Hm3 Study Guide

Front 1

All personnel entering periods of duty > ____ must have a result of skin test in record.

Back 1

30

Front 2

5tu = __ml

Back 2

.1

Front 3

If reactors in one group of people are > ___ %, look for active case.

Back 3

2.5%

Front 4

An infected person has a __% lifetime chance of developing TB

Back 4

5%

Front 5

If the person returns after 3 days but less than 10 and the inderation is 0-14mm, make an entry of ____ ____

Back 5

not read.

Front 6

TB non-reactor is a person with < ___mm of induration to a 5tu TB skin test

Back 6

5mm

Front 7

Use disposable __ml syringe fitted with a ___ ga needle.

Back 7

1ml, 25ga

Front 8

If the person returns from 3-10 days and the inderation is __mm or more, treat the person as a reactor.

Back 8

15

Front 9

A reactor of equal to or greater than __mm gets INH therapy regardless of age.

Back 9

10

Front 10

In cases where TB is resistant to INH or Patient is allergic, use ______ at a ___mg dose

Back 10

Rifampin, 600

Front 11

If inderation measurement falls between 2m divisions of scale, use ___ region.

Back 11

lower

Front 12

INH dose = ___mg every day for __ months

Back 12

300, 6

Front 13

Measles

Back 13

one dose

Front 14

Pneumococcal polysacharide

Back 14

1 dose

Front 15

Cholera

Back 15

0,6 months

Front 16

Rabies

Back 16

5 doses, 0,3,7,14,28 days

Front 17

Typhoid Live

Back 17

4 doses po on alternate days every 5 years

Front 18

Plague

Back 18

3 doses, 1ml at 0, .2ml at 1-3 months after, .2ml 3-6 months after second dose.

Front 19

Polio IPV

Back 19

one dose

Front 20

Varicella

Back 20

2 doses 0 and 4-8 weeks

Front 21

Adenovirus

Back 21

1 dose, po.

Front 22

Yellow Fever

Back 22

one dose every 10 years.

Front 23

HBV(Hep B recombinant)

Back 23

0,1,6 months

Front 24

Mumps

Back 24

one dose

Front 25

Pnumococcal vaccine should be routinely given to personnel over age ____

Back 25

65

Front 26

Anthrax

Back 26

0,2 week,4 week, 6 month, 12 months, 18 months.

Front 27

Polio OPV

Back 27

one dose .5ml po

Front 28

Tetanus

Back 28

Every 10 years

Front 29

Haemophilus Influenza b

Back 29

0, 2 months

Front 30

JE Vaccine

Back 30

0,7,30 days

Front 31

Avoid pregnancy ____ months after varicella and ____ months after all other vaccines

Back 31

1 month and three month

Front 32

Typhoid (VICPS)

Back 32

1 dose every 2 years

Front 33

Typhoid Live

Back 33

4 doses po on alternate days every 5 years

Front 34

Adenovirus types 4 and 7

Back 34

administered orally and simultaneously on a one time basis to recruits

Front 35

What makes a reaction adverse?

Back 35

Hospitilization is required or more than 24 hrs of duty is lost.

Front 36

What does ACIP stand for?

Back 36

U.S. Public Health Service Advisory COmmittee on Immunization Practices.

Front 37

BUMEDINST 6230.15

Back 37

Immunizations and Chemoprohylaxis

Front 38

Recruits receive what shots?

Back 38

-adenovirus types 4 and 7
-influenza
-mmr
-meningococcal
-oral polio virus
-tentanus-diptheria

Front 39

what prevention counseling is given about malaria

Back 39

mosquito avoidance, personal protective measues and chemoprophylaxis

Front 40

When deploying or traveling to high risk areas personnel may receive?

Back 40

- JE vaccine
- meningococcal
- typhoid

Front 41

Who grant immunization waivers for Navy and Marine Corps personnel?

Back 41

Chief, BUMED

Front 42

what kind of setting generate,transport,store,treat,or dispose of potentially infectious material

Back 42

occupational

Front 43

how do you package and handle anatomical waste

Back 43

double-wall corrugated boxes/rigid containers that are double-lined with plastic bags

Front 44

what is the method of treatment for microbiological

Back 44

steam sterilization
chemical disinfectin
incineration

Front 45

liquid or solid waste,sharps,microbiology waste, etc are what kind of waste

Back 45

infectious waste

Front 46

how do you handle sharp container

Back 46

the container has to be closed and put in a sec container or bag which is label/color coded

Front 47

waste from pt diagnosis, treatment, or immunization are subdivided into what two categories

Back 47

infectious and non-infectious

Front 48

for effective sterilization the temp must be maintained at

Back 48

121c(250F) for 90 min at 15 psi

Front 49

what is the method of treatment and disposal of bulk blood and other infectious liquid

