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59 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The first priority of the
investigator of a mishap is to determine who caused the mishap. 1. True 2. False |
False
|
|
Which of the following
investigations is an independent check based on the guidelines of a mishap investigation? 1. Naval Safety Center investigation 2. JAG manual investigation 3. TYCOM inquiry 4. Each of the above |
Naval Safety Center
investigation |
|
Which of the following times after a mishap is ideal for beginning an investigation?
1. 72 hours 2. 48 hours 3. 24 minutes 4. 12 minutes |
12 minutes
|
|
What evidence should you NOT try to obtain during a mishap investigation?
1. Pieces of equipment or material 2 . Sworn statements from witnesses 3. Color photographs of the scene 4. Photocopies of operating logs |
Sworn statements from witnesses
|
|
The Handbook for the Conduct of Forces Afloat Safety Investigations contains a checklist for common investigations in which of the following Appendixes?
1. I 2. I I 3. I I I 4. IV |
II
|
|
Who is the division safety officer?
1. The division officer 2. The leading petty officer 3. The work center supervisor 4. The leading chief petty officer |
The leading petty officer
|
|
Who is the senior member of the enlisted safety committee?
1. The command master chief 2 . The commanding officer 3. The executive officer 4. The safety officer |
The safety officer
|
|
Required survival training should include which of the following t o p i c s ?
1. Leaving assigned spaces 2. Fundamental first–aid 3. Survival equipment 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
|
|
Within the Navy, who has ultimate responsibility for establishing and maintaining the Information and Personnel Security Program?
1. Secretary of Defense 2. Secretary of the Navy 3. Director of Naval Intelligence 4. Commander Naval Security and Investigative Command |
Secretary of the Navy
|
|
The Navy Information and Personnel Security Program exists for which of the following reasons?
1. To limit dissemination of official government information 2. To allow classified information access to selected members of the armed services 3. To safeguard official government information and materials in the possession of various agencies of the United States 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
|
|
What Navy office serves as the
liaison between the Departments of the Navy and the Secretary of the Defense regarding security matters? 1. Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N) Chief of Naval Operations 2. (OP-062) 3. Director of Naval Administration 4. Chief of Naval Education and Training |
Chief of Naval Operations
(OP-09N) |
|
Standards for the safeguarding
classified material in the Department of the Navy Information and Personnel Security Program Regulation meet which of the following criteria? 1. The minimum acceptable standards 2 . The maximum acceptable standards 3. Recommended standards 4 . Joint-services standards |
The maximum acceptable
standards |
|
Department of the Navy information and personnel security policies, procedures, and directives from higher authority are formulated by which of the following offices?
1. Chief of Naval Operations (OP-009) 2. Director, Naval Data Automation Command 3. Commander, Naval Security and Investigative Commander 4. Chief of Naval Personnel |
Chief of Naval Operations
(OP-009) |
|
Which of the following
organizations provides overall policy guidance on information and personnel security? 1. National Security Agency 2 . National Security Council 3. Naval Investigative Service 4. Defense Investigative Service |
National Security Council
|
|
Which of the following organizations is the Department of the Navy’s sole liaison with the FBI on matters of internal security?
1. National Security Agency 2 . National Security Council 3. Naval Investigative Service 4. Defense Investigative Service |
Naval Investigative Service
|
|
Which of the following persons may be assigned the duty of security manager without being granted a waiver?
1. A line officer, a master chief p e t t y o f f i c e r , and a civilian employee (GS-9) 2 . A l ine o f f i c e r , a ma s t e r chi e f p e t t y o f f i c e r , and a civilian employee (GS-13) 3. A line officer, a medical services corps officer, and a civilian employee (GS-13) 4. A master chief petty officer, a cryptologic officer, and a marine gunnery sergeant |
A line officer, a master chief
p e t t y o f f i c e r , and a civilian employee (GS-9) |
|
Which of the following functions is/are the responsibility of the
security manager? 1. Ensuring that clearance status and access granted by the command are recorded 2. Ensuring security control of classified visits to and from the command 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Performing national agency checks on individuals who require security clearances |
Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
In the organizational chain of
command, the Top Secret control officer is responsible to what official for the control of Top Secret material in the command? 1. The security manager 2. The security officer 3. The executive officer 4. The crypto security officer |
The security manager
|
|
As a minimum, how often must the Top Secret control officer physically inventory the Top Secret materials in the command?
1. Annually 2. Semiannually 3. Quarterly 4. Monthly |
Annually
|
|
In addition to receiving and
distributing Top Secret material, The command TSCO is responsible for which of the following functions? 1. Maintaining all Top Secret material in his/her personal possession at all times 2. Maintaining a system of accountability for all Top Secret material within the command 3. Granting access to classified spaces within the command 4. Granting security clearances within the command |
Maintaining a system of
accountability for all Top Secret material within the command |
|
When may a command assign a Top Secret control assistant?
