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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following is an accurate statement about product management?
A) It is also known as quality management. B) It is rarely team-based. C) It is a continual process. D) It includes responsibility for the marketing mix tools of product and promotion, but not of price and place. E) It involves more strategic planning than tactical planning. |
C) It is a continual process. |
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When marketers develop ________ strategies, they make decisions about product benefits, features, styling, branding, labeling, and packaging.
A) communication B) product C) equity D) total quality management (TQM) E) Six Sigma |
B) product |
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Which of the following is NOT necessary for a product-related objective to be effective?
A) It should focus on short-term implications. B) It should be measurable. C) It should be feasible. D) It should indicate a specific time frame. E) It should be clear. |
A) It should focus on short-term implications. |
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A ________ is a firm's total product offering designed to satisfy a group of target customers.
A) brand B) product line C) product mix D) positioning strategy E) marketing mix |
B) product line |
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A firm's ________ is determined by the number of separate items within the same category.
A) brand equity B) product mix width C) product line length D) product quality E) product mix |
C) product line length |
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Procter & Gamble makes a variety of different cleaners, detergents, and polishes to appeal to a variety of target markets and boost sales potential. Procter & Gamble uses a(n) ________.
A) full line strategy B) undifferentiated strategy C) limited-line strategy D) contracting strategy E) marketing mix orientation |
A) full line strategy |
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A firm that plans to use a(n) ________ will add higher priced, higher quality items to its product line.
A) upward line stretch B) limited-line strategy C) undifferentiated strategy D) marketing mix contraction E) cannibalization strategy |
A) upward line stretch |
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Which of the following is NOT an option for extending a product line?
A) cannibalization B) downward line stretch C) upward line stretch D) two-way stretch E) filling-out strategy |
A) cannibalization |
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Whenever a product line or a product family is extended, there is a risk of ________, which occurs when sales of an existing brand decline as the firm's current customers switch to the new product.
A) product line contraction B) disintermediation C) cannibalization D) brand inequity E) a downward line stretch |
C) cannibalization |
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An alternative to a two-way stretch is ________, adding more items within the present range of the line.
A) cobranding B) family branding C) a mixing strategy D) a filling-out strategy E) a contracting strategy |
D) a filling-out strategy |
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Which of the following is one of the ways that Berkowitz Piano Company can expand its product line?
A) a product mix strategy B) a filling-out strategy C) societal marketing D) internal marketing E) line mixing |
B) a filling-out strategy |
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Heinz stopped marketing its "Bite Me" brand of frozen pizza snacks due to disappointing sales. This is an example of a ________.
A) filling-out strategy B) downward line stretch C) product line contraction D) value stretch E) cannibalization strategy |
C) product line contraction |
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A firm's ________ is its entire range of products.
A) product line B) product mix C) marketing mix D) promotional mix E) positioning strategy |
B) product mix |
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When a company begins marketing a new product line in addition to its existing product lines, it has done which of the following?
A) expanded the length of the product line B) expanded the width of the product mix C) expanded the depth of the product mix D) expanded the width of the marketing mix E) used a filling-out strategy |
B) expanded the width of the product mix |
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Which of the following is the overall ability of a product to satisfy customers' expectations?
A) value proposition B) brand equity C) product precision D) brand meaning E) product quality |
E) product quality |
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Which of the following is a management philosophy that focuses on satisfying customers through empowering employees to be an active part of continuous quality improvement?
A) cannibalization B) total quality management (TQM) C) Six Sigma D) ISO 9000 E) ISO 14000 |
B) total quality management (TQM) |
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________ involves a five-step process called DMAIC (define, measure, analyze, improve, and control) designed to improve quality.
A) Total quality management (TQM) B) Cannibalization C) ISO 9000 D) ISO 14000 E) Six Sigma |
E) Six Sigma |
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It is most accurate to say that total quality management firms believe that it is the responsibility of ________ employees to serve the needs of customers.
A) marketing B) research and development C) human resource D) management E) all |
E) all |
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Which of the following was developed to guarantee that an organization's products conform to the customer's requirements?
