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384 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Horse TPR |
T=98-101 P=28-44 R=10-20 |
|
How many quadrants do you listen to for horse gut sounds? |
4, 2 on each side upper and lower |
|
Mare |
Female horse after 3 years |
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broodmare |
female horse for breeding |
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maiden |
mare that has never had a foal |
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barren |
broodmare who was not bred |
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stallion |
intact male horse |
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gelding |
castrated male horse |
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foal |
young horse, birth to weaning |
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colt |
intact male horse till 3 years |
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filly |
female younger then 3 years |
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Deworming in horses |
80% of worms carried by 20% of the herd |
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What is the EPG (eggs per gram) count for horses that indicates the need to deworm? |
over 300 |
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How often do horses need hoof trims? |
6-8 weeks |
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Coggins test is? |
Tests horse for equine infectious anemia |
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Horse age determination via teeth? |
-incisors erupt from center to outside- decidious at 7 days, 7 weeks and 7 months. Adult at 3 years, 4 years and 5 years - canines erupt at 4 years incisors estimate years by wear time- occlusion table changes shape- 5 years it is flattened, 9 years is oval, 15 years it is round, 20 years triangle, 7 year hook |
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Horse age determination via galvaye's groove? |
-10 years it appears at gum margin -15 years halfway down surface -20 years extends entire length -25 years disappears from upper half of tooth -30 years disappears totally |
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What is wave mouth? |
-adjacent cheek teeth that have unequal heights -can cause severe inability for the horse to grind food properly -over-correction of a wave mouth can have disastrous results for the horse as well |
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What is step mouth? |
A horses partner tooth in its jaw is missing and grows extremely long because it does not have another surface to grind against -missing tooth |
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Core horse vaccines? Additional horse vaccines? |
Core: EEE, WEE, WNV, Tetanus, Rabies Additional: Potomac, Strangles, Rhino, Flu |
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Cow |
Mature female cow |
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bull |
male cow |
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steer |
castrated male cow |
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heifer |
immature female cow-younger then a year |
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calf |
neonate, baby cow |
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first-calf heifer |
a female cow who is 2 years old and only had one calf (may also hear 2nd,3rd, or fourth) |
|
free martin |
sterile female cow who was a twin to a bull calf |
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dry cow |
dairy cow not milking, 2 months prior to calving |
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freshening |
the act of a cow calving |
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Cow TRP |
T=99-101.5 P=40-80 R=10-30 |
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Types of cow stalls |
- free stall barn -tie stall/stanchion barn - dry lots or pastures |
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How many teeth do horses have? |
36 |
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how many teeth do cows have? |
32 |
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Milking procedure order? |
1.prewash teats 2.pre-dip and allow to dry 3. strip teats to induce oxytocin for milk let down 4. apply teat cup 5. machine strip 6. post-dip 7. sanitize teat cups |
|
cows produce on average how much milk? |
-20,000/lb/year some up to 50000/lb/year -2300 gallons per cow per year -70-100 lds per day |
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What is the cut off for somatic cell count in milk? |
750,000 |
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Beef cow hanging weight? live weight? |
-live weight is weight at market -hanging weight is weight they are sold by and weight after slaughter |
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Type of beef industries |
- cow calf producers backgrounding- sell calves at 1 year of age and keep them through the winter -seed stock producers- raise replacements -feedlot/dry lot- raise to market weight |
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What are supernumerary teats?
