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638 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
1. The process by which bacteria reproduce is known as ------
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Binary Fission
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3. The interval of time between successive binary fissions of a cell or population of cells is known as the ------
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Generation time
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4. Archaea reproduce by a process known as ------
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Binary Fission
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5. How does cytokinesis work in prokaryotes?
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An inward pinching of the cell envelope
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6. When relating generation time of microbes to disease, what is a correct general statement?
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The faster the generation time, the shorter the incubation period
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7.The number of cells in the population increases rapidly occur in the ------ phase of growth
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Log
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8. At what stage in the bacterial growth curve are there no cell divisions occurring because the bacteria are adapting to their new environment?
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Lag phase
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10. At what stage of a bacterial growth curve are the bacteria dividing rapidly and the graph is rising in a straight line?
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Log phase
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11. In humans, at what stage of the bacterial growth curve are disease symptoms developing because the bacteria are causing tissue damage?
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Log phase
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12. At what point in the bacterial growth curve are bacteria the most vulnerable to antibiotics?
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Log phase
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13. At what phase does broth become turbid and visible colonies appear on agar in the bacterial growth curve?
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Log phase
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15. At what phase in the bacterial growth curve in a patient do antibodies from the immune system and phagocytosis by white blood cells affect the progress of the disease?
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Stationary phase
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16. In a culture tube, at what phase of the bacterial growth curve do available nutrients become scarce and waste products begin to accumulate?
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Stationary phase
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17. In a bacterial growth curve, when the number of dying cells exceeds the number of new cells formed, what stage are they in?
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Decline
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18. As a culture of Clostridium enters the decline phase of the growth curve, the vegetative cells will ------
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Produce endospores
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19. Which disease does not involve endospores?
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Syphilis
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20. Endospores are heat stable resting forms of all of the bacteria except ------
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Escherichia coli
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21. Endospores are very difficult to destroy. Because of this, what technique will work to get rid of them?
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Heat them under high pressure for several hours
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22. Under what conditions would you find vegetative growth from Clostridium botulinum endospores?
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A vacuumed sealed can of food
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24. Endospores are found primarily in what kind of organism?
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Gram positive bacillus
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25. Which disease is not caused by endospore forming Clostridia?
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Rabies
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26. What conditions are most likely to affect the growth of bacteria?
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Temperature, Oxygen, & pH
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27. An organism that grows at 5 degrees C is classified as a ------
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Psychrophile
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28. Psychrophiles and thermophiles differ with respect to their ------
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Best temperature for growth
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29. A mesophilic bacterium could not -----
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Live near thermal vents
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30. Most of the human pathogens are ------
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Mesophiles
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31. An example of a mesophile that is most frequently identified cause of infective diarrhea is ------
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Campylobacter
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32. Bacteria that can grow only in the absence of oxygen are said to be ------
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Anaerobic
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33. Facultative bacteria are those that ------
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Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
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34. You have isolated an organism from the human intestinal tract. It grows better when you capped the culture tube with a semiporous plug than when you used a plug that is completely permeable to oxygen. This organism should be classified as a(n) ------
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Microaerophile
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36. Most bacteria grow best at ------
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Neutral pH
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37. ------- are important food producing bacteria because they can be used to produce dairy products like buttermilk, sour cream, and yogurt from milk and cream
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Acidophiles
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38. The stomach protects us from a large number of microbes that might be in our food because ------
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Of its high level of acidity
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39. What are organisms called that require high amounts of salt?
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Halophiles
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40. There are some mesophilic bacteria that are salt tolerant. An example is ------
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Staphylococcus
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41. Some organisms like Neisseria grow well in an atmosphere that is low in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide. This can be created by lighting a candle, putting it in a jar, inserting the culture medium, then closing the lid of the jar. What is the best name for these organisms?
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Capnophiles
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42. The agar in nutrient agar serves as a ------
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Solidifying agent
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43. An important contribution was made to microbiology with the introduction of agar by Robert Koch. What statement about agar is not correct?
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Agar can only be used alone, not combined with any other substances.
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44. Which type of media is an example of a chemically undefined medium, or complex medium?
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Nutrient agar
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45. A selective medium is one that ------
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Allows one type of bacterium to grow while inhibiting another type
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46. A soil sample is added to a culture medium that has been designed to promote the growth of the genus Pseudomonas while inhibiting the growth of fungi. This test uses a(n) ------
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Selective medium
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47. How can you take a mixed unknown sample and separate out pure colonies to identify them?
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1) The pour plate method
2) A Sterile loop 3) An individual colony |
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48. What method of measuring population growth is a direct count?
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Standard plate count using a dilution series
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49. The interval of time between successive binary fissions of a cell is called ------
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Generation time
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50. ------ organisms may require an enriched medium containing special nutrients – they are picky
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Fastidious
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51. A ------ is a population of bacteria consisting of only one species.
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Pure culture
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52. A(n) ------ has an optimal growth temperatue that coincides with human body temperature.
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Mesophile
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53. The ----- period for a microbe is the time from the entry of a pathogen into the body until the first symptoms appear.
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Incubation
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54. Vegetative cells hang out and do nothing – they are not in an active phase.
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False
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55. Prefers environments without oxygen and does not need oxygen to grow, but can tolerate living in an environment with it
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Aerotolerant
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55. Prefers environments without oxygen and does not need oxygen
to grow, but can tolerate living in an environment with it |
Aerotolerant
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55. Prefers environments without oxygen but can grow with or without it
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Facultative aerobe
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55. Prefers environments with oxygen but can grow with or without it
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Facultative anaerobe
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The stomach protects us from large number of microbes that might be in our food because -------
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Of its high level of acidity
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1. The erythrogenic toxin in streptococcal disease is responsible for ------
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Skin Rash
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2. Streptococcus pyogenes cause all of the following disease, except -----
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Pneumococcal pneumonia
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3. What produces an erythrogenic toxin that causes a pink skin rash?
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It is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes and damages the capillaries
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4. Streptococcus pyogenes produces a protein that, anchored in the cell wall and cell membrane, allows the bacterial cells to adhere firmly to the pharyngeal tissue. This protein is called ------
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M protein
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5. What is the disease in which symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and swollen neck glands? Normally, an individual experiences only one case in a lifetime because the immune system produces special antibodies, called antitoxins.
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Scarlet fever
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6. Cases of diptheria are characterized by ------
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Pseudomembrane formation of the respiratory tract
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7. This is normally a disease of infants so we inoculate infants in our country. However, because most of us never get a booster shot, we are seeing more cases of this disease in college students and adults. What is this disesas?
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Whooping cough
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8. The material used in the pertussis vaccine consists of ------
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A cellular chemical extract of Bordetella pertussis.
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9. The exotoxin of Corynebacterium diphteriae -----
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Interrupts protein synthesis in epithelial cells
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10. All of the following are bacterial disease of the lower respiratory tract except ----
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Pertussis (whooping cough)
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11. A child suffering from repeated bouts of a violent, high-pitched cough is brought to her physician’s office. The physician is likely to diagnose the infection as -----
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Bordetella pertussis
|
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12. An important principal criterion for the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis is ------
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Gram negative diplococci in spinal fluid
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13. In some cases of meningococcal meningitis, hemorrhagic lesions form in the adrenal glands, causing hormonal imbalance. This condition is called ------
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Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
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14. All of the following except ------ are causes of meningitis
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Klebsiella pneumoniae
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15. Haemophilus influenzae is currently recognized as an important cause of ------
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Meningitis in young children
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16. Cases of pneumococcal pneumonia commonly ------
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Affect the bronchial tubes and lungs
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18. The tuberculin skin test detects whether a person ------
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Has been exposed to tubercle bacilli
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19. In developing nations, world health officials report more deaths from this disease than any other infectious disease. What is it?
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Tuberculosis
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20. Vaccines are currently available against bacterial diseases except -----
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Chlamydial pneumonia
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21. All of the following are symptoms of lethal pneumonia except ------
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Increase in the elimination of carbon dioxide
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22. Penicillin is useless for the treatment of primary atypical pneumonia because the causative organisms ------
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Have no cell wall
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23. To perform the cold agglutinin screening test, cold red blood cells are combined with ------ from the patient
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A serum sample
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24. All of the following characteristics apply to the agent of primary atypical pneumonia except ------
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It is an extremely large bacterium
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25. A pleomorphic organism with no cell wall that causes a type of pneumonia is -----
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Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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26. What is not a name for the organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia?
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Pneumococcus
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27. Cases of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to bacteria that ------
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Accumulate in standing water
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28. What statement describes Q fever?