A) Six Sigma B) ISO 9000 C) ISO 14000 D) TQM E) cannibalization |
B) ISO 9000 |
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Which of the following helps an organization focus on minimizing any harmful effects it may have on the environment?
A) Six Sigma B) ISO 9000 C) ISO 14000 D) total quality management (TQM) E) cannibalization |
C) ISO 14000 |
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An American company wanting to be competitive in the European market would be most likely to seek which type of certification?
A) ISO 14000 B) DMAIC C) total quality management (TQM) D) Six Sigma E) PLC |
A) ISO 14000 |
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Which of the following is designed to help a firm almost entirely reduce product and service defects?
A) ISO 14000 B) ISO 19000 C) Six Sigma D) TQM E) PLC |
C) Six Sigma |
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The product life cycle concept can be applied by marketers as a useful framework for describing how ________.
A) to forecast product performance B) to develop marketing strategies C) a market responds to a product over time D) product ideas are developed E) a brand gains a dominant position in the market |
C) a market responds to a product over time |
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All of the following are stages in the product life cycle EXCEPT which one?
A) introduction B) adoption C) growth D) maturity E) decline |
B) adoption |
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The marketing goal for a product in the growth stage of its product life cycle is to ________.
A) stabilize profit margins B) encourage brand loyalty C) reach peak sales levels D) compete on the basis of price E) maintain market share |
B) encourage brand loyalty |
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The sales peak typically occurs during which stage of the product life cycle?
A) introduction B) youth C) development D) maturity E) leveling |
D) maturity |
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Which stage in the product life cycle is characterized by rapidly increasing sales and increasing profits?
A) introduction B) youth C) growth D) maturity E) development |
C) growth |
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The final stage in the product life cycle is ________.
A) maturity B) decline C) phasing out D) harvesting E) divestment |
B) decline |
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In which stage of the product life cycle will promotional expenditures be especially high in an attempt to create consumer awareness?
A) product development B) introduction C) decline D) maturity E) youth |
B) introduction |
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Which stage in the product life cycle normally lasts longest?
A) introduction B) development C) growth D) maturity E) decline |
D) maturity |
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In which stage of the product life cycle would a firm most likely use price reductions and reminder advertising to encourage customers to replace worn-out items?
A) growth B) youth C) maturity D) adoption E) leveling |
C) maturity |
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A manufacturer of a product in the decline stage of its product life cycle would be LEAST likely to do which of the following?
A) continue producing the product for loyal users B) reduce the advertising budget for the product C) phase out production of the product D) advertise heavily without changing the product or its target market E) withdraw most marketing support for the product and rely on e-commerce |
D) advertise heavily without changing the product or its target market |
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A manufacturer with a product in the decline stage of the product life cycle would most likely decide to ________ if there is reason to believe that there will be a residual demand for the product.
A) maintain the product without change B) let existing stocks of the product run out C) drop the product immediately D) search for replacements E) increase sales promotion efforts |
A) maintain the product without change |
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________ is the product life cycle period when sales fall off and profits drop.
A) Maturity B) Decline C) Development D) Divestment E) Leveling |
B) Decline |
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A(n) ________ is a name, term, symbol, or other unique element of a product that identifies one firm's products and sets it apart from the competition.
A) patent B) brand C) license D) position E) value proposition |
B) brand |
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The triangular red Nabisco logo and the Jolly Green Giant are both examples of ________.
A) logos B) brand marks C) trade characters D) brands E) cobrands |
A) logos |
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According to your text, which of the following is probably the most used and most recognized form of branding?
A) brand name B) trade character C) patent D) logo E) copyright |
A) brand name |
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A good brand name should do all of the following EXCEPT fit ________.
A) the target market B) the competition C) the customer's culture D) the product's benefits E) legal requirements |
B) the competition |
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Which of the following is NOT a desirable quality for a brand name?
A) It should suggest something about the product's benefits. B) It should be easy to pronounce and remember. C) It should almost always be a long word to get attention. D) It needs to fit legal requirements. E) It should make sense in the customer's culture. |
C) It should almost always be a long word to get attention. |
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A ________ is the legal term for a brand name, brand mark, or trade character.
A) trademark B) patent C) copyright D) logo E) corporate mark |
A) trademark |
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Which of the following statements about brand equity is NOT true?