|
Extra teats on the utters of cows |
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Pinkeye |
common in cattle and goats very contagious |
|
shipping fever |
respiratory sickness that can be prevented with vaccines |
|
Most common respiratory causes in cattle |
-IBR-Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis -PI3- parainfluenza -BVD-bovine viral diarrhea -BRSV-bovine respiratory sensytial virus (Most common vaccines in cows w/ lepto vaccine) |
|
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy |
mad cow disease, prion caused |
|
white muscle disease |
caused by vitamin e or selenium defincency |
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Ketosis |
metabolic issue usually right after calving |
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Swine |
refers to porcine species |
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sow |
mature intact female pig |
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boar |
mature intact male pig |
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barrow |
male castrated before puberty pig |
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stag |
male castrated after puberty pig |
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gilt |
female pig before the birth of her first litter |
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farrowing |
act of birthing in pigs |
|
hog |
large swine more then 120 pounds |
|
number one concern with swine operations |
air quality due to pigs excrement making ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, carbon monoxide, methane |
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pig TPR |
T=101-103.5 P=60-90 R=10-24 |
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How many teeth do pigs have |
44 |
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What are pigs injected with to prevent anemia |
iron |
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atrophic rhinitis |
deformation of upper jaw, coughing and sneezing in pigs caused by bacteria |
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Pseudorabies |
like rabies in pigs but DNA enveloped herpes virus |
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Malignant hyperthermia porcine syndrome |
muscle cells with impaired ability to regulate calcium causing hyperthermia under sedation |
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parakeratosis |
zinc deficiency in pigs that causes rough scaly skin |
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Rickets |
lack of calcium, phosphorous or vit d in pigs that causes slow growth with crooked legs |
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erysipelas |
diamond skin disease, from bacteria |
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Vaccines in pigs? for pet pigs |
-tons for pigs especially in production: abortive-lepto, brucella Gi diseases-salmonella, ecoli Respiratory-bordetella, pastuella Neurologic-pseudorabies, rabies -pet pigs: rabies, clostridium, tetanus, erysipelas, bordetella, pasturella |
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Dam |
adult female camelid |
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harem |
group of female camelids |
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gelding |
male castrated camelid |
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cria |
baby camelid |
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cush |
sitting position of camelids |
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how often are camelids sheered? |
once a year, takes 18 months for fiber to regrow, first sheer is worth more |
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Camelid TPR |
T=99-101.5 P=60-90 R=10-30 |
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Camelid teeth eruption? |
central incisors-2 years second incisors- 3 years lateral incisors- 3-5 years male fighting teeth-3 years |
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total number of camelid teeth |
26 female 32 males |
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Vaccines for camelids |
rabies, clostridium/tetnus (CDT) |
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Failure of passive transfer |
colostrum antibodies are not absorbed by the neonate or not enough are absorbed to be healthy |
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Ewe |
adult female sheep |
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ram |
adult male sheep |
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wether |
castrated male sheep/goat |
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lamb |
baby sheep |
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Doe or nanny |
mature female goat |
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buck or billy |
mature male goat |
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kid |
baby goat |
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TPR of sheep and goat |
T=101-103 P=70-90 R=12-25 |
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Goat teeth total |
32 |
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Famancha scoring |
using ocular mucous membranes to measure the MM color to check anemia |
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How to collect urine from a sheep? |
Hold nostrils and mouth shut for 45 seconds will typically pee |
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Collect urine from a goat |
place in new stall often pee |
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Vaccines for goats/sheep |
CDT (clostridium and tetnus), rabies |
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Caseous lymphadenitis |
common in goats and sheep. abcesses at lymph nodes and chin, cottage cheese like sores |
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Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy |
prion, mad cow in sheep |
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Contagious ecthyma |
soremouth, virus |
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Ovine prograssive pneumonia |
viral, only sheep, causes bad pneumonia |
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Entropion |
eye lid is rolled in sheep |
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polio |
thiamine deficiency in goats and sheep |
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listeria |
bacterial infection causeing facial paralysis |
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Pregnancy toxcemia |
similar to ketosis in cattle, happens when pregnant |
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How to collect semen? |
Elcetroejaculation artificial vagina natural stimulation |
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Equine repro info?
|
seasonally polyestrus urine flush and infusion for insemination |
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Bovine repro info? |
year-round polyestrous |
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Ovine/ Caprine repro infor |