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It is a rickettsial disease associated with livestock animals
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29. All of the following are possible methods of transmission for Q fever except ------
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Being bitten by a tick
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30. Cases of psittacosis may be acquired by ------
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Contact with infected parrots or parakeets
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31. Psittacosis is so named because -----
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It affects the psittacine family of birds
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32. Several bacterial diseases have symptoms similar to those of viral rickettisal, and chlamydial diseases. A bacterial disease similar to Q fever, psittacosis, and viral pneumonia is ------
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Pneumococcal pneumonia
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35. ------ are relatively large mucus particles that travel less than one meter
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Respiratory droplets
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36. ------ is a general term that refers to a disease that progresses gradually and often asymptomatically.
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Insidious
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37. ------ refers to pain in the muscles or muscle groups
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Myalgia
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38. A disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans is called a ------
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Zoonotic disease
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1. ------ are illnesses in which bacterial toxins are ingested with food and water
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Intoxications
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2. Intoxications are illnesses in which ------ are ingested with food and water
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Bacterial toxins
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3. ------ are illnesses in which live bacterial pathogens are ingested and grow in the body
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Infections
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4. Infections are illnesses in which ------ are ingested and grow in the body
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Live bacterial pathogens
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6. ------ is the time between consumption of contaminated material and the appearance of symptoms
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Incubation period
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7. ------ such as age or sanitary conditions, can make individuals more or less prone to food and waterborne illnesses.
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Demographics
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8. ------ is the number of organisms consumed to give rise to symptoms.
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Infectious dose
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9. Describe 2 ways in which food and water can become contaminated
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1)Fruits and vegetables can be washed in contaminated water
2) Meat can be infected during improper slaughter procedure |
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10. Name 2 locations in the kitchen where cross-contamination of foods can occur.
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1)Knife
2) Cutting board |
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11. How can contamination of public water sources, like swimming pools occur?
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Defecation of infected individuals
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12. Intoxication usually has a brief incubation period but a long duration
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False
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13. Name 2 of the 3 bacterial species that secrete exotoxins, which can cause life threatening diseases.
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1) Clostridium botulinum
2) Clostridium perfringens |
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14. What is the type of exotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum?
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Neurotoxin
|
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15. ------ causes botulism
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Clostridium botulinum
|
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16. ------ is the most dangerous of all foodborne intoxications
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Botulism
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17. Botulism can be treated successfully with antibiotics
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False
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18. Most outbreaks of ------ are related to home-canned foods or from foods eaten cold
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Clostridium botulinum
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19. Infant botulism, also known as ----, frequently occurs when an infant is fed ------
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Floppy baby syndrome, honey
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20. Some cases of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome have been linked to ------
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Infant botulism
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21. Name 2 conditions that botulinum toxin can treat.
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1) Facial wrinkles
2) Hyperhidrosis |
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22. A(n) ------ is a general term for a toxin that takes effect in the intestines.
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Enterotoxin
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23. ------ food poisoning often occurs when protein rich foods are consumed, and with ham in particular because the bacteria are salt tolerant.
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Staphylococcal
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24. ------ is the second most reported of all types of foodbornes illnesses.
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Staphylococcus aureus
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25. The key reservoir of Staphylococcus aureus is the ------
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Human nose
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26. The most common mode of transmission of Staphyloccus aureus is via ------
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Boils or abscesses on a food handler’s skin
|
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27, Heating Staphylococcus aureus toxins at 100C for 30 mins will not denature them
|
True
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28. A guy walks into an emergency room at midnight complaining of food poisoning. He says that he ate a weird tasting sandwich for lunch that day. What is he likely infected with?
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
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29. ------ is caused by Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi
|
Typoid fever
|
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30. Name 2 things that transmit Salmonella typhi
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1) Fingers
2) Flies |
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31. Infections have shorted incubation periods than intoxications because the bacteria need to establish themselves.
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False
|
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32. A patient is diagnosed with Salmonella typhi and begins showing rose spots on the abdomen. What are the rose spots indicative of?
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Blood hemorrhage
|
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33. Gastroenteritis caused by salmonellosis requires a large infectious dose.
|
True
|
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34. Why do cases of salmonellosis peak at Easter time?
|
People give chicks as gifts and they may carry salmonella
|
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35. Shigellosis, also known as ------, occurs where sanitary conditions are lacking
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Bacterial dysentery
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36. In the US, shigellosis is primarily caused by ------
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Shigella sonnei
|
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37. People who have shigellosis can recover and become carriers for six months or more
|
False
|
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38. Cholera is caused by -----
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Vibrio cholerae
|
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39. Vibrio cholerae is susceptible to stomach acid, but high numbers of them can survive and colonize the intestines.
|
True
|
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40. How do you contract cholera?
|
Contaminated water
|
|
41. ------ causes unrelenting loss of fluid and eletrolytes through diarrhea
|
Cholera toxin
|
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42. If cholera is left untreated, fluid loss thickens the blood, leading to ------
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Shock and coma
|
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43. Antibiotics and restoration of water and electrolyte balance are effective in treating cholera
|
True
|
|
44. ------ are the effects of an infection or disease experience by a patient
|
Symptoms
|
|
45. ------ refers to the lack of adequate immune response resulting from disease, exposure to radiation, or treatment with immunsuppressive drugs
|
Immunocompromised
|
|
46. ------ is the study of the causes or origins of disease
|
Etiology
|
|
48. ------ are illnesses in which bacterial toxins are ingested in food or water
|
Intoxications
|
|
50. Of all food-borne intoxications in humans, none is more dangerous than ------
|
Botulism
|
|
51. A ------ is a substance that damages, destroys, or impairs the functioning of nervous tissue.
|
Neurotoxin
|
|
52. A ------ is a collection of symptoms.
|
Syndrome
|
|
53. A ------ is the natural host or habitat of a pathogen
|
Reservoir
|
|
54. ------ are closely related groups of microorganism or structures distinguished by a specific set of antigens, much like subspecies of animals
|
Serotypes
|
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55. ------ is a syndrome manifested by waves of intense abdominal cramps and frequent passage of small volume, blood mucoid stools
|
Dysentery
|
|
56. ------ is a condition in which there is yellowing of the whites of the eyes, skin, and mucous membranes caused by bile pigment in the blood
|
Jaundice
|
|
58. Ms. Mallon, infamously known as ------ knowingly exposed numerous families and hospital patients with Salmonella enterica Typhi when she served as a cook and refused treatment for her infection.
|
Typoid Mary
|
|
59. ------ is normally found in the human intestine, but certain serotypes are pathogenic
|
Escherichia coli
|
|
60. Last week your friend returned from a tropical vacation out of the country and is now complaining of diarrhea. You suggest that he get checked for ------ E. coli.
|
Enterotoxigenic
|
|
61. ------ E. coli causes diarrhea in infants, particularly where sanitation is lacking.
|
Enterophatogenic
|
|
62. You are visiting a friend and they prepare you a delicious meal of unpasteurized milk, juice, sprouts, lettuce, and salami. A few days later you realize you may be infected with E.coli because you are suffering from hemorrhagic ------
|
Colitis
|
|
63. ------ causes gastric ulcers
|
Helicobacter pylori
|
|
64. Half of the world’s population is infected with H.pylori
|
True
|
|
65. A non-invasive ----- is used to detect the presence of H.pylori
|
Urea Breath Test
|
|
66. ------ is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in the US
|
Campylobacter jejuni
|
|
67. Guillain Barre syndrome is a rare ------ disease that may develop from a campylobacter infection
|
Nervous system
|
|
68. Listeriosis is not transmissible from person to person
|
True
|
|
69. A contaminated sandwick made of cold cuts and soft cheeses may cause you to get ------
|
Listeriosis
|
|
70. Listeriosis is caused by ------
|
Listeria monocytogenes
|
|
71. ------- is a blood disease involving high numbers of infected monocytes
|
Septicemia
|
|
72. ------- species can cause flu like symptoms in people who work with large ruminant animals
|
Brucella
|
|
73. Brucellosis is also called ------ because of a specific fever pattern
|
Undulat fever
|
|
74. ------ is transmitted by oysters and clams and can caused a deadly systemic infection with necrotic skin lesions and cellulitis
|
Vibrio vulnificus
|
|
75. ------ is a diffuse inflammation of the connective tissues of the skin
|
Cellulitis
|
|
76. Bacillus cereus can cause diarrhea or vomiting, and infections usually occur form eating contaminated cooked ------
|
Grains
|
|
77. In 1990, there was an outbreak of ------ enterocolitica in Georgia linked to raw chitterlings (pork intestines)
|
Yersinia
|
|
1. ------ are animals having jointed appendages and segmented bodies like ticks, lice, fleas, mosquitos that transmit disease.