Back 49

gelatinization

sanitary sewer/landfill

Front 50

infectious waste treatment is achieved through what kind of destruction

Back 50

incineration,heat,chemicals, radiation

Front 51

the storage area for the waste should be located where

Back 51

at or near the treatment or transport site

Front 52

how do you separate infectious waste from noninfectious waste

Back 52

at the point of orgin

Front 53

BUMED INST 6280.1A

Back 53

MANAGEMENT OF INFECTIOUS WASTE

Front 54

what is the method of treatment and disposal of pathological

Back 54

incineration /cremation

sanitary landfill/burial

Front 55

how long can you keep waste in storage without refrigeration

Back 55

7 days

Front 56

what is the method of disposal for microbiological

Back 56

sanitary landfill

Front 57

how do you handle blood, suctioned fluidsor other liquid waste

Back 57

the waste may be decanted into clinical sinks unless it's prohibited by state or local regulations

Front 58

what is the treatment and disposal of sharps in sharp containers

Back 58

steam sterilization/incineration
sanitary landfill

Front 59

diapers,facial tissues,and absorbent materials are what kind of waste

Back 59

noninfectious waste

Front 60

Pathologicals can be disposed of by

Back 60

- sanitary landfill
- burial

Front 61

Purpose of BUMEDINST 6280.1A

Back 61

to provide minimal standards for management of infectious waste

Front 62

Commanders, COs, and OICs ensure what?

Back 62

that guidelines of BUMEDINST 6280.1A are adopted and that everything complies with state and local regulations

Front 63

How often is training conducted on the management of infectious waste?

Back 63

time of initial assignment and annual

Front 64

Steam sterilization

Back 64

-temp is set at 121 C / 250 F for 90 minutes, at 15 lbs per square inch
-bacillus stearothermophilis spore strips must be used weekly to test

Front 65

Chemical disinfection

Back 65

- most appropriate for liquids

Front 66

What should be included in the recording of infectious waste?

Back 66

date, type, and amount

Front 67

Can blood be washed down a sink?

Back 67

Yes, but only a clinical sink or one used for that purpose

Front 68

Who approves the purchase or leasing of an infectious waste treatment system?

Back 68

BUMED

Front 69

Define infectiosu waste

Back 69

liquid or solid waste that contains pathogens

Front 70

What should mark all infectious waste?

Back 70

universal biohazard symbol

Front 71

blood or bodily fluids can be disposed of by

Back 71

gelatinization

Front 72

WHO IS CONSIDERED NON DEPLOYABLE STAFF?

Back 72

COMMANDER,DEPUTY COMMANDER,CMC,RLO,OIC AT BMC

Front 73

WHAT IS T-AH?

Back 73

USNS COMFORT OR USNS MERCY

Front 74

HOW ARE EQUIPMENT SETS NAMED?

Back 74

PRIOR TO DEPLOYMENT, EQUIPMENT SETS ARE NUMBERED, UPON ACTIVATION, THE FH ASSUMES THE NAME OF THE PRIMARY SOURCING COMMAND

Front 75

HOW MANY FH'S ARE THERE?

Back 75

10. SIX ACTIVE AND 4 RESERVED

Front 76

LIST 5 PLATFORMS CURRENTLY USEDE IN ORDER OF PRIORITY

Back 76

1.CRTS 2.MARFOR 3.T-AH 4.FH OCONUS MTF'S 5.OTHER ACTIVITIES (STAFF HQ,ASWBPL)

Front 77

ARE FEMALES ALLOWED IN FH'S?

Back 77

YES. DEPENDING ON THEIR BERTHING LIMITATIONS

Front 78

HOW MANY COMPONENTS MAKE UP A DEPLOYED FH?

Back 78

MANPOWER SET AND EQUIPMENT SET

Front 79

WHAT IS CORE?

Back 79

PERSONNEL DEEMED ESSENTIAL FOR CONTINUITY OF OPERATIONS. E.G. RECRUITING COMMANDS,TRAINING CENTERS,BLOOD DONOR CENTERS.

Front 80

WHAT IS FH?

Back 80

500 BED COMBAT ZONE FACILITIES

Front 81

WHAT IS CRTS?

Back 81

FORWARD DEPLOYED SURGICAL SUPPORT

Front 82

WHAT IS MARFOR?

Back 82

MEDICAL AUGMENTION SUPPORT ASSIGNED TO A MARDIV,MAW,OR FSSG. ONLY MALES ASSIGNED TO MARDIV.FEMALES MAY BE ASSIGNED TO FSSG,MAW

Front 83

WHO ASSIGNS COMMANDING OFFICER OF USNS MERCY OR COMFORT?

Back 83

NOMINATED BY CHIEF,BUMED

Front 84

Infection Control function are addressed how often?

Back 84

At least Quarterly.

Front 85

What is an invasive procedure?

Back 85

A surgical entry into the tissues, cavities organs or repair of major tramatic injuries.

Front 86

What is Chemical disinfection?

Back 86

The destruction or inhibition of most viruses and bacteria while in their growth phase.

Front 87

What is a Biological Monitor?

Back 87

Bacterial endospore test which assess whether sterlization has occured. Also known as biological indicator or biological spore test

Front 88

Medical testing for HBV and HIV are at what intervals?

Back 88

6 weeks, 12 weeks and 6 months.