Ovine: seasonally polyestrous Caprine: type of cylce varies among species |
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Camelid repro info? |
Polyestrous |
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Porcine repro info? |
polyestrous |
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repro drugs |
progesterone-keep animal in heat, help maintain pregnancy (regumate) gonadotropin releasing hormone- help follicles grow FSH- stimulation follicle Gonadotropins- induce ovulation in horses PGF2 alpha- lyses CL (lutalase) |
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Gestation periods? |
equine: 11 months 305 days bovine: 283 days Ovine: 148 days Caprine: 151 days Camelids: 11 months to 1 year 335 days Porcine: 3 month, 3 weeks, 3 days (114 days) |
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Illegal drugs in food animals |
chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO), nitrofurazone, phenylbutazone, aminoglycosides |
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Procaine penicillin |
works well for deep wounds, has longer withholding times |
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polyflex/ampicillin |
used for pneumonia, GI infection, post surgical, mastitis in cattle broad spec antibiotic withdrawal times very accurate |
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oxytetracycline |
good at killing bacteria in cells used for toxic mastitis, pinkeye, metritis, lyme, potomac horse fever, anaplasma |
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mastitis tubes |
milk culture for non responsive infections important withholding guides today version for lactation tomorrow version for dry |
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Naxcel and excenel |
for foot rot, metritis, pheumonia, no milk withhold time. Don't use in mastitis doesn't go to utter |
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Excede |
long lasting broad spectrum antibiotic no milk withhold, don't use with mastitis |
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nuflor and draxxin |
long acting antibiotic for pneumonia |
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banamine |
NSAID for pain inflammation and fever always give IV |
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bute (phenylbutazone) |
illegal in cattle orthopedic pain in horses |
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Baytril |
Sub q use in cattle and pigs only, IV in horses good for broad spec antibiotic for those allergic to penacillin |
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tetracycline/doxycycline/minocycline |
lyme, anaplasma treatment in horses |
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sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim |
most common antibiotic in horses |
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sedatives |
rompum (xylazine)- use small amounts in ruminants dormosedan-very strong dont use in ruminants butorphenol- helps relax muscles acepromazine- penile paralysis in male stallions guaifenesin- muscle relaxant ketamine- most often used |
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llama lullaby |
sedation with ketamine, torb and xylozine |
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triple drip |
for horses: guaifenesin ketamine, xylazine |
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double drip |
ruminents: guaifenesin and ketamine |
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adequan |
joint injections for horses |
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sub-palpebral lavage system |
allows easier delivery of eye meds |
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DMPLO |
dorsal medial plantar lateral oblique |
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DLPMO |
dorsal lateral plantar medial oblique |
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lameness exam |
full limb flexion tests specific joint flexion tests timing and trotting diagnostic nerve block practice makes perfect grade lameness (0-5) |
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Neuro exam |
grade 0-5 |
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dry matter |
food type when completely dry |
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TMR |
total mixed ration- mixing all different food components in dairy feed |
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nutrient requirements |
water, carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals |
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Carbohydrates are? |
sugars, starch and fiber |
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silage |
fermented feed from the whole stock |
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fescue toxicity |
hay that causes toxicity and stops mares from lactating |
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copper |
sheep very sensitive too |
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Rumentin |
Coccidiastat in cow fed that is bad for horses |
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True or False: A rectal prolapse is an urgent, life threatening emergency, but a uterine prolapse can wait until later in the day. |
False |
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Pinkeye is spread by...... |
flies |
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White muscle disease is often associated with.... deficiency. |
Selenium |
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True or False: Clostridial diseases are NOT spread from animal to animal. |
True |
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Which of the following is NOT a clostridial disease? a. Tetanus b. Mumps c. Botulism d. food poisoning e. gangrene |
b. mumps |
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clostridium is an aerobic, spore-forming motile rod- the spores can survive up to...... on inanimate surfaces that are exposed to oxygen. |
2 years |
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Black leg is an acute, highly fatal disease that affects....... and ......... |
cows and sheep |
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Botulism, in most cases, is a fatal disease- without showing any signs of disease, many animals will be found..... after ingesting a large amount of toxin. |
dead |
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What teeth are removed to prevent interference with the bit in the horses mouth? |
Wolf teeth |
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True or False: Horses have brachydont teeth which continue to move up from the jaw above the gum line (erupt) over a number of years. |
False: they have hypsodont teeth |
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While EEE mainly causes disease in horses and other equids, what other animals have NOT been known to have been infected? |
Raccoons |