|
Arthropods
|
|
2. Bacteria in soil have to withstand environmental extremes so they often form ----
|
Endospores
|
|
3. ------ causes anthrax
|
Bacillus anthracis
|
|
4. Anthrax is primarily endemic to large, domestic herbivores like cattle, sheep, and goats
|
True
|
|
5. Animals ingest anthrax endospores during grazing and once inside the animal, the spores become active ------- cells
|
Vegetative
|
|
6. ------ anthrax occurs in people who work with animal hides and wool
|
Inhalation
|
|
7. ------ anthrax occurs through the consumption of contaminated, undercooked meat and has up to 60% mortality rate
|
Intestinal
|
|
8. ----- anthrax accounts for 95% of all anthrax infections occurs through the contact of skin abrasions with spore contaminated animal products.
|
Cutaneous
|
|
9. Tetanus is caused by ------
|
Clostridium tetani
|
|
10. Tetanospasmin inhibits compounds needed to inhibit ------
|
Muscle contraction
|
|
11. Tetanus is one of the least dangerous human diseases
|
False
|
|
12. Trismus =
Risus sardonicus = Opisthotonus = |
Lockjaw
Fixed smile Muscle spasms causing arching of the back |
|
13. Endospores from Clostridium perfringens enter the body from contaminated dirt through a severe open wound and cause ------
|
Gas gangrene
|
|
14. In the condition gas gangrene, large amounts of gas accumulate under the -----, causing a crackling sound
|
Skin
|
|
15. Leptospira interrognas colonize the ----- of infected animals
|
Kidney
|
|
16. Leptospira interrogans is a bacillus.
|
False
|
|
17. Patients with tetanus can experience violent deaths due to ------ and seizures in the diaphragm and rib cage
|
Spasmodic Inhalation
|
|
18. Gas gangrene, also known as -----, causes massive tissue damage when blood flow ceases to a part of the body.
|
Myonecrosis
|
|
19. Name 2 treatments for gas gangrene
|
1) Amputation
2) Antibiotics |
|
20. The first phase of leptospirosis involves flu like symptoms and -------
|
Conjunctivitis
|
|
21. The mortality rate for leptospirosis is high
|
False
|
|
22. In leptospirosis, ------ form when bacteria localize in the lymph nodes and hemorrhaging occurs.
|
Buboes
|
|
23. Name one disease that can result when Yersinia pestis bacilli spread to the bloodstream from the lymph nodes
|
Septicemic plague
|
|
24. Septicemic cases of plague can progress to the lungs and cause ------ plague
|
Pneumonic
|
|
25. When plague is detected early, antibiotics can be used to effectively treat it
|
True
|
|
26. ------ tularensis, an extremely virulent bacillus, causes tularemia
|
Francisella
|
|
27. Ever since you got a great job taking care of rabbits, you have been showing signs of respiratory illness, swollen lymph nodes, and pain under the breastbone. You believe you must be suffering from ------ tularemia
|
Inhalation
|
|
28. ------ is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.
|
Lyme Disease
|
|
30. The early localized stage of Lyme disease involves a slowly expanding red rash that resembles a bull’s eye, also known as erythema ------
|
Migrans
|
|
31. The early disseminated stage of Lyme disease begins days after a tick bite.
|
False
|
|
32. If left untreated, the late stage of Lyme disease occurs months to years later and involves chronic ------
|
Arthritis
|
|
33. There is a Lyme disease vaccine available for dogs and cats.
|
False
|
|
34. ------, carried by ticks and lice, causes infected individuals to go through periods of fever and chills interspersed with recovery.
|
Relapsing fever
|
|
35. Endemic relapsing fever is transmitted by Ornithodoros ticks that cohabitate with -------
|
Rodents
|
|
36. Epidemic relapsing fever is caused by ------ recurrentis
|
Borrelia
|
|
37. Epidemic relapsing fever is an infection that occurs when a ------ is crushed into its bite wound
|
Body louse
|
|
38. Rickettsial infections are transmitted by ------
|
Arthtropods
|
|
39. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by ------
|
Rickettsia rickettsii
|
|
40. A Rocky Mountain spotted fever infection is characterized by a skin rash that reflects damage to small blood vessels, and it can progress to a ------ rash
|
Maculopapular
|
|
41. Epidemic typhus is a deadly disease transmitted by the feces of ------ that flourish when sanitation and hygiene is poor
|
Body lice
|
|
42. In epidemic typhus, symptoms can include delirium.
|
True
|
|
43. Name one specific disease caused by Rickettsia typhi.
|
Mexican Typhus
|
|
44. Rickettsia typhi is carried by oriental rat fleas that feed on ----- and deposit the organism into the wound.
|
Human skin
|
|
46. Ticks, lice, fleas, and mosquitoes are ----- animals that have jointed appendages and segmented bodies and transmit disease among animals and humans
|
Arthropods
|
|
47. A ------ is a raised itchy bump that resembles an insect bite
|
Papule
|
|
48. A pustule is a ------ containing pus
|
Papule
|
|
49. When a wound is ------, it refers to the removal of dead, damaged, or infected tissue
|
Debrided
|
|
50. ------ is an inflammation of the conjunctiva of the eye.
|
Conjunctivitis
|
|
51. ------ refers to the growth of bacterial cells in the blood
|
Septicemia
|
|
52. A ------ lesion is a rash in which pink spots fuse together into a broad base that slopes from a raised center
|
Maculopapular
|
|
53. You are working for the Peace Corp in the scrublands of Asia and the SW Pacific, but you suddenly come down with fever and a rash. You think you may be suffering from a disease called ------
|
Scrub typhus
|
|
54. Brill-Zinsser disease appears to be a relapse of ------ typhus.
|
Epidemic
|
|
55. ----- is also known as tsutsugamushi fever
|
Scrub typhus
|
|
56. During WWI, about 1 million soldiers were infected by body lice with the disease ------ fever.
|
Trench
|
|
57. Symptoms of Ehrlichial infections which cause lower WBC counts are similar to Lyme disease except that -----
|
They come and go more quickly
|
|
58. Human ------ ehrlichiosis is caused by Ehrlichia chaffeensis
|
Monocytic
|
|
59. Human monocytic ehrlichiosis is transmitted by the ------ tick
|
Lone Star
|
|
60. Human ------ehrlichiosis is caused by Ehrlichia phagocytophila
|
Granulocytic
|
|
62. Human granulocytic ehrlichiosis is transmitted by which kinds of 2 ticks?
|
1) Dog ticks
2) Deer ticks |
|
29. How do ticks transmit Lyme Disease?
|
By defecating into the bite wound
|
|
1. Syphilis is caused by ------ palladium
|
Treponema
|
|
2. ------- are the only host for syphilis
|
Humans
|
|
3. Primary syphilis is characterized by a ------ where the bacteria entered the body
|
Chancre
|
|
4. Relapses of secondary syphilis can occur during a ------ stage
|
Chronic latent
|
|
5. In tertiary syphilis, name one things gummas can cause.
|
Insanity
|
|
6. Congenital syphilis can lead to birth defects like the condition ------ which includes deafness, impaired vision and notched peg shaped teeth