A) Brand equity means a brand has customer loyalty. B) Brand equity refers to the brand's value to an organization. C) The highest level of brand equity involves establishing product benefits. D) Brand equity gives a firm the power to capture and hold onto a larger share of the market and to sell at prices with higher profit margins. E) Brand equity can provide a competitive advantage. |
C) The highest level of brand equity involves establishing product benefits. |
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The concept of ________ encompasses the beliefs and associations that a consumer has about a brand.
A) brand meaning B) brand storytelling C) brand equity D) product quality E) total quality |
A) brand meaning |
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Which of the following most accurately describes a brand extension?
A) a new product that combines the power of two or more brand names B) a new product sold under an established brand name C) a new product added to the lower end of a product mix D) a new product added to the higher end of a product mix E) a new product line added to a product mix |
B) a new product sold under an established brand name |
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A family brand strategy is also called a(n) ________ strategy.
A) cobranding B) licensing C) umbrella brand D) store brand E) national brand |
C) umbrella brand |
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Procter & Gamble makes Tide, Cheer, Ivory Snow, and Bold detergents as well as PertPlus, Rejoice, and Vidal Sassoon shampoos. Through its use of a separate and unique brand name for each of these products, Procter & Gamble is using a(n) ________ strategy.
A) umbrella brand B) family brand C) individual brand D) private-label brand E) cobranding |
C) individual brand |
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Oreos and Coke are both examples of ________.
A) store brands B) cobrands C) private-label brands D) national brands E) ingredient brands |
D) national brands |
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Toronto-based Loblaw supermarket chain developed President's Choice brand products to sell exclusively in its stores. President's Choice is an example of a ________.
A) manufacturer brand B) national brand C) cobrand D) generic brand E) private-label brand |
E) private-label brand |
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Another name for a store brand is a ________.
A) national brand B) private-label brand C) generic brand D) manufacturer brand E) licensed brand |
B) private-label brand |
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What is the most logical explanation for why retailers carry private-label brands?
A) to eliminate the need for competitive advantages B) to encourage transaction marketing C) to support trade promotions D) to earn more profit E) to prevent sales cannibalization |
D) to earn more profit |
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n a competition between ________ and ________ brands, retailers have the advantages of controlling what products will be stocked, where products will be stocked, what prices will be charged, and which products will be featured in local print promotions.
A) national; manufacturer B) national; private-label C) store; private-label D) national; licensed E) manufacturer; licensed |
B) national; private-label |
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Which of the following is true about generic brands?
A) They are more popular today than ever before. B) They were first developed during the last period of economic prosperity in the United States. C) They were designed to appeal to the price-conscious consumer. D) They attract approximately 25 percent of all dollars spent in U.S. supermarkets. E) They are manufacturer brands. |
C) They were designed to appeal to the price-conscious consumer. |
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________ is an agreement between two brands to work together in marketing a new product.
A) Manufacturer branding B) Cobranding C) Franchising D) Family branding E) Aggregated branding |
B) Cobranding |
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In ________, branded materials become component parts of other branded products.
A) family branding B) aggregated branding C) umbrella branding D) manufacturer branding E) ingredient branding |
E) ingredient branding |
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Breyers and Reese's have worked together to create Breyers Ice Cream with Reese's Peanut Butter Cups. This is an example of ________.
A) family branding B) ingredient branding C) private-label branding D) individual branding E) generic branding |
B) ingredient branding |
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Which approach to measuring brand equity focuses on the ability of a brand to charge a higher price than the price charged by an unbranded equivalent?
A) revenue premium metric B) financial market metric C) product-market outcomes metric D) equity-identity metric E) customer mind-set metric |
C) product-market outcomes metric |
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Which of the following types of brand equity metrics would most likely be based on information gathered through consumer surveys?
A) revenue premium metric B) financial market metric C) brand venture metric D) equity-identity metric E) customer mind-set metric |
E) customer mind-set metric |
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Product packaging can do all of the following EXCEPT which one?
A) protect the product B) provide service C) communicate brand personality D) make the product easier to store E) create a competitive advantage |
B) provide service |
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________ involves designing and producing the container or cover for a product.