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True or False: EEE/WEE/WNV are vector-borne diseases which means they can infect horses and humans through the bite of a mosquito |
True |
|
How is EEE/WEE/WNV spread? |
Through the bite of an infected mosquito |
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Why are EEE/WEE/WNV usually collectively called equine viral encephalomyelitides? a.they all affect the central nervous system of a horse and can be fatal b. they can be confused with one another even though they are completely different viruses and are treated differently c. because they are zoonotic diseases d. none of the above |
a. |
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Where was the first recorded case of West Nile Virus? |
CT |
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Rumensin is toxic to..... |
horses |
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..... are the most toxic part of the nightshade plant |
green berries |
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What toxin is produced by the seeds, foliage and bark of the wild cherry tree? |
Hydrogen cyanide |
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Though they must ingest large quantities of it, animals who ingest Bracken fern exhibit signs of? |
Polio |
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Pokeweed produces this toxin: |
phytolaccotoxin |
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what makes a plant poisonous? |
alkaloids, cyanide, prussic acid, glycosides, thiaminase, nitrates, gallic acid |
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Photosensitization is... |
skin lacking pigment becomes susceptible to ultraviolet light because of photodynamic agents |
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Rhododendron |
toxic plant containing glycosides in all parts symptoms are tremors and fever typical in goats |
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Red maple |
Leaves contain gallic acid cause hemolytic anemia and kidney damage adult horses must consume 1.5 pound dose to be toxic |
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Black Walnut |
bark, wood, nuts and roots are toxic horses it can be in shavings cause depression, lethargy, laminitis, and swelling of lower limbs |
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Wild cherry |
seeds, foliage and bark produce hydrogen cyanide leaves most dangerous when wilted 2.5 lb dose toxic for 1000 lb animal symptoms are bright red blood and death death occurs in 20-30 mins |
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Japanese yew |
contains taxine extremely toxic to all mammals as little as a mouthful can be fatal in 30 mins |
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Pokeweed |
it produces a phytolaccotaxin roots are most toxic part, but leaves and stems are also toxic symptoms: burning sensation in mouth, low grade chronic colic, diarrhea |
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Nightshade plants |
alkaloids in leaves, shoots and berries affects central nervous system and GI tract 1-10 lbs toxic to 1000lb animal |
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Bracken fern |
Leaves contain thiaminase animals must consume hundreds of pounds for affects signs of polio treat with thiamine injection |
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Monensin-rumensin |
additive to cattle feed prevents coccydia in cattle but toxic to horses |
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rodenticides |
diphenadione is vit k blocker blocks clotting cascade toxic to all mammals |
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Brucellosis |
zoonotic that affects animals ability to reproduce spread through raw milk to humans bacteria |
|
Campylobacter |
spread through contaminated food, water or direct fecal oral route cause diarrhea, cramping, abdominal pain, fever bacteria |
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E coli |
bacteria transmitted via food or direct contact severe stomach cramps, diarrhea, vomiting |
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Leptospirosis |
bacteria contaminated water of body fluids lead to kidney or liver failure fever, headaches, chills, vomiting, rash |
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Listeria |
bacteria spread via food, soil or water signs: drooping ears or lips, neuro signs shed in milk and causes abortion |
|
MRSA type staphs |
methicillan resistant staph aureus bacteria passed through direct contact |
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Tuberculosis |
bacteria weight loss, fever, persistent cough people more likely to get infected if drink raw milk or cheese or undercooked meat |
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Q fever |
bacteria spread via contaminated milk, breathing dust or contact with feces or urine or placenta of infected flu like symptoms |
|
What animals do not get lyme disease? |
cows and cats (ruminants sheep and goats) |
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Salmonella |
bacteria in food water or contact with contamination most common zoonotic in horses |
|
dermatophilosis |
bacteria, rain-rot spread via touch |
|
ringworm |
dermatophytes fungus |
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Porcine and avian influenza |
viral signs:coughing, sneezing, discharge from nose or eyes |
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Rabies |
Viral neuro disease infect through bite or saliva contact on open wound signs: behavioral changes and neuro deadly once symptoms appear |
|
vesicular stomatitis |
viral, blisters on mouth or penis spread via contact |
|
Soremouth |
contagious ecthyma-viral affects sheep and goats sores on mouth |
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Crypto |
parasite spread through contaminated food, water or direct contact abdominal pain, and profuse watery diarrhea self limiting and resolves in 2-3 weeks |
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Rhinopneumonitis is caused by..... |
equine herpesvirus |
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True or false: diagnostics for rhinopneumonitis can distinguish whether or not the disease is active or latent. |
True |
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High levels of..... and...... can cause the equine herpesvirus to reactivate in latent tissue, leading to rhinopneumonitis |
stress and corticosteroids |
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rhinopneumonitis can have severe.... symptoms. a. respiratory b. reproductive c. neurologic d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
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the prognosis for rhinopneumonitis is poor in horses who have..... symptoms and worse in those who are..... |
neurologic and recumbent |
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Extra label is defined as: a. used in a species not listed on the label b. for an indication not on the label c. different dose, frequency, or route of administration that the label d. all of the above |