|
Hutchinson's triad
|
|
7. Gonorrhea is commonly known as -------
|
The Clap
|
|
8. Gonorrhea is caused by ------ gonorrhoeae
|
Neisseria
|
|
9. Name 2 parts of the body, aside from the reproductive organs, that Gonorrhea can affect
|
1) Eyes
2) Rectum |
|
10. Infants can contact gonococcal ------ while passing through the birth canal
|
Ophthalmia
|
|
11. Name one condition that Gonorrhea can cause in females if it spreads to the fallopian tubes
|
Ectopic pregnancy
|
|
12. PID stands for ------
|
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
|
|
13. The singular for bacteria is ------
|
Bacterium
|
|
14. Is bacteria singular or plural?
|
Plural
|
|
15. Some females who have Gonorrhea are asymptomatic
|
True
|
|
16. Gonorrhea is a serious condition in males but it cannot cause infertility
|
False
|
|
17. The common name for Chlamydial urethritis is ------
|
Chlamydia
|
|
18. Chlamydia is caused by Chlamydial ------
|
trachomatis
|
|
19. The organism that causes Chlamydia is a(n) ------ parasite
|
Obligate energy
|
|
20. Why is the nickname for Chlamydia the Silent Disease?
|
85-90% of infected individual are asymptomatic
|
|
21. The ------ body is the infectious phase of Chlamydia
|
Elementary
|
|
22. The ------ body is the noninfectious phase of Chlamydia
|
Reticulate
|
|
23. Newborns can contract chlamydial ophthalmia or chlamydial ------ during delivery
|
Pneumonia
|
|
24. Chancroid is caused by Haemophilus -------
|
Ducreyi
|
|
25. Chancroid causes ------
|
Genital ulcers
|
|
26. Ureaplasmal ------ causes symptoms that are similar to those of gonorrhea and Chlamydia but are often milder
|
Urethritis
|
|
27. The microbe Ureaplasma urealyticum can colonize the ------ during pregnancy, causing miscarriage or premature birth
|
Placenta
|
|
28. LGV stands for Lymphogranuloma ------
|
Verenium
|
|
29. ------inguinale is caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
|
Granuloma
|
|
30. Tissue samples from lesions produced by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis reveal masses of bacterial cells called ------ bodies within WBC
|
Donovan
|
|
31. ------ is a general term of various mild infections of the vagina or vulva
|
Vaginitis
|
|
33. ------ vaginosis is the most common form of vaginitis
|
Bacterial
|
|
34. Mycoplasmal urethritis is caused by Mycoplasma ------
|
Hominis
|
|
35. Hansen disease is also known commonly as ------
|
Leprosy
|
|
36. Leprosy is caused by a(n) ------ parasite
|
Obligate intracellular
|
|
37. Leprosy is caused by ------ leprae
|
Mycobacterium
|
|
38. About 45% of the world’s population is immune to leprosy
|
False
|
|
39. Leprosy is spread from person to person through ------
|
Nasal secretions
|
|
32. ------- vaginalis causes bacterial vaginosis
|
Gardnerella
|
|
40. Name one physical result of having leprosy
|
Loss of facial features
|
|
41. The immune system does not react against an infection with the organism that causes Leprosy
|
True
|
|
42. ------- is an infection at the base of a hair follicle
|
Folliculitis
|
|
45. ------ is a skin infection that is common in children and involves oozing blisters in the epidermis
|
Impetigo
|
|
47. If your hands are red, wrinkled, and tender, and the skin is peeling, you are likely suffering from ------ syndrome
|
Scalded skin
|
|
48. If you are a woman and you think you may have forgotten to remove a very important female hygiene item from your nether regions, you risk developing ------ syndrome
|
Toxic shock
|
|
50. A(n) ------ occurs when a fertilized egg develops outside the womb, often in fallopian tube
|
Ectopic pregnancy
|
|
49. Chlamydia trachomatis can be transmitted by flies
|
True
|
|
51. ------ is an inflammation and swelling of the cornea
|
Keratitis
|
|
52. A(n) ------ is a narrow zone of redness that surrounds a papule in a chancroid infection
|
Erythema
|
|
53. ------ is an inflammation of the membrane lining the abdomen
|
Peritonitis
|
|
54. Among health agencies, WHO stands for ------
|
World Health Organization
|
|
55. Among health agencies, CDC stands for ------
|
Centers for Disease Control
|
|
56. ------ are microbes that are resistant to a wide variety of antibiotics
|
Superbugs
|
|
57. A(n) ------ is a circumscribed pus-filled lesion
|
Abscess
|
|
58. A(n) ------ is a boil, a warm painful abscess below the skin surface
|
Furnuncle
|
|
59. An) ------ is a group of connected deep abscesses.
|
Carbuncle
|
|
46. ------ is a disease of the eyes and is the world’s leading cause of preventable blindness
|
Trachoma
|
|
60.What is the difference between a furuncle and carbuncle?
|
A furuncle is an abscess and a carbuncle is a group of connected deep abscesses
|
|
61. ------ is the term for a disease characterized by sudden fever and circulatory collapse, and was not well known until 1980 when outbreaks occurred in women who used a particular brand of highly absorbent tampons
|
Toxic shock syndrome
|
|
62. About 30% of ------ that live along the Gulf Coast of the US are carriers of leprosy
|
Armadillos
|
|
63. If you have an infection of Chlamydia trachomatis, your upper eyelid can turn in, causing abrasions on your ------ with your eyelashes
|
Cornea
|
|
64. ------ is often caused by Haemophilus aegyptus
|
Bacterial conjunctivitis
|
|
65. ------ is the world’s leading cause of preventable blindness
|
Trachoma
|
|
66. Haemophilus aegyptius causes a condition commonly known as ------
|
Pink eye
|
|
67. Pink eye can be transmitted via air droplets
|
True
|
|
68. The common name for yaws is -------
|
Frambesia
|
|
69. Yaws is caused by Treponema ------
|
Pertenue
|
|
70. Proliferation of pathogenic ------ bacteria is usually suppressed by natural host resistance
|
Endogenous
|
|
71. Over use of ------ can eliminate intestinal bacterial species that keep pathogens in check.
|
Antibiotics
|
|
72. You have sustained an intestinal injury and are now suffering from abdominal abscesses. You may be infected with Bacteroids ------
|
Fragilis
|
|
73. Infection by Clostridium difficile causes pseudomembranous ------
|
Colitis
|
|
75. Nocardia asteroids causes ------ when inhaled
|
Pneumonia
|
|
76. Actinomyces israelli infects tissues following -------
|
Trauma
|
|
77. Pasteurella multocida is common in the pharynx of ------ and can be transmitted to humans via a bite
|
Dogs and cats
|
|
78. Cat-scratch disease is associated with the microbe ------ henselae
|
Bartonella
|
|
79. Your cat licked your arm yesterday where you have a small open wound. You fear you may develop ------ disease.
|
Cat-scratch
|
|
80. You are working on a super cool research project in the US studying rats when one of your subjects playfully bites you. You may end up developing a condtion called ------
|
Rat-bite fever
|
|
81. Your colleague is working on a super cool research project in Asia studying rats when their subjects playfully bites them. They may become infected with ----- minus
|
Spirillum
|
|
82. At least 600 species of bacteria inhabit the human mouth
|
True
|
|
83. Oral biofilms contain salivary ------, food debirs, and bacterial cells and products
|
Proteins
|
|
84. Most oral bacteria in biofilms are aerobic
|
False
|
|
85. Dental caries is commonly known as ------
|
Tooth decay
|
|
86. Name 2 things that cause dental caries.
|
1) Dietary carbohydrates
2) Acidogenic bacteria |
|
87. A major cause of dental caries is ------- mutans
|
Streptococcus
|
|
88. Fusospirochetal disease is commonly known as ------ disease
|
Periodontal
|
|
89. Name one result of infection with Fusospirochetal disease
|
Loosened or lost teeth
|
|
90. Urinary tract infections can occur in the urethra, bladder, and/or kidneys
|
True
|
|
91. UTI stands for ------
|
Urinary tract infection
|
|
92. Back pain is a symptom of UTI
|
True
|
|
93. Pyelonephritis is an infection of the ------
|
Kidneys
|
|
95. Cyclists and other athletes who wear tight fitting clothing are more likely to develop ------
|
Urinary tract infections
|
|
96. A nosocomial infection is one that is contracted at ------
|
Healthcare facility
|
|
97. Why are nosocomial infections common?
|
Many patients are already immune compromised when they enter the healthcare facility, making them more susceptible
|
|
98. Most nosocomial diseases are caused by opportunistic organisms that patients already have
|
True
|
|
99. ------ between patient exams is critical in preventing nosocomial infections
|
Washing your hands
|
|
1. Who was the one early natural philosopher who coined the name cella for the empty cork spaces that became the word we use today, cells?
|
Robert Hooke
|
|
2. Leeuwenhoek was the first person to -----
|
Describe bacteria
|
|
3. Francisco Redi is famous for discovering one of the first experiments over the debate regarding spontaneous generation. What was his experiment?
|
He covered some jars of meat with gauze and left other open.
|
|
4. What is an idea of spontaneous generation?
|
Sick people give rise to microorganism in their body
|
|
5. Semmelweiss showed that the transmission of disease could be interrupted by ---
|
Washing hands in chlorine water
|
|
6. In 1854, John Snow determined that contaminated water transmits ----.
|
Cholera
|
|
7. John Snow traced the source of an 1854 outbreak of cholera to ----------
|
Contaminated municipal water supply
|
|
8. Pasteur’s studies of fermentation was critical to the development of microbiology because -----
|
It showed that microorganisms bring about chemical changes.
|
|
9. Pasteur’s studies proved that grape juice was a fermentation product of -----.
|
Yeasts
|
|
10. Pasteur first suggested that bacteria could cause disease in humans by showing that bacteria could -----
|
Sour wine
|
|
11. Pasteur’s observations that protozoa were related to the silkworm disease strengthened his belief in the ------
|
Germ theory of disease
|
|
12. What did Lister use to clean wounds and surgical instruments?
|
Carbolic acid
|
|
13. Koch’s postulates provided guidelines for -----
|
Relating certain microorganisms with certain diseases.
|
|
14. Koch was responsible for thorough observations on the organisms of ---------
|
Tuberculosis and anthrax
|
|
16. The accomplishments of Koch include the development of the rabies vaccine.
|
False
|
|
17. Chickenpox is an emerging disease.
|
False
|
|
18. Bacteria are prokaryotes.
|
True
|
|
19. The antibiotic penicillin is produced by ----
|
A fungus
|
|
20. What makes this the third golden age of microbiology?
|
The use of biotechnology to manipulate microbes for our benefit
|
|
21. The ------ golden age was a discovery of which microbes cause which diseases
The ------ golden age was finding antimicrobials to control those infections. The ------ golden age was finding organisms that weren’t known before and finding that more than one disease can be caused by one organism |
First
Second Third |
|
23. What is an example of bioterrorism?
|
The intentional use of biological agents to create fear or inflict disease or death on a large population
|
|
24. Biofilms represent complex communities of microorganisms.
|
True
|
|
25. Curing infectious diseases is a role of bioremediation.
|
False
|
|
26. A ----- is any microorganism capable of causing disease
|
Germ
|
|
27. A(n) ------- vaccine is one that contains a pathogen that is reduced or weakened in its virulence.
|
Attenuated
|
|
28. ----- is the use of microorganisms to remove or decontaminate toxic materials in the environment.