1. When the Top Secret control officer is absent from the command for more than 2 consecutive weeks 2. When preparation is being made for a change of command inspection 3. Upon receipt of Top Secret materials 4. As the need arises |
As the need arises
|
|
At a command with an automatic data processing (ADP) system, what officer is responsible to the security manager for the protection of classified information in the ADP system?
1. The ADP security officer 2. The administrative officer 3. The assistant security officer 4. The Top Secret control officer |
The ADP security officer
|
|
A command that handles classified information is responsible for instructing which of its members in security policies and procedures?
1. Only enlisted personnel E-6 and below 2 . All personnel regardless of their position, rank, or grade 3. Only military and civilian personnel having access to classified information 4. Only officers, enlisted personnel E-6 and above, and civilian employees GS-9 and above |
All personnel regardless of
their position, rank, or grade |
|
At the Department of the Navy
level, who is responsible for providing policy guidance, educational requirements, and source support for the security education program? 1. The Secretary of the Navy 2. The Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N) 3. The Director, Navy Program Planning 4. The Chief of Naval Education and Training |
The Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N)
|
|
A command security education
program must be designed to accomplish which of the following requirements? 1. To inform personnel of techniques used by foreign activities to obtain classified information 2. To advise personnel of their legal obligation to protect classified information in their possession 3. To familiarize personnel with specific security procedures 4. All of the above |
All of the above
|
|
Personnel granted access to
classified information shall be debriefed when a temporary separation exceeds what minimum amount of time? 1. 30 days 2 . 60 days 3. 90 days 4. 120 days |
60 days
|
|
Which of the following statements define(s) a security violation?
1. The compromise or possible compromise of classified information 2. A violation of security regulations with no compromise occurring 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. A weak command security program |
Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
If a preliminary inquiry determines that classified information has been compromised, who usually convenes a JAG Manual investigation?
1. The command having custody 2 . The office of the Judge Advocate General 3. The command that first discovers the compromise 4. The next senior in the administrative chain of command that initiates the preliminary inquiry |
The command having custody
|
|
When security regulations are
violated without compromise of classified material, who is responsible for taking corrective action? 1. The Naval Investigative Service 2 . The commanding officer 3. The security manager 4. The senior person in the administrative chain of command |
The commanding officer
|
|
When classified information is
improperly handled by the sending a c t i v i t y , which of the following activities should be notified? 1. The commanding officer of the sending activity 2. Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N) 3. The local NIS office 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
|
|
If you are aware of a possible act of sabotage, to whom should you report this fact?
1. Your commanding officer 2. The most readily available command 3. Either 1 or 2 above depending on who is most readily available 4. The command having responsibility for the material or equipment involved |
Your commanding officer
|
|
A report to the Commander, Naval Security and Investigative Command concerning an act of sabotage
should be forwarded using which of the following types of messages? 1. Classified ROUTINE 2. Classified IMMEDIATE 3. Unclassified IMMEDIATE 4. Unclassified ROUTINE |
Classified IMMEDIATE
|
|
A member of the Department of the Navy who has access to classified material commits suicide. To whom should you report the incident?
1. The nearest NIS office 2. The nearest FBI office 3. The Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N) 4. The Director, Naval Investigative Command |
The nearest NIS office
|
|
A civilian employee of the
Department of the Navy with access to classified material is absent from work for several days without explanation. Who is responsible for making the initial inquiry into the employee’s absence? 1. The FBI 2 . The security officer 3. The nearest NIS office 4. The commanding officer of the a c t i v i t y |
The commanding officer of the a c t i v i t y
|
|
Who is authorized to declassify and downgrade all classified information upon which the Department of the Navy exercises final classification authority?
1. The Secretary of the Navy 2. The Chief of Naval Operations 3. The Archivist of the United States 4. The Director, Naval Historical Center |
The Secretary of the Navy
|
|
When, i f e v e r , is foreign
government information declassified by the Department of the Navy? 1. When agreed to by the foreign entity 2 . When approved by the Secretary of the Navy 3. When approved by the Secretary of State of the United States 4. Never |
Never
|
|
Which of the following types of
information is exempt from provisions in effect for a mandatory declassification review? 1. Cryptologic information 2. Presidential papers 3. Restricted data 4. Intelligence |
Presidential papers
|
|
Classified information may be
upgraded if which of the following conditions exists? 1. If the information can be retrieved from known holders not authorized access to the highest level of classification 2 . If all known holders of the information are authorized access to the higher level of c l a s s i f i c a t i o n 3., If all known holders can be promptly notified 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
|
|
How should reproduction equipment authorized for reproducing classified material be marked?