d. all of the above |
|
all of these drugs are illegal to use in food animals except: a.dimethylsulfoxide (DMSO) b.nitrofurazone c. fenbendazole d. gentamicin |
c. fenbendazole |
|
true or false: horses cannot metabolize prednisone |
true |
|
this is a common NSAID used in all large animals for pain, inflammation and fever a. baytril b. banamine c. previcox d. meloxicam |
b. banamine |
|
the most common antibiotic used in horses a. enrofloxacin (baytril) b. gentamicin c doxycycline d. sulfamethoxazole (uniprim or smz) |
d. sulfamethoxazole (uniprim or smz) |
|
the route of transmission of leptospirosis is |
contact with the urine or water of contaminated animals with mucus membranes or breaks in the skin |
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common signs of leptospirosis in horses include all except which of the following a. fever b. loss of appetite c. hives d. lethargy |
d. lethargy |
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leptospirosis in horse can lead to all of the following except a. dental disease b. equine recurrent uveitis c. abortion d. renal or liver failure |
a. dental disease |
|
which is the definitive method of diagnosing leptospirosis |
culture or immunofluorescence staining |
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True or false: is there a vaccine available to prevent leptospirosis in horses |
true.. yes there is a vaccine available |
|
what is the bacteria that causes lumpy jaw a. actinomyces bovis b. mycobacterium bovis c. action bacillus lignieresii d. escherichia coli |
a. actinomyces bovis |
|
true or false: Lancing the lump on the jaw will help with healing |
false |
|
what animal is most common to get lumpy jaw? |
cattle |
|
True or false: there is a vaccine to prevent lumpy jaw |
false |
|
what are common symptoms of lumpy jaw a. lumps forming on the joints inside the mouth b. swollen and still tissues inside of the mouth c irregular loss of teeth d. all of the above |
d. all of the above |
|
how many stages are there in zoo notice diseases |
5 |
|
what can brucellosis cause |
abortion |
|
True or false: ringworm is a parasite |
false |
|
what is a zoo notice disease |
disease that can be passed between animals and humans in both directions |
|
how can you protect yourself from zoonotic diseases a. handwashing b. wearing gloves c. don't consume raw milk d. all of the above |
d. all of the above |
|
what does DCAD stand for? what is its significance with regards to milk fever? |
dietary cation anion difference negative DCAD or acid dietary ions have been shown to reduce likely hood of milk fever |
|
which breed is considered most susceptible to milk fever? why? |
jerseys, as a smaller breed with a demand for a higher nutrient content in their milk |
|
True or false: IV calcium must be given rapidly as possible to get the necessary calcium into the blood stream |
false it can mess up the heart rate and cause death |
|
what is the difference between milk fever and eclampsia a. milk fever presents prior to calving while eclampsia presents after birth or whelping b. eclampsia presents prior to birth or whelping, while milk fever presents at or after calving c. both present before partition d. both present after partition |
d. eclampsia presents prior to birth o whelping , while milk fever presents at or after calving |
|
which one of the following symptoms is not a potential sign of clinical milk fever? a. high body temperature d. muscle tremors c. down cow posture d. dystocia e. all of the above |
a. high body temperature |
|
when are the most cases of Potomac horse fever seen |
summer |
|
True or false: symptoms of Potomac horse fever can include inappetence, fever, diarrhea, and edema of the legs |
true |
|
Potomac horse fever is diagnosed by: a. radiographs b. ultrasounds c. testing blood and feces |
c. testing blood and feces |
|
Potomac horse fever is treated by: |
oxytetracycline |
|
True or false: potomac horse fever is caused by a virus |
False |
|
True or false: dry matter is the measurement of food type when completely dried with all water removed |
True |
|
Which of the following is a high protein forage? straw, soybeans or corn stocks |
soy beans |
|
if a dead animal gets rolled up into a hay bale, what diseases are horses susceptible to? |
clostridium (botulism) |
|
True or false: it is okay to feed medicated cattle feed to horses. Why or why not? |
False, risk of death with coccidostat |
|
The rumen and cecum synthesizes what essential vitamin? |
Vitamin c |
|
What does TMR stand for and who do we feed it to? |
Total mixed ration, dairy cattle |
|
Name three nutritional requirements |
water, carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals |
|
Which of the following are different routes of water loss? a. urine b. hair c. both d. none of the above |
a. urine (also sweating breathing pooping) |
|
Which one of these hays are easily digested? a. alfalfa b. bermuda c. clover d. oat |
a. alfalfa |
|
which one of these hays should not be ingested by pregnant horses? a. orchard grass b. fescue c. timothy d. clover |
b. fescue |
|
Where does impaction colic occur? a. small intestineb. colon c. cecum d. all of the above |
d. all of the above ( most common impaction is the pelvic flexture) |
|
What is the main cause of impaction colic? |
dehydration |
|
Name three symptoms of colic |
pawing, nudging at abdomen, rolling, bloating, sweating, distress, uneasiness, loss of interest in food and water, peculiar postures, and absence of gut sounds |
|
If client calls and fearing colic what should you advise them? |
to get the horse up and moving around until the vet arrives |
|
What is the name of the most common large colon obstruction? |
pelvic flexure impaction |
|
Treatment for small colon impactions are |
break down mass with hose and water. if it doesn't work, enterotomy and removal of impaction |
|
what is the name of the drug we typically give colic for pain first? |
flunixin (brand name) or banamine |
|
How can you get a urine sample from a billy (buck) goat? |
Place them in a new stall or pen area, they will typically mark the area |
|
Where do you rub a cow to stimulate urination? |
The estucian or below the vulva area |
|
Polio is caused by a deficiency in which vitamin? |
Thiamine/ B1
|
|
What is a classic sign of listeria in sheep in goats? |
facial nerve paralysis |
|
Caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats is zoonotic to which animals? |
Horses (caseous lymphadenitis= cottage cheese pus in lymph node area, bacterial infection) |
|
Which drug is toxic at low doses in sheep and goats and should be diluted and used with great care? |
lidocaine |
|
How can you get a urine sample from a sheep? |
Hold the nostrils and mouth shut for 45 seconds or rubbing below the vulva like a cow |
|
Why is tail docking done in sheep? |
the wool holds urine and feces which can cause a maggot infection |