|
Bioremediation
|
|
29. Semmelweiis found that women were dying during childbirth because medical students would go from working with ------- straight into the delivery room
|
Cadavers
|
|
30. The Third Golden Age of Microbiology is happening right now.
|
True
|
|
22. Pasteur was able to prepare a vaccine for rabies even though ------
|
He couldn't see them
|
|
15. The accomplishments of Koch include all of the following except for ------
|
Development of a rabies vaccine
|
|
1. Living things have a simple organization
|
False
|
|
2. One important ability that all cells must have to survive in maintaining a relatively stable internal environment.
|
Homeostasis
|
|
3. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ primarily with regard to the absence or presence of a ---------
|
Nucleus
|
|
4. What are characteristics of prokaryotes?
|
1) They have ribosomes
2) Lack a nucleus 3) Have genes |
|
5. Prokaryotes reproduce by mitosis only.
|
True
|
|
6. What is not a function of the Golgi apparatus?
|
Synthesis of proteins
|
|
7. Prokaryotes go through the same kinds of energy reactions as eukaryotes, but without the double membrane organelles. Instead, they use ----------
|
The cytosol and cell membranes
|
|
8. How do bacterial cells control water balance?
|
Water moves in and out by osmosis
|
|
9. The binomial system of nomenclature for microorganisms uses the ---------
|
Genus and species epithet
|
|
11. In the scientific name Bacillus anthracis, the term Bacillus is the ----
|
Genus name
|
|
12. In the bacterial name Vibrio cholerae, the word cholerae represents the -------
|
Species epithet
|
|
13. Carolus Linnaeus was important to biology because of his work with classification of organisms in --------
|
Systema Naturae and binomial nomenclature
|
|
14. Starting with Linnaeus, a hierarchical system was established for cataloging different things, What did this mean at that time?
|
Grouping species by shared and common characteristics
|
|
15. What is the correct listing of a hierarchical system from large to small for bacteria.
|
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
|
|
16. In 1866, Ernst Haeckel, devised a three kingdom system to classify organisms. What was the third kingdom and what did it include?
|
Protists: included bacteria, protozoa, algae and fungi
|
|
17. In the five kingdom system of classification, which one is not one of the kingdom?
|
Virus
|
|
18. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic (or Determinative) Bacteriology may be used to --
|
Classify an unknown organism
|
|
19. Carl Woese proposed a new classification system of three domains. What are they?
|
1) Archaea
2) Bacteria 3) Eukarya |
|
20. What organisms are included in Bergey’s Manual of Systemic Bacteriology
|
Bacteria
|
|
21. What tests are used to help identify bacteria today?
|
1) Physical characterisitics
2) Biochemical tests 3) Serological tests |
|
22. The smallest unit of size is ---------
|
Nanometer
|
|
23. Viruses to bacteria to protozoa exhibit a sequence of increasing size.
|
True
|
|
24. Yeasts are smaller than traditional bacteria
|
False
|
|
24. Yeasts are smaller than traditional bacteria
|
False
|
|
25. What group is not resolved with a light microscope?
|
Viruses
|
|
26. An ocular lens with a magnification of 10x and an objective lens of 40x has a total magnification of ----
|
400x
|
|
27. At the conclusion of the negative stain technique, one can observe ---------
|
Clear bacteria on a dark background
|
|
28. What stain is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis, with its thick waxy walls?
|
Acid Fast stain
|
|
29. Dark-field microscopy is valuable for observing ----------
|
Live microorganisms
|
|
30. What bacterial organisms is capable of photosynthesis
|
Cyanobacteria
|
|
31. Bacteria and archaea are both classified as ----------, major group of organisms that have no nucleus or membrane bound organelles in the cytoplasm
|
Prokaryotes
|
|
32. Humans are in the kingdom -------
|
Animalia
|
|
33. --------- & --------- transport are the 2 functions of the endoplasmic reticulum
|
1) Lipid
2) Protein |
|
34. Proteins are made by -----
|
Ribosomes
|
|
35. ------- are chemical substances that are poisonous.
|
Toxins
|
|
36. ------- is the process by which a substance moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
|
Diffusion
|
|
1. What is not true about the Archaea?
|
They are not common in human pathogens
|
|
3. What characteristic is similar for both Archaea and Eukarya?
|
Presence of DNA
|
|
4 Bacteria does not participate in sexual reproduction.
|
True
|
|
5. This group of bacteria are gram negative and includes most human pathogens.
|
Proteobacteria
|
|
6. In the endosymbiotic theory, it is likely that the mitochondria of the Eukarya came from an ancestor of this clade. What is it?
|
Protebacteria
|
|
7. Rickettsiae are generally transmitted ------
|
Arthropods
|
|
8. This is a group of photosynthesizing prokaryotes called cyanobacteria. What domain do they belong to?
|
Bacteria
|
|
9. Thermophiles need --------- to grow.
|
High temperatures
|
|
10. An organism that grows at 75 degrees C is classified as a -----
|
Hyperthermophile
|
|
11. An acidophile would grow best at a pH of ------
|
2
|
|
12. Extreme halophiles live in environments that have high levels of -------
|
Salt
|
|
13. The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus appears microscopically as -----
|
Grape like clusters of spheres
|
|
14. What is not a variation of cocci arrangement?
|
Spirillum
|
|
15. A bacterial arrangement called a sarcina has which of the following morphological shapes?
|
Spheres in packets of eight
|
|
16. Spherical organisms arranged in irregular groups of cells that resemble bunches of grapes are referred to as ------
|
Staphylococci
|
|
17. An example of a bacillus or rod shaped bacterium is -----
|
Salmonella typhi
|
|
18. An example of a coccus in pairs is a -----
|
Diplococcus
|
|
19. An example of spiral bacteria that can be curved, helical or spiral shaped is -----
|
Vibrio cholerae
|
|
20. An organism having fimbriae has the advantage over one that lacks fimbriae because it can ------
|
Attach to specific surfaces
|
|
21. Fimbriae protrude from the surface of most ------
|
Gram negative bacteria
|
|
22. All apply to pili except -------
|
They are found primarily in gram positive bacteria
|
|
23. What structure is used by some bacteria to exchange genetic information through conjugation?
|
Pili
|
|
24. What are characteristics of the bacterial flagellum?
|
1) It is composed of flagellin
2) It has a hook-like insertion to a basal body in the cell wall 3) Counterclockwise rotation moves bacteria forward |
|
25. What does not apply to the bacterial glycocalyx?
|
It is enclosed by the cell wall
|
|
26. A thin, loosely bound glycocalyx is referred to as a -----
|
Slime layer
|
|
27. Cell wall and cell membrane comprise part of the -----
|
Cell envelope
|
|
28. The cell wall contains a rigid macromolecule that is known as ------
|
Peptidoglycan
|
|
29. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is found in the ------
|
Gram negative outer membrane
|
|
30. Endotoxins are located in the ------
|
Outer layer of the LPS
|
|
31. Lysozyme and penicillin are similar in that both ------
|
Act on the bacterial cell wall
|
|
32. All of functions of the bacterial cell membrane except -------
|
Lends rigidity to the cell wall
|
|
33. Penicillin is an antibiotic that prevents ------
|
Cell walls from being formed
|
|
34. The peptidoglycan of a bacterium ------
|
Are affected by penicillin if it is present
|
|
35. The fluid mosaic model best describes -------
|
The structure of the cell membrane
|
|
36. What are components of the bacterial cytoplasm?
|
1) Chromosome
2) Plasmid 3) Ribosome |
|
37. Small molecules of DNA that exist in bacteria as independent circular units are known as ------
|
Plasmids
|
|
38. Bacterial ribosomes are smaller than eukaryotic ribosomes, but they have the same function of ------
|
Assembling protein
|
|
39. Some aquatic and marine prokaryotes have an ability to float on the surface due to ------
|
Gas vesicles that make them lighter
|
|
40. A(n) ------ is a pathogen produced molecule or structure that allows the pathogen to invade or evade the immune system of the host and possibly cause disease.
|
Virulence Factor
|
|
41. ------ are protein structures on the surface of bacteria that used for attachment to surfaces
|
Pili
|
|
42. A(n) ------ is a poison released by bacteria that can activate the inflammatory response of the host, leading to high fever, shock, and organ failure.