Front 89

What is the PPBS?

Back 89

Planning, Programming and Budgeting system used to identify total resources required to meet Infection Control guidelines and those of OSHA and the EPA.

Front 90

What is Barrier technique?

Back 90

Use of fluid resistant materials to protect them from contamination. Rubber plastic, paper, foil.

Front 91

Semicritical Items are?

Back 91

Materials that frequently contact mucous membranes but cannot be sterlized due to their inability to withstand heat.

Front 92

What is a Chemical indicator?

Back 92

Chemical dyes used to determine whether sterlization has been met. Also know as 1. Chemical monitor 2. Dosage indicator 3. Process indicator.

Front 93

Inital Infection control training is done?

Back 93

within 90 days of reporting to a Command.

Front 94

How long are infection control manuals maintained?

Back 94

For at least three years.

Front 95

What is Bioburden?

Back 95

Number of Micro-organisms contaminating an object.
Also known as Bioload or Microbial load

Front 96

What are Engineering Controls?

Back 96

Equipment or methods which remove bloodbore pathogens from the workplace.

Front 97

Operating temperatures for the Prevacuum type Sterilizer are?

Back 97

132-135 C.

Front 98

Commmands must document infection control training with?

Back 98

Names of persons attending and conduction. Dates and a summary of the contents of the training.

Front 99

What is a Gravity Displacement type sterilizer?

Back 99

A Sterilizer in which incoming steam displaces the residual air through a port or drain in or near the bottom of the sterilizer chamber.

Front 100

What is a Unit Dose?

Back 100

Quantity of materials or supplies required to treat a single patient.

Front 101

Gravity Displacement Type Sterilizer.
30 minutes at?

Back 101

121-123 C (250-254 F)
15-17 lb per psi

Front 102

Gravity Displacement Type Sterilizer.
15 minutes at?

Back 102

132-135 C 270-274 F
30-32 psi.

Front 103

Non Critical Items are?

Back 103

Materials that do not normally penetrate or contact mucous membranes but are exposed to splatter, spray or splashing of blood.

Front 104

What is Sterile Sterility?

Back 104

Free from all living micro organisms.

Front 105

What is Saturated Steam Sterlization?

Back 105

Steam heat under pressure for sufficient length of time to kill all forms of micro organisms

Front 106

Critical Items are?

Back 106

Materials that penetrate the skin, mucous membrane or bone.

Front 107

What is BUMEDINST 6600.10A?

Back 107

Dental Infection control Instruction.

Front 108

Inital Infection control training is done how often after initial training?

Back 108

Annually.

Front 109

Asepsis is?

Back 109

Process of preventing the access of micro-organisms

Front 110

What is a Prevacuum type Sterilizer?

Back 110

Sterilizer which relies on one or more pressure and vacuum excursions at the beginning or end of the cycle.

Front 111

Who directs continous review and upgrade of the sterilization and infection control syllabus at the Naval School of Dental Assisting and technology (NSDAT) for dental "A" school?

Back 111

BUMED (MED-54).

Front 112

What is Dental Item Classification?

Back 112

Dental Items are classified based on pathways through which cross contamination may occur and the location and technique of instrument use.

Front 113

Dental Item are classified as?

Back 113

Critical, Semi Critical and Non critical.

Front 114

During the movement phase of amphibious operations who has overall responsibility
for HSS services to embarked personnel?

Back 114

the commander,
amphibious task force (CATF)

Front 115

When the tactical situation permits during combat operations, the
safest method of field disposal is _____ followed by
burial ___ ft.

Back 115

burning
over 6 ft.

Front 116

Which platoon is the smallest, most mobile medical support platoon of
the medical battalion.

Back 116

Shock Trauma Platoon.

Front 117

Who's mission is to provide integrated automation of the theater
medical environment.

Back 117

Theater Medical Information Program
(TMIP).

Front 118

Responsible
for coordinating and integrating HSS within their area of operations.

Back 118

Marine Corps forces (MARFOR) commanders.

Front 119

What are the medical equipment and
supplies required to support the patient during evacuation

Back 119

Patient movement items.

Front 120

Who provides
technical and specialized services in the field of disease vector
surveillance and control, as well as providing vector control
training to various agencies of the federal government.

Back 120

Navy Disease Vector Ecology and Control Centers

Front 121

What is the means by which operating forces are brought
to wartime manning levels by personnel augmentation from
CONUS-based activities.

Back 121

MAP Medical Augmentation Program.

Front 122

Responsibility for
neutralization and disposal of clothing, equipment, and dressings
removed during NBC decontamination processes resides with
the command’s ______

Back 122

NBC officer.

Front 123

conducts
basic clinical and applied field research directly related to
military requirements and operational needs.

Back 123

Naval Medical Research and Development Command

Front 124

Who is responsible to the MEF commander
and MEF surgeon for coordinating preventive medicine
efforts among the division, the wing, and the FSSG.

Back 124

Preventive Medicine Officer

Front 125

Who advises the MAGTF Commander regarding medical and dental support

Back 125

MAGTF Surgeon.