|
What is an external sign of caseous lymphadentitis? a. abscessed lymph node on chin b. weight gain c. seizures d. wool or hair loss |
a. abscessed lymph node on chin |
|
What is the causeative agent of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (scrapie)? |
prion |
|
What is a clinical sign of contagious ecthyma? |
lesions in oral cavity |
|
Which animal is most susceptible to Johne's disease? |
Dairy cows/ ruminants |
|
What is the average amount of time that an animal can be infected with Johne's before they show signs? |
3-5 years |
|
What can be the infectious dose of Johne's disease? |
less then a pencil tip, bacteria |
|
What are the most common signs of Johne's disease? |
rapid weight loss/ diarrhea |
|
what is the survival rate for an animal with Johne's disease? |
0% |
|
Equine has which type of placenta? |
diffuse |
|
What has a diffuse placenta? |
Horses and camelids |
|
What has discoid placenta |
humans |
|
what has zonary placentas? |
dogs and cats |
|
what has cotyledonary placenta? |
ruminants (cows sheep and goats) |
|
which is NOT a sign of late gestation? a. edema of the legs b. frequent urination c. stays close to the herd d. behavioral changes |
c. stays close to the herd
|
|
On average how long does bovine parturition last total? |
10-16 hours |
|
how long after birth is passive transfer of antibodies-colostrum able to pass from the gut into the body? |
24 hours |
|
Which is NOT part of a physical exam for a neonate? a. hearing b. temperature c. temperature d. ocular |
a. hearing |
|
What are the three stages of parturition? |
Stage 1-prelabor Stage 2- active labor Stage 3- passing of the placenta |
|
What are 2 causes of Dystocia?
|
uterine torsion, uterine inertia, multiple fetuses, malformation, malpresentation |
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What is important to consider after birth? a. oxygenation/ pulse assessment and temperature regulation b. care of the umbilical cord and umbilicus, dipping with iodine or chlorhexadine c. nutrition and nursing and bonding of the mother and neonate d. passage of meconium and adequacy of passive transfer of antibodies e. all of the above |
e. all of the above |
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What is meconium? |
dark substances in the newborns intestines, passes as the first feces of a newborn |
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What is ferotomy? |
cutting off sections to allow dead fetus to pass without doing a c-section |
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True or false: dried powder colostrum can be purchased and mixed with water and bottle fed |
True: usually do this for cows can be frozen to preserve as well |
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True or false: sheep and goats are typically given IV plasma to correct a failure of passive transfer but horses and camelids are not |
False: horses get it |
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What are some common causes of failure of passive transfer in newborns? |
mom rejects baby, waited to long to nurse, mom not producing enough milk, fescue causes mom not to produce milk (toxic plant effect) |
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How can an IgG level be tested in a foal? What is an acceptable level? |
blood test, over 800 |
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bloat occurs in which part of the cow? |
rumen and reticulum will see on left side |
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when consumed, which causes highest risk of bloat in cattle? |
wet clover |
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name 2 causes of bloat |
ingestion of toxic plant mass or tumor Vagas indigestion |
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what is a sign of bloat |
distended left abdomnen |
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how do you treat bloat |
place tube and push gas out or troclar it with a puncture in side if bubble frothy bloat |
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treatment for frothy bloat is called..... it works by breaking up the...... to make ...... |
therabloat, bubbles, free gas |
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during which stage of the estrous cycle does ovulation occur? |
estrus |
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True or false: electro ejaculation probes are placed into the rectum to stimulate ejaculation |
True use in cos sheep goats can in pigs but shouldnt |
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Why might a horse breeding program use embryo transfer |
if a high performance mare is bred and the embryo is transfered she can still perform |
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which of the following semen preservation techniques has shown to be the least effective |
cryopreserved or frozen |
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what hormone can be given to an animal to induce superovulation |
follicle stimulating hormone |
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which type of large animal is an induced ovulator |
camelids male goes up entire horn |
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in the birthing process stage 2 is expulsion of the........ stage 3 is expulsion of the......... |
fetus, placenta |
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short day breeders breed during the ..... |
Fall and late winter sheep and goats |
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artificial insemination a. decreases disease b. makes less work c. decreases conception rate d. increases injury |
a. decreased disease |
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when a fetus is delivered what is the first thing you should check? |
oxygenation |
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True or false: a horse doesn't get very sick from having a retained placenta, but a cow can get systemically I'll from it |
false |
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which mechanical vector spreads equine infectious anemia |
horsefly |
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what is the incubation period of EIAV |
15-45+ |
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the acute phase of EIAV last..... to ..... days where symptoms include fever lethargy and low platelet counts |
1 3 |
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an EIAV positive horse is known as a ..... and 24 hours after becoming obe, these horses must be placed under quarantine |
reactor If positive must call state vet and quarantine |
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All quarantines horse must be kept..... yards from all other equids |
200 endemic in wild horses |
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True or false: subpalpebral lavage system is mostly used in horses but may be used in other species |
true |