A) Labeling B) Licensing C) Packaging D) Retailing E) Service |
C) Packaging |
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Which of the following is true of the Universal Product Code (UPC)?
A) It is a five-digit number used to control inventory. B) It is a package communication element. C) It is legally required for products with dual distribution channels. D) It is used only by companies that have more than one retail outlet. E) It prevents product cannibalization. |
B) It is a package communication element. |
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Which of the following is NOT true of the Universal Product Code (UPC)?
A) It is printed on the side or bottom of all non-perishable items sold in grocery stores and other mass-merchandising outlets. B) It supplies information about the type of item. C) It identifies the manufacturer of the product. D) It is read by an electronic scanner. E) Retailers use information from UPC bars to track sales and control inventory |
A) It is printed on the side or bottom of all non-perishable items sold in grocery stores and other mass-merchandising outlets. |
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Firms interested in using socially responsible packaging that is less harmful to the environment are developing ________.
A) aesthetic packaging B) green packaging C) ingredient packaging D) venture packaging E) Kansei engineering |
B) green packaging |
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Which of the following controls package communications and labeling in the United States?
A) the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) B) the Nutrition Labeling and Education Act C) the Nutrition Facts Panel D) the Federal Fair Packaging and Labeling Act E) the Consumer Bill of Rights |
D) the Federal Fair Packaging and Labeling Act |
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Which of the following is NOT required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) on the labels of most foods sold in the United States?
A) amount of saturated fat in the product B) sources of all ingredients in the product C) amount of cholesterol in the product D) number of calories in the product E) amount of protein in the product |
B) sources of all ingredients in the product |
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In small firms, the marketing function is usually handled by a ________ who is responsible for new-product planning, advertising, working with the company's sales representatives, and marketing research.
A) single marketing manager B) brand manager C) product category manager D) market manager E) venture team manager |
A) single marketing manager |
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________ are responsible for the positioning of a brand and developing its brand equity. They are likely to team with sales, finance, and logistics staff members as part of customer business teams who work with major retail accounts.
A) Product category managers B) Brand managers C) Venture team managers D) Market managers E) Sales managers |
B) Brand managers |
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of the brand management system?
A) a tendency to avoid price differentiation B) too much focus on the supplementary and complementary roles of all product lines C) a tendency to overemphasize short-term gains in sales D) an interdependent structure that can undermine personal responsibility E) too much focus on establishing brand equity |
C) a tendency to overemphasize short-term gains in sales |
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Which of the following is true about a brand manager and a product category manager?
A) They are two titles for the same job. B) They have the same functional responsibilities. C) They probably work for large firms. D) They are mainly responsible for financial decisions. E) They do not consider new product lines. |
B) They have the same functional responsibilities. |
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Which of the following accurately describes a product category manager?
A) A product category manager works for a company that relies solely on individual branding. B) A product category manager is responsible for moving a company's product mix from generic to branded. C) A product category manager coordinates the development of brand equity for a specific brand name. D) A product category manager is also called a sales manager. E) A product category manager coordinates the mix of product lines within a general product category and is responsible for the addition of new product lines. |
E) A product category manager coordinates the mix of product lines within a general product category and is responsible for the addition of new product lines. |
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Within the market manager structure, managers focus on ________.
A) specific customer groups rather than specific products B) specific products rather than specific customer groups C) one or two specific brands D) all company brands and all company customers E) new product development and marketing |
A) specific customer groups rather than specific products |
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Which of the following is most useful when a firm offers a variety of products that serve the needs of a wide range of customers?
A) the single marketing manager structure B) the independent brand manager structure C) the sales manager structure D) the product category manager structure E) the market manager structure |
E) the market manager structure |
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When large companies undertake new-product development, they typically enlist specialists in different areas to create a ________ within the organization.
A) focus group B) product category team C) sales team D) venture team E) cross-functional brand team |
D) venture team |
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Creative people with entrepreneurial skills are the best match for which of the following?
A) sales management B) a role on a venture team C) market management D) product management E) information management |
B) a role on a venture team |
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Venture teams focus exclusively on which of the following?