|
Endotoxin
|
|
43. ------ are small molecules of nonessential DNA that may contain antibiotic resistance genes.
|
Plasmids
|
|
1. Viruses are nonliving agents composed of 1. ----- and 2. ------
|
1) Nucleic Acid
2) Protein |
|
2. Viruses are small ------ parasites.
|
Obligate intracellular
|
|
3. Viruses lack the machinery for generating ------
|
Energy
|
|
4. Viruses often cause disease by ------
|
Taking over a host cell's machinery for their own use
|
|
5. The viral genome contains either DNA, but no RNA.
|
False
|
|
6. The ----- is the protein coat of a virus.
|
Capsid
|
|
7. The capsid of a virus is made up of ----- and gives the virus its shape.
|
Capsomeres
|
|
8. The capsid of a virus with its enclosed genome is called a ------
|
Nucleocapsid
|
|
9. What role do protein spikes play for a virus?
|
They help the virus attach to and penetrate the host cell
|
|
10. ------ viruses are composed only of a nucleocapsid.
|
Naked
|
|
11. A(n) ------ is a completely assembled, infectious virus outside its host cell.
|
Virion
|
|
12. A ----- refers to which organisms a virus can infect.
|
Host range
|
|
13. The host range for a virus depends on its ------ structure.
|
Capsid
|
|
14. ------ is the term used to describe the fact that many viruses infect certain cell or tissue types within the host.
|
Tissue tropism
|
|
15. T-even group ----- are virulent viruses that carry out a lytic cycle of infection.
|
Bacteriophages
|
|
16. T-even group bacteriophages are virulent viruses that carry out a ------ cycle of infection.
|
Lytic
|
|
17. A bacteriophage is a ------- that infects a bacterium.
|
Virus
|
|
20. The ------ cycle occurs when a bacteriophage inserts its DNA into the bacterial chromosome as a prophage.
|
Lysogenic
|
|
21. Animal viruses attach to host ----- via spikes on the capsid or envelope.
|
Plasma membrane
|
|
22. Since receptor sites vary from person to person, some people are more susceptible to a certain virus than others.
|
True
|
|
23. ------ is the separation of the viral capsid from the genome as it enters the host.
|
Uncoating
|
|
24. Some DNA viruses and retroviruses insert their genome into the host chromosome as a ------
|
Provirus
|
|
25. Retroviruses use ----- to transcribe their RNA to DNA.
|
Reverse transcriptase
|
|
26. Latent proviruses can still be attacked by the host body’s defenses.
|
False
|
|
27. Why don’t antibiotics work against viruses?
|
Viruses lack the elements needed for antibiotics to interfere
|
|
28. What is the role of interferons?
|
To alert neighboring cells of a viral infection
|
|
29. ------ prevent the spread of viral infections by binding to receptors on host cells, triggering them to produce antiviral proteins.
|
Interferons
|
|
30. ------ is an uncontrolled growth and spread of cells.
|
Cancer
|
|
31. A ----- is a clone of abnormal cells.
|
Tumor
|
|
32. Normally, the body surrounds a tumor with a capsule of connective tissue resulting in a ----- tumor.
|
Benign
|
|
33. If a tumor cells break free from a capsule and spread to other tissues of the body, it results in a ------ tumor.
|
Malignant
|
|
34. ------ occurs when tumor cells break free from a capsule and spread to other tissues of the body
|
Metastasis
|
|
35. WHO estimates 60-90% of human cancers are associated with ------.
|
Carcinogens
|
|
36. ----- virus is associated with cervical cancer.
|
Human papilloma
|
|
37. The ------ theory suggests that protoncogenes normally reside in the chromosomal DNA of a cell, but they can be transformed to oncogenes if they are exposed to radiation or carcinogens.
|
Oncogene
|
|
39. ----- are protooncogenes captures in the viral genome that reproduce with the virus.
|
V-oncogenes
|
|
40. ----- are tiny fragments of RNA that cause diseases in crop plants.
|
Viroids
|
|
42. Give one example of a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy.
|
Mad Cow Disease
|
|
1. Strike every year and causes most epidemics
Strikes every year but is not the most common Causes mild respiratory illness but not epidemics |
Influenza A =
Influenza B = Influenza C = |
|
2. Why do we need a new flu vaccine every year?
|
A new strain evolves every year
|
|
3. Which disease occurs as a result of an infection with the flu virus when the body damages its own peripheral nerve cells?
|
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
|
|
4. ------ is a disease that often occurs in children who take aspirin to treat pain and fever.
|
Reye Syndrome
|
|
5. ------ infections can cause the common cold and can induce the formation of inclusion bodies in host tissues.
|
Adenovirus
|
|
6. More than 100 different strains of the ------ can cause common colds.
|
Rhinovirus
|
|
7. Respiratory syncytial virus infects the bronchials and alveoli of the lungs, causing cells to fuse together into -----.
|
Syncytia
|
|
8. Parainfluenza infections are milder than influenza infections.
|
True
|
|
9. SARS is caused by a bacterium.
|
False
|
|
10. What does SARS stand for?
|
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
|
|
11. ----- are believed to be the natural host of SARS.
|
Bats
|
|
12. HSV 1 =
HSV 2 = VZV = HHV 6 = HHV 8 = |
Cold sores
Genital warts Chickenpox Roseola infantum Kaposi sarcoma |
|
13. After a primary infection with HSV-1, the viruses become latent in which part of the body?
|
Sensory ganglia
|
|
14. A herpes infection of the eye that can cause scarring of the cornea and blindness is called ------.
|
Herpes keratitis
|
|
15. The most common complication associated with chickenpox is ------.
|
Bacterial infection of the skin
|
|
16. People who are infected with ----- can experience facial paralysis and severe “ice-pick” pains.
|
Varicella zoster virus
|
|
17. Postherpetic ----- is the persistence of shingles pain for years after the blisters have disappeared.
|
Neuralgia
|
|
18. Which virus do some researchers believe lies dormant for years and may be associated with multiple sclerosis later in life?
|
Human Herpesvirus 6
|
|
19. What are the red patches associated with measles called?
|
Koplik spots
|
|
20. The Epstein-Barr virus is oncogenic.
|
True
|
|
21. What is the common disease name for rubeola?
|
Measles
|
|
22. What is the common disease name for infectious parotitis?
|
Mumps
|
|
23. What is the common disease name for German measles?
|
Rubella
|
|
24. Infectious parotitis is characterized by enlarged jaw tissues caused by swollen ------.
|
Salivary glands
|
|
25. What is the common name of the disease called Erythema Infectiosum?
|
Fifth Disease
|
|
26. Common ------ are usually benign skin growths resulting from a specific strain of HPV.
|
Warts
|
|
27. Genital warts, also known as ------ are often transmitted through sexual contact.
|
Condylomata
|
|
28. Why is smallpox one of the most dangerous weapons of bioterrorism?
|
Vaccinations against smallpox stopped in 1972, so many people are not immune and some still exists in labs around the world
|
|
29. ------ is a viral disease that causes mildly-contagious, flesh toned, wart-like skin lesions that emit a milky substance.
|
Molluscum contagiosum
|
|
30. What do neuraminidase spikes on a flu virus do?
|
Help the virion release from the host cell after replication and assembly
|
|
31. What do the hemagglutin spikes on the flu virus do?
|
Help the virion attach and penetrate the host cell
|
|
1. An HIV test done during the first 3 months of infection is the most accurate.
|
False
|
|
2. What does AIDS stand for?
|
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
|
|
3. There are two types of HIV, and the second one progresses faster than the first.
|
False
|
|
4. What is the enzyme that the HIV genome is packaged with that allows it to transcribe its RNA into DNA?
|
Reverse transcriptase
|
|
6. Why are people who have HIV more likely to develop opportunistic infections?
|
HIV attacks the T Cells that direct the activities in the immune system. If they die, then no one can direct the immune response
|
|
7. HIV can infect and paralyze B lymphocytes.
|
True
|
|
8. ----- is the term used to describe when the immune system is activated against a virus, and the antibodies can be detected in the blood.
|
Seroconversion
|
|
9. Infected mothers can transmit HIV to their fetus or to the baby during birth or breastfeeding.
|
True
|
|
10. What happens during stage 1 of an HIV Infection?
|
The person experiences flu like symptoms and seroconverts show antibodies in the blood
|
|
11. What happens during stage 2 of an HIV infection, and how long does it last?
|
The individual usually remains free of major disease and can las from 6-8 years
|
|
12. What happens during Stage 3 of an HIV infection?
|
The immune system loses its fight against HIV and HIV has progresses to AIDS
|
|
13. An HIV test done during the first 3 months of infection is the most accurate.
|
False
|
|
14. What does HAART stand for?
|
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy
|
|
15. HAART is a cocktail of drugs that reduces the risk of ------ transmission and extends the life of patients by about 8 years.