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which way should you wrap a horses leg to prevent a bowed tendon? |
from the inside to the outside around to the front |
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what does DMPLO mean when taking a radiography of a horses leg |
dorsal medial plantar lateral oblique |
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99.9% of time where are IV fluids administered to large animals |
jugular vein |
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name 3 things a dipstick urinalysis would show |
blood, ketones, ph |
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what does compartment syndrome refer to and what can yoh do to avoid it in a patient? |
down animal having lack of blood flow to a muscle for a long time. rotate the side they are laying on |
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what does the term fresh cow mean? |
Just recently gave birth , newly milking |
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how are two ways beef cattle are marketed? |
pound or grade |
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how is CAE teansmitted |
through infected milk, airborne |
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what are common clinical signs of a goat with CAE |
arthritis, encephalitis, pneumonia, mastitis |
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is there a cure for CAE |
no, once a goat is infected with CAE it is a lifelong virus, no vaccine |
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which animal does not have an fda approved rabies vaccine |
goats |
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can other species other than goats get infected with CAEv |
yes |
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what would one do if there was an infected goat on a farm? |
keep it quarantined and if it was near any other animals quarantine them test the herd for levels |
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what is bottle jaw |
edema caused by parasites |
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which animal does bottle jaw mostly affected |
sheep and goats |
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what is a way that you can catch bottle jaw before it occurs? |
Fama change scoring/ anemia guide, eyelid on scale, scale of 4 |
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what is the cut off for a fecal egg count- above this number means a lot of adult worms are present |
300 eggs per gram |
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how can brisket edema be treated |
deworm the animal and the swelling will resolve |
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how many compartments does a camelid stomach have and what are they called |
3 c1 c2 c3 |
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what is the CDT vaccination for |
clostrodium c and d and tetnus |
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what is a common problem with crias |
failure of passive transfer |
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Why don't we typically do IV catheterization on camelids |
veins blow easily |
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crias receive plasma transfusions for what health issue |
failure of passive transfer sometimes given into abdomen if can't give IV |
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what should you not feed camelids because the bard can cause ulcers |
oats |
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how old should a camelid be before he is castrated? why |
2 years, because it helps bone development to keep them through growth |
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what type of animal is very clean and uses a dung pile |
camelids |
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what's the difference between clinical and subclinical mastitis |
clinical you can see blood, pus in the milk subclinical need CMT to detect can't see |
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what is a CMT |
California mastitis test |
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Why would you treat a dry cow with a mastitis tube |
to stop any current subclinical infection and prevent infections during the dry period |
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how do you test for mastitis |
culture the milk CMT |
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who does mastitis affect |
any mammal lactating |
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what are environmental mastitis pathogens called |
coli forms |
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what is a common cause of mastitis |
e coli |
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intact male pigs cannot be marketed for meat for what reason |
boar taint |
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what is the cause of rickets a. lack of phosphorus d. lack of calcium c. lack of vitamin d d. all of the above |
d. all of the above lack of proper nutrition |
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which of the following is a swine deworm a. panacur b. revolution c. heart guard |
panacur |
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which is not a vaccine for a pet swine a. tetanus b. clostridium c. rabies d. influenza |
d. influenza |
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what is porcine stress syndrome |
muscle cells have an impaired ability to regulate calcium sudden high fever |
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True or false: stangles is a highly zoonotic disease |
false bacteria |
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what is the incubation period for a horse with strangles |
3 to 14 days |
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what is the fastest way to test for strangles |
pcr testing looks at rna or dna |
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what should a horse infected with strangles be fed |
moist palatable food |
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how is strangles transmitted a. via nasal discharge b. from a fly that has landed on another infected horse c. contaminated d. all of the above |
d. all of the above |
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what animal is the only known definately host for EPM |
opossum |
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what are 4 clinical signs of EPM |
ataxia, general weakness, muscle spasticity, neuro signs, lameness, gait asymmetry, focal muscle atrophy, incoordination, loss of body condition, paralysis of eye face or mouth muscles, airway abnormalities, difficulty swallowing, seizures, collapse, adnormal sweating, loss of sensation in face neck or body, head tilt |
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giving folic acid to animals being treated for EPM is important for what reason? |
some treatments inhibit folic acid uptake in the parasite but also affect the horse so supplementation is needed |