A) products in the maturity stage of the product life cycle B) products in the growth stage of the product life cycle C) relationships with large, important customers D) the development of a new product E) the promotional plan for a new product |
D) the development of a new product |
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The term skunk works is associated with which of the following?
A) total quality management (TQM) B) Six Sigma C) product category teams D) cross-functional teams E) venture teams |
E) venture teams |
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A firm's skunk works department would most likely be located ________.
A) in a central part of the firm's main office building B) in the most productive section of the company C) away from the firm's traditional offices D) at the headquarters of the firm's largest customer E) as close as possible to the firm's communication specialists |
C) away from the firm's traditional offices |
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Active Beverages targets the same people who watch the Gravity Games and enjoy skateboarding, in-line skating, mountain biking, and other extreme sports. It makes high-energy drinks for this target market. It does not attempt to make any drinks that are not targeted to this market. Active uses a(n) ________.
A) undifferentiated marketing strategy B) filling-out strategy C) cannibalization strategy D) limited-line strategy E) brand extension strategy |
D) limited-line strategy |
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In addition to regular Alka-Seltzer, there is an Alka Seltzer product for each of the following: cold sufferers, people with upset stomachs, people who can't sleep, people with allergies, and people who have a severe headache. The manufacturer of Alka-Seltzer is using a(n) ________ to reach as many different target markets as possible.
A) full line strategy B) downward line stretch C) cannibalization strategy D) undifferentiated strategy E) upward line stretch |
A) full line strategy |
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Mercedes was able to successfully introduce its C-Class car at $30,000 without injuring its ability to sell other Mercedes cars for $100,000 or more. Mercedes implemented a(n) ________.
A) downward line stretch B) product line contraction C) cannibalization strategy D) upward line stretch E) value stretch
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A) downward line stretch |
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John Deere, Inc. introduced a lower-priced line of lawn-tractors called Senber while still selling its more expensive tractors under the John Deere, Inc. brand. This is an example of ________.
A) a filling-out strategy B) a downward line stretch C) an upward line stretch D) a two-way stretch E) a contraction strategy |
B) a downward line stretch |
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A winery introduced a brand wine that it priced twice as high as its other wine. This is an example of product extension by a(n) ________.
A) downward line stretch B) product mix C) cannibalization strategy D) upward line stretch E) prestige stretch |
D) upward line stretch |
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A company makes several different kinds of shampoo, but it did not have a dandruff shampoo designed for women until it added Pro-Women antidandruff shampoo. This is an example of a(n) ________.
A) downward line stretch B) upward line stretch C) cannibalization strategy D) filling-out strategy E) product line contraction |
D) filling-out strategy |
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A company introduced the Funday film to compete with lower-priced brands, but it found many of its regular customers buying Funday instead of its usual, higher-priced film. The company experienced ________.
A) an upward line stretch B) a product line contraction C) disintermediation D) cannibalization E) filling in |
D) cannibalization |
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A company has only one product line: all the company manufactures is supercomputers. This one product line is also the company's ________.
A) branding strategy B) marketing mix C) product mix D) promotional mix E) brand equity |
C) product mix |
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Practically every brand of soft drink ever made is available at Mom's Soda Shop; regional beverages from around the world can be purchased at the retailer's Web site. The retailer targets people who have developed a fondness for a particular soft drink and can no longer find it. The retailer's ________ is all types of soft drinks.
A) branding strategy B) product objective C) positioning strategy D) marketing mix E) product mix |
E) product mix |
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Kitchen dishcloths are often difficult to rinse clean and typically dry slowly. A company developed a disposable kitchen cloth that rinses easily and dries quickly. Because this is a brand new product to the market, it can be said to be in the ________ stage of its product life cycle.
A) competitive B) trial C) introduction D) growth E) youth |
C) introduction |
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There are numerous kinds of shampoo, including vitamin-enriched, fruit-enhanced, color-sensitive, therapeutic, and so on. Shampoo that simply promises to clean hair, however, has seen declining sales, has little or no advertising, and has been phased out by most manufacturers. Shampoo that makes no other promise than to clean hair is in the ________ stage of its product life cycle.