|
HIV
|
|
16. Describe one reason why it is difficult to develop a vaccine against HIV.
|
HIV strain continually mutates and recombines
|
|
17. Infectious mononucleosis is a blood disease caused by the ------.
|
Epstein Barr Virus
|
|
18. After recovery from infectious mononucleosis, the individual remains a carrier for several months, all the while shedding the virus in their saliva.
|
True
|
|
19. Diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis involves observation of elevated lymphocyte levels, as well as damaged B cells, also known as ------.
|
Downey cells
|
|
20. What disease, caused by EBV, is prevalent in Africa and is characterized by a tumor of the jaw?
|
Burkitt Lymphoma
|
|
22.Global health problem
Primary reason for liver transplant Accompanied by another hepatitis Chronic liver disease |
Hepatits B =
Hepatitis C = Hepatitis D = Hepatitis G - |
|
23. ------- was the first human disease associated with a virus.
|
Yellow fever
|
|
24. A patient shows up in the emergency room complaining of nausea, uncontrollable hiccups, black vomit, jaundice, hemorrhaging of the gums, mouth, and nose, and appears to be suffering from delirium. What disease might he have?
|
Yellow fever
|
|
25. A person goes to the emergency room and is complaining of high fever and sharp pains and sensations like her bones are breaking. What disease might she have?
|
Dengue Fever
|
|
26: If you live in the southwestern US and you come into contact with the saliva, urine, or feces of an infected deer mouse, you may contract a virus known only as “Sin Nombre,” which causes what syndrome?
|
Hantavirus Pulmonary syndrome
|
|
28. ----- is a condition with symptoms similar to Dengue fever, but it is transmitted by insects of the genus Phlebotomus.
|
Sandfly Fever
|
|
29. ----- is a zoonotic disease with fruit bats as a possible reservoir, and it damages endothelial cells, causing massive internal bleeding hemorrhaging.
|
Ebola Hemorrhagic fever
|
|
30. A rodent handler goes to the emergency room complaining of high fever and exhaustion, and after doing some test, the doctor finds he has patchy blood-filled hemorrhagic lesions of the throat. What disease may this person have?
|
Lassa fever
|
|
31. Hepatitis A is a disease of the gastrointestinal tract.
|
True
|
|
32. Rotavirus infections can be deadly in children because they invade the liver
|
False
|
|
33. Infections with ------- are a common cause of nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults, and recent outbreaks of it have been seen on cruise ships.
|
Norovirus
|
|
34. ----- virus has the highest mortality rate of any human disease.
|
Rabies
|
|
35. What do people who are infected with rabies ultimately die from?
|
Respiratory paralysis
|
|
36. If a coyote approaches you with wide eyes, he’s drooling, and he appears to want to attack you for no good reason, what phase of rabies might he be suffering from?
|
Furious rabies
|
|
37. If a coyote approaches you in the parking lot tonight after this exam and he seems docile and friendly, and even a bit lethargic, what phase of rabies might he be suffering from?
|
Dumb rabies
|
|
38. ----- is a term used to describe an acute inflammation of the brain.
|
Encephalitis
|
|
39. ----- is an emerging disease in the Western hemisphere
|
West Nile Fever
|
|
1. How do fungi take up nutrients?
|
Absorption
|
|
2. What are 2 main groups of fungi?
|
1) Mold
2) Yeast |
|
3. Yeasts are multicellular fungi.
|
False
|
|
4. Some forms of fungi are dimorphic.
|
True
|
|
5. Most fungi, except yeasts, exists as -----, which are long, tangled filaments of cells in visible colonies.
|
Hyphae
|
|
6. A fungal ------- is a thick mass of hyphae.
|
Mycelium
|
|
7. Fungal cell walls are composed of ------.
|
Chitin
|
|
8. Hyphae containing many nuclei are considered --------.
|
Coenocytic
|
|
9. In many species of fungus, ---- divide the cytoplasm into separate cells
|
Septa
|
|
10. Fungi are heterotrophic.
|
True
|
|
11. ----- are fungi that live in mutualistic symbiosis with plant roots to help them take up water and minerals.
|
Mycorrhizae
|
|
12. Fungal ----- live in plant tissue, particularly leaves.
|
Endophytes
|
|
13. Fungi can reproduce sexually and asexually.
|
True
|
|
14. The ----- are related to the oldest known fungi, they are primarily aquatic, and they have flagellated reproductive cells.
|
Chytridiomycota
|
|
15. The ------- are a group of mycorrhizae that live in over 80% of plants’ roots.
|
Glomeromycota
|
|
16. ----- are terrestrial fungi that grow as mold on bread and produce.
|
Zygomycetes
|
|
17. ----- account for 75% of known fungi
|
Ascomycetes
|
|
18. ----- are a mutualistic association between a fungus and a photosynthetic organism, like algae.
|
Lichens
|
|
19. ----- is a fungus that can ferment sugars, and they are used in bread baking and alcohol production
|
Saccharomyces
|
|
20. ----- is a general term used to describe an infection of the body surface.
|
Dermatophytosis
|
|
21. Vulvovaginitis, often called a “yeast infection,” is caused by ------.
|
Candida albicans
|
|
22. What is the relationship between the overuse of antibiotics and yeast infections?
|
Excessive antibiotic use may decrease protective bacteria in the vagina and intestine, allowing candida albicans to flourish
|
|
23. Oral candidiasis, commonly called ------, involves white curd-like growth on the mucous membranes of the mouth.
|
Thrush
|
|
24. ------ is a fungal infection that involves the hardening, browning, and distortion of fingernails.
|
Onychia
|
|
25. ------ is found in urban soil and pigeon droppings, and when it is inhaled, it can penetrate to the air sacs of lungs leading to respiratory infection, ......
|
Cryptococcus neoformans
|
|
26. ------ is found in dry, dusty soil, chicken coops, and bat caves, and can cause mild influenza like symptoms if inhaled.
|
Histoplasma capsulatum
|
|
27. ------ is associated with dusty soil and bird droppings, and if inhaled can cause lung lesions, persistent cough, and chest pains, and it can cause pneumonia and may disseminate to other organs in AIDS patients.
|
Blasomyces dermatitidis
|
|
28. ------ is a common infection in AIDS patients, causing a lethal pneumonia
|
Pneumocytic jiroveci
|
|
29. What is the name of the fungus that is used in Beano to reduce flatulence?
|
Aspergillus niger
|
|
30. The technical term for a fungal toxin is a -------.
|
Mycotoxin
|
|
31. ----- is the technical term for the study of fungi.
|
Mycology
|
|
32. Ergotism is caused by -----, which grows on grains and was believed to be the cause of some odd behaviors during the time of the Salem Witch trials.
|
Claviceps purpurea
|
|
33. Fungi are considered ------ because they absorb nutrients from dead and decaying matter and recycle it into the environment.
|
Saprobes
|
|
34. Ringworm is a parasite.
|
False
|
|
1. Some parasites called ------- cause red tides
|
Dinoflagellates
|
|
2. Green algae =
Dinoflagellates = Radiolarians = Foraminiferans = |
Have chloroplasts and perform photosynthesis
Cause red tides Have silica plates that form deposits on the ocean floor Have chalky, snail shaped skeletons |
|
3. Live mutualistically in termite guts
Have bilateral symmetry Cause sleeping sickness Are mostly free living and use pseudopods to move Are covered with rows of hair like structures |
Parabasilids =
Diplomonads = Kinetoplastids = Amoebozoans = Ciliates = |
|
4. The sexual cycle of a parasite occurs in the definitive host.
|
True
|
|
5. The asexual cycle of a parasite occurs in the -------- host.
|
Intermediate
|
|
6. Leishmania is transmitted by sandflies of the genus ----------
|
Phlebotomus
|
|
7. Leismania donovani causes a visceral disease called ------ which affects the WBCs, spleen and liver
|
Kala azar
|
|
8. Amoebiasis, caused by --------, is the second leading cause of death from parasitic disease.
|
Entamoeba histolytica
|
|
9. ------ is a parasite that is transmitted through food or water contaminated with sewage containing the parasite’s cysts, and symptoms appear about 7 days after the parasites emerge in the host and attach to the intestinal lining.
|
Giardia intestinalis
|
|
10. In immunocompromised patients, cholera like diarrhea can result from an infection with parasites of the genus --------, which can be transmitted in contaminated water or by physical contact.
|
Cryptosporidium
|
|
11. ----- is a protozoan parasite that infects the urinary tract, often through sexual contact, and while females may experience itching, burning, and discharge, males may be asymptomatic.
