small for dates 1033
|
|
Bacterial infections in the newborn are commonly caused by which two bacteria?
|
GBS or E. coli 1033
|
|
When does late onset bacterial infection in the newborn present?
|
7 days to three months 1033
|
|
What are the signs of late onset bacterial infection in the newborn?
|
disinterested suck, lethargy, color changes, occasional apnea, temperature lability 1033
|
|
What is the most important action the midwife can take with late onset newborn bacterial infection?
|
acknowledge that there is a problem 1033
|
|
Newborns with late onset newborn bacterial infection need to be...
|
treated in the hospital 1033
|
|
What are signs of early onset newborn bacterial infection?
|
apnea, tachypnea, labored breathing, respiratory distress, poor color, temperature instability, hypotension 1033
|
|
When does early onset bacterial infection in the newborn present?
|
0-6 days 1033
|
|
What are the primary signs of heart disease in the newborn?
|
cyanosis and/or tachypnea and/or pallor 1034
|
|
What is gastroschisis?
|
the abdominal organs are outside the abdomen and are NOT covered by a sac 1036
|
|
What is oomphalocele?
|
the abdominal organs are outside the abdomen and are covered by a sac 1036
|
|
What are the two common neural tube defects?
|
meningocele and meningomyelocele 1036
|
|
Which newborn test screens for hypothyroidism?
|
the PKU test 979
|
|
What is meningocele?
|
a bony defect of the spinal cord 1036
|
|
What is meningomyelocele?
|
the vertebra is defective and the spinal cord and spinal roots are externally located in a sac 1036
|
|
Signs of excessive salivation, respiratory distress, swallowing problems and abdominal distention are present in the newborn with...
|
tracheo-esophageal fistula or esophageal atresia 1036
|