1. With the highest level of classification that may be reproduced 2. With the name of the official(s) designated to approve the reproduction of classified material 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. With the words “For Security Personnel Only” |
With the highest level of
classification that may be reproduced |
|
Areas within a command requiring varying degrees of restriction of access, control of movement, and type of protection required for classified material are known by what collective term?
1. Sanitized areas 2. Sensitive areas 3. Restricted areas 4. Out of bounds areas |
Restricted areas
|
|
Any weakness or deficiency found in security storage equipment should be reported to which of the following authorities?
1. The Naval Investigative Service 2. The Naval Supply Systems Command 3. Chief of Naval Operation (OP-09N) 4. The Defense Contract Administration |
Chief of Naval Operation
(OP-09N) |
|
When, i f e v e r , may money or jewelry be stored in security containers
used to store classified material? 1.During emergency and combat situations 2.When the articles are to be used as evidence in a military court 3.When space is available, with classified material always having priority 4.Never |
Never
|
|
When a security container used to store Top Secret material is not located in a building under U.S. government control, which of the following additional security
precautions must be made? 1. The container must be protected by an alarm system 2. The container must be guarded during nonworking hours by U.S. c i t i z e n s 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. The container must be checked by military guard once each hour during nonworking hours |
Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
The combination of a container used to store classified information
must be changed on which of the following occasions? 1. Every 12 months 2 . When evidence indicates the combination has been compromised 3. When any person having the combination no longer requires access 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
|
|
Records of destruction of Secret material must be retained for what minimum period of time?
1. 24 months 2. 30 months 3. 36 months 4. 48 months |
24 months
|
|
When a strip shredding machine is used to shred classified material, the material should be shredded into strips that are what maximum width?
1. 1/64 inch 2. 1/32 inch 3. 3/64 inch 4. 1/16 inch |
1/32 inch
|
|
Which of the following methods
is/are NOT recommended for office use? 1. Disintegrators 2. Pulverizers 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Shredders |
Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
A wet-process pulper is suitable for destroying which of the following materials?
1.Microform 2.Paper products 3.Typewriter ribbons 4.Each of the above |
Paper products
|
|
An emergency plan for destruction of classified material must be based on which of f a c t o r s ?
1. The potential activities by 2 . The level and the following for aggressive hostile forces sensitivity of classified material held 3. The proximity of hostile forces 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
|
|
When you assign priorities for
emergency destruction of classified material, what priority should you assign to the files containing Confidential technical material? 1. Priority One 2. Priority Two 3. Priority Three 4. Priority Four |
Priority Three
|
|
Commanding officers should
establish procedures for dissemination of classified material originated or received by their commands for which of the following reasons? 1. To identify exceptions to the procedures in security regulations 2. To limit outside dissemination to those activities having a need to know 3. To reflect any restrictions imposed by the originator or higher authority 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
Classified material should be
marked for which of the following reasons? 1. To indicate the degree of protection required 2 . To inform you of the level of c l a s s i f i c a t i o n 3. To assist you in extracting, paraphrasing, downgrading, and declassifying actions 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
|
|
How may the classification be
indicated on classified material other than a document? 1. By placing a tag, sticker. or decal on the material 2. Printed by a government printer 3. Written in blue with a red border 4. Stamped in indelible red or blue ink |
By placing a tag, sticker. or
decal on the material |
|
Where are the interior pages of a classified document marked to indicate the hiqhest overall classification level of the document?
1. Top only 2. Bottom only 3. Center only 4. Top and bottom center |
Top and bottom center
|
|
Where would you find the proper location of the classified markings used to indicate the classification of the title of a document?
1. Immediately preceding the title 2 . Immediately following the title 3. Above the title 4. Below the title |
Immediately following the title
|
|
What should be the first item of information in the text of a
classified message? 1. The precedence of the message 2 . The identity of the classifier 3. The overall classification of the message 4. The overall classification of the first page |
The overall classification of
the message |
|
Personnel security investigations for the department of the Navy are normally conducted or controlled by which of the following organizations?
1. Defense Investigative Service 2. Naval Investigative Service 3. Defense Intelligence Agency 4. National Security Agency |
Defense Investigative Service
|
|
What investigation of civilian
applicants requires a check of federal agency files plus inquiries to former employers, supervisors law enforcement agencies references, and schools? 1. National agency check 2 . Background investigation 3. National agency check and inquiry 4. Special background investigation |
Background investigation
|
|
What type of investigation includes an NAC of the individual’s spouse?
1. National agency check and inquiry 2. Special background investigation 3. Special investigative inquiry 4. Background investigation |
Special background
investigation |