|
Trichomonas vaginalis
|
|
12. Of all the parasites that cause malaria, which is the most dangerous?
|
Plasmodium falciparum
|
|
13. How does being infected with the parasite that causes malaria actually kill people?
|
Plasmodium causes clustering of RBCs, which causes clots and send
out a signal to all infected cells to burst, leading to anemia, lack of oxygen to the cells of the body, and ultimately death. |
|
14. Human African sleeping sickness is caused by -------, and is transmitted by the ----------.
|
Trypanosoma brucei, tsetse fly
|
|
15. ----- is a condition found in Mexico and Central and South America and it is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi.
|
Chagas disease
|
|
16. ------ is a parasite that invades all mammalian cells except RBCs, and it is transmitted via contaminated undercooked beef, pork, and lamb
|
Toxoplasma gondii
|
|
17. You can become infected with ------- just by emptying your cat’s litterbox, or even by petting him if he is infected with the parasite.
|
Toxoplasma gondii
|
|
18. Next time you take a dip in the hot springs, you are not going to dunk your head under water for fear of contracting an infection of ------, which affects the nervous system and almost results in death.
|
Naegleria fowleri
|
|
19. In the life cycle of a trematode, eggs develop into larvae called ----- in water, which then invade -------
|
Miracida, snails
|
|
20. How do trematodes evade the host’s immune system?
|
By having a surface similar to the host cells'
|
|
21. Certain species of trematodes called ----- cause swimmer’s itch, releasing allergenic substances on the skin.
|
Blood flukes
|
|
22. Paragoniu westermani =
Fasciola hepatica = Taenia saginta = Taenia solium = Echonococcus granulosus = |
Fluke that is transmitted by eating poorly cooked shellfish
Cysts that gather in vegetation and can cause liver damage Beef tapeworm Pork tapeworm Dog tapeworm |
|
23. Humans are host to at least 50 roundworm disease
|
True
|
|
24. ------- is caused by several species of blood flukes that can cause damage in the liver, intestines, and bladder.
|
Schistosomiasis
|
|
25. ------- lives in pig intestines and can encyst in skeletal muscles. If consumed in raw or poorly cooked pork, larvae can migrate to the tongue, eyes, and ribs of the host.
|
Trichenella spiralis
|
|
26. Females of the species ------- produce a large number of eggs that can remain viable in soil for months, and they are transmitted by consuming contaminated food or water.
|
Ascaris lumbricoides
|
|
27. Humans are one of only 2 host that hookworms have.
|
False
|
|
28. The larvae of ------ infect the lymphatic system and damage vessels and glands. After years of infestation, elephantiasis, and lymphedema can develop.
|
Wuchereria bancrofti
|
|
29. In the condition called filariasis, larvae of which parasite swim below the skin surface of the host at the same time mosquitoes are swarming in the environment to increase the likelihood that they are picked up during the next blood meal?
|
Wuchereria bancrofti
|
|
30. Which species of parasite can you self-diagnose by placing tape on your butt then pulling it off and inspecting it for eggs under a microscope.
|
Enterobius vermicularis
|
|
1. ------ is a term that refers to the relationship between the host and microbe, and the competition for supremacy between them.
|
Infection
|
|
2. ------ are mircobes that reside in the body without causing disease.
|
Microbiota
|
|
3. What is the term used to describe the relationship between a host and a microbe when the microbe benefits and the host is unaffected?
|
Commensalism
|
|
4. What is the difference between pathogenicity and virulence?
|
Pathogenicity is the microbe's ability to enter a host and cause disease
Virulence is the degree of pathogenicity |
|
5. Occurs if a pathogen breaches the host's external defense
Occurs if normal microbiota enter sterile tissue Occurs in otherwise healthy bodies Occurs in body weakened by another infection |
Exogenous infection =
Endogenous infection = Primary infection = Secondary infection = |
|
6. Time between entry of the microbe and symptom appearance
Time of mild signs and symptoms Time when signs and symptoms are most intense Time when signs and symptoms subside Time when body systems return to normal |
Incubation period =
Prodromal period = Acme period = Decline period = Convalescence = |
|
7. What is the difference between acute disease and a chronic disease?
|
Acute disease develops rapidly cause severe symptoms and fade quickly
Chronic disease linger for long periods of time, and are slower to develop and receded |
|
8. The ------ is the route an exogenous pathogen uses to enter the body
|
Portal of entry
|
|
9. Forms a blood cot
Dissolves fibrin clots Enhances pathogen penetration Disintegrates Dissolves RBCs |
Coagulase =
Streptokinase = Hyaluronidase = Leukocidins = Hemolysins = |
|
10.Presence of toxins in the blood
Proteins produced Toxins that act on the nervous system Toxins that act on the GI tract Produced by the host body Toxins whose toxicity Released upon disintegration |
Toxemia =
Exotoxin = Neurotoxin = Enterotoxin = Antitoxin = Toxoids = Endotoxins = |
|
11. List 3 things that influence disease emergence or re-emergence.
|
1) Climate change
2) International trade 3) Malnutrition |
|
12. Endemic disease =
Epidemic disease = Outbreak = Pandemic = |
Habitually present at low level
Occurs in region in excess Contained epidemic Worldwide epidemic |
|
1. Phagoctyes
Contain toxic compounds Act in allergic reactions Phagocytes that mature into macrophages NK, T, & B cells |
Neutrophils =
Eosinophils = Basophils = Monocytes = Lymphocytes = |
|
2. Name the 2 primary lymphoid tissues
|
1) Thymus
2) Bone Marrow |
|
3. Name the 2 secondary lymphoid tissues
|
1) Spleen
2) Lymph nodes |
|
4. ------ are chemical signals sent by many immune cells to tissues involved in initiating acquired immunity
|
Cytokines
|
|
5. What is the main difference between innate and acquired immune systems?
|
Innate immune system is nonspecific attacking everything the same way
Acquired immune system provides a response that is specific to the pathogens |
|
6. ------ is the capture and digestion of foreign particles
|
Phagocytosis
|
|
7. ------ are cytokines that attract macrophages and neutrophils to infected tissues.
|
Chemokines
|
|
8. Name one way that a low or moderate fever supports the immune system.
|
By encouraging rapid tissue repair
|
|
9. When activated, ------ move into blood and lymph where they kill cancer cells and virus-infected cells.
|
Natural killer cells
|
|
10. The complement part of the immune system goes through a cascade of events that creates a ring of proteins that gets inserted into pathogens and causes them to lyse. This ring of proteins is called a ------
|
Membrane attack complex
|
|
11. Pathogen-associated molecular patterns help the innate immune system recognize ------.
|
Pathogens
|
|
12. ------ are signaling receptors on macrophages, dendritic cells, and endothelial cells that stimulate the secretion of cytokines.
|
Toll-like receptors
|
|
1.The ------ dose is the concentration of a drug that eliminates pathogens in a host
|
Theraputic
|
|
2. Nystatin =
Gentamicin = Kanamycin = Neomycin = |
Candida albicans infection
Gram negative infections in the urinary tract Gram negative bacteria in wound tissue Intestinal infections and as an ointment |
|
3. What happens to a parasite when a patient takes antiprotozoal agents such as aminoquinolines?
|
The parasite starves to death
|
|
4. What happens to resistant strains of bacteria when unnecessary large antibiotic doses are used?
|
They can spread to other patients and a superinfection occurs
|
|
5. Penicillin functions by ------
|
Interfering with cell wall synthesis, causing the cell to burst
|
|
6. One way in which bacteria can evolve to become antibiotic resistance is to enzymatically inactivate an antibiotic
|
True
|
|
7. What is a superinfection?
|
An infection caused by resistant bacterial species
|
|
8. Rifampin is ------
|
A semisynthetic antibacterial drug
|
|
9. Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease that starts in infancy and affects various glands in the body.
|
True
|
|
10. Aplastic anemia is a condition in which the bone marrow produces too many new blood cells
|
False
|
|
11. A ------ is a term used to describe a venous inflammation with an associated blood clot
|
Thrombophlebitis
|
|
1. Sand and soil or cyanobacterial bloom cloud the water
Inorganic and organic waste enters the water Microorganisms enter the water from anthropogenic sources |
Physical pollution =
Chemical pollution = Biological pollution = |
|
2. What are the 3 steps involved in water purification?
|
1) Sedimentation
2) Filtration 3) Chlorination |
|
3. Masses of microbes called ------ are used in bioremediation to degrade toxic wastes
|
Biofilms
|
|
4. Most marine microorganism live in the ----- zone.
|
Littoral
|
|
5. Microorganisms play an important role in the cycles of elements in the environment. Name the 3 cycles.
|
1) Carbon
2) Nitrogen 3) Sulfur |
|
6. Virbio vulnificus can cause intestinal illness if consumed
|
True
|
|
7. The membrane filter technique is a popular laboratory test in water microbiology.
|
True
|
|
8. ------ is a type of water that originates from deep wells and subterranean springs.
|
Groundwater
|
|
9. Polluted water usually contains ------ bacteria, a group of gram negative, non-spore forming bacilli usually found in the human intestine
|
Coliform
|