A) maturity B) leveling C) repositioning D) withdrawal E) decline |
E) decline |
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A few years ago, a company brought a miniature version of its cereal bars to market. The nugget-sized product was very successful because it was not messy. Another company recently introduced a similar product under its own brand. Mini-cereal bars are most likely in the ________ stage of their product life cycle.
A) introduction B) youth C) growth D) maturity E) extension |
C) growth |
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Over the past 100 years or so, Binney and Smith's Crayola crayons have become a household staple in more than 80 countries around the world. The company occasionally tinkers with the product's marketing mix to maintain market share. Crayola crayons are in the ________ stage of the product life cycle.
A) growth B) extension C) development D) maturity E) decline |
D) maturity |
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Chicken of the Sea brand tuna sells more than the same size Kroger brand tuna, even though the Kroger tuna costs $0.15 less per can. Chicken of the Sea has brand ________.
A) extension B) equity C) service D) valuation E) specialization |
B) equity |
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A manager of a Holiday Inn said, "We have power and value in the market and people are willing to pay for it." This manager is referring to ________.
A) the value proposition B) societal marketing C) total quality management (TQM) D) the PLC E) brand equity |
E) brand equity |
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Arm & Hammer began as a producer of baking soda. Now the company manufactures detergents, deodorants, and fabric softeners under the Arm & Hammer brand name. Arm & Hammer uses a ________ strategy.
A) brand extension B) product line contraction C) downward line stretch D) cannibalization E) cobranding |
A) brand extension |
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Kellogg's has marketed Special K cereal for a number of years to a loyal customer base. Its introduction of a new cereal called Special K with Red Berries is an example of a(n) ________ strategy.
A) cannibalization B) cobranding C) brand extension D) upward line stretch E) downward line stretch |
C) brand extension |
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The J. M. Smuckers Company makes jams, jellies, fruit spreads, and ice cream toppings. All of these products are sold using the Smuckers brand name. This company uses a(n) ________ strategy.
A) store brand B) private-label brand C) cobranding D) ingredient branding E) family brand |
E) family brand |
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Disney allowed a paint manufacturer to produce paint using the Disney brand name for a specific period of time. Disney paint is an example of ________.
A) licensing B) cobranding C) family branding D) ingredient branding E) private-label branding |
A) licensing |
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Mattel teamed with Coca-Cola to market Soda Fountain Sweetheart Barbie. This is an example of ________.
A) generic branding B) family branding C) franchising D) cobranding E) ingredient branding |
D) cobranding |
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Which of the following is an advantage offered by cobranding?
A) Manufacturers do not have to invest in creating their own brand names. B) Retailers have exclusive products that cannot be purchased from competitors. C) Advertising, sales, promotion, and marketing must be carefully coordinated. D) Brand equity is stabilized. E) A company can expand its existing brand into a category it otherwise might have difficulty entering alone. |
E) A company can expand its existing brand into a category it otherwise might have difficulty entering alone. |
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General Foods produces many different brands of coffee, including Brim, Maxim, Maxwell House, International Coffees, Sanka, and Yuban. Each brand is likely to have its own ________.
A) venture team B) market manager C) product category manager D) communication manager E) brand manager |
E) brand manager |
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Kodak markets cameras, film, X-ray film and equipment, printers, motion picture film, and batteries. Kodak is likely to have ________ who coordinate the mix of the product lines.
A) brand managers B) product category managers C) venture teams D) communication teams E) market managers |
B) product category managers |
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Colgate-Palmolive replaced its brand management structure with a product category management structure. A manager who had once managed Colgate toothpaste now manages all of the company's dental products. Under Colgate's new system, a product category manager would have ________.
A) profit and loss responsibility for all dental products B) completely different duties than the brand manager had C) to use persuasion as opposed to direct authority to achieve goals D) no authority over functions, other than marketing, that affect dental products E) no authority over international dental product sales |
A) profit and loss responsibility for all dental products |
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A manufacturer of acrylic, latex, and nitrile gloves sells to medical laboratories, factories where employees handle chemicals, companies that manufacture micro-tech equipment, and cleaning services. The company is organized to better satisfy the specific needs of each of its four target markets, so it uses a ________ structure.
A) product category B) market manager C) brand manager D) venture team E) family brand |
B) market manager |