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what is EPM |
disease caused by parasite that affects the central nervous system of the horse |
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True or false: epm is contagious between horses, a horse should be quarantined if positive for EPM |
false horse is dead end host |
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what is more common an LDA or RDA |
LDA |
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what clinical findings would you see with a DA |
decreased milk production, reduced feces, anorexia, ketones in urine |
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what are 2 ways of correcting an LDA |
roll and toggle, surgery |
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what factors may determine the course of treatment for DA? |
preference, economical situation, condition of patient, available facilities |
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what is the cause of ketosis |
energy demand exceeds energy intake resulting in a negative energy balance give DCAD diet before becoming fresh to prevent |
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what urine changes are associated with DA |
acid urine and ketones in the urine |
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rumensin is toxic to.... |
horses |
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..... are the most toxic part of the nightshade plant |
green berries |
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what toxin is produced by the seeds, foliage and bark of the wild cherry tree |
hydrogen cyanide |
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though they must ingest large quantities of it, animals who ingest bracken fern exhibit clinical signs of.... |
polio |
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bracken fern produces what compound that causes it clinical signs |
thiminase |
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if you feel a strong pulse in a horses leg what is this a possible indication of |
pain or inflammation in the foot, laminitis, abcess |
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how many zones do you listen to wen you as cult a horses adbomen |
4 |
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what physical trait do you use to age horses |
their teeth |
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name 3 illegal drugs in food animals |
chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, DMSO, nitrofurazone, phenylbutazone, aminoglycosides |
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explain what VPCR and extra label drug usage are |
veterinary patient client relationship must be present to use drugs in a way which not approved or labeled for |
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True or false: procaine penicillin and oxytetracycline are both antibiotics that you need a prescription to obtain |
false |
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name 2 examples of NSAIDS used in large animal medicine |
meloxicam, firocoxcib, phenylbutazone, flunixin, but and banamine |
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the most common oral antibiotic used in horses is |
sulfamethoxazole SMZ/trimethoprim |
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True or false: xylazine is 100 times more potent an alpha 2 sedation then detomidine |
false detomidine is more powerful |
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meningeal worm is a parasite that comes from what mammal |
white tail deer |
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what are clinical signs associated with meningeal worm infections |
neurologic signs like weakness in hind end |
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which animal are at most risk of this disease |
camelids most commonly but also sheep and goats |
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we use....... to treat meningeal worm because of its ability to cross the ....... |
panacur/safeguard/fenbendazole blood brain barrier |
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meningeal worm disease is caused by.... |
a larval migration to the spinal cord parasite |
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true or false: dermatophilus is a bacteria that causes rain rot |
true |
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dermatophyte is..... |
ringworm |
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True or false: animals infected with rabies take anywhere from 2 to 5 weeks to show clinical signs after infection. |
false. 6 months for virus to reach clinical active or bites are 14 day |
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crypto is a ........ disease that causes....... |
parasitic diarrhea |
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vessicular stomatitis is found in what part of the us |
southwest- Texas and new mexico |
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Q fever is a fever caused by a ......... and contracted from....... |
bacteria sheep/goats |
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name 2 examples of a zoonotic cause for diarrhea |
salmonella, campy, e coli, crypto |
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the most common cause of zoonotic diarrhea in the horse |
salmonella |
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rodenticide block or bind......... that blocks the clotting cascade and causes death |
vitamin k |
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as little as a mouthful of........ can be fatal as it is extremely toxic to all mammals |
japanese yew |
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the most toxic part of an oak tree is the....... |
acorns |
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true or false: secondary photosensitization occurs when a photodynamic agent is ingested, injected or absorbed through the skin |
false, this is primary, secondary is due to other |
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the degree of toxic danger a plant pass depends on its..... |
Prevalence, palatability, toxicity |
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laminitis is a complex disease characterized by......... of the extremely delicate and sensitive structures of the hoof called lamellae |
inflammation |
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True or false: in most cases, laminitis is due to a primary or underlying disease, condition or insult |
true |
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All of the following are possible causes of laminitis except: a. fat overload b. a retained placenta c. a leg injury |
fat overload |
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a classic sign of laminitis is...... |
a bounding digital pulse |
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true or false: overweight horses are at a higher risk of developing laminitis |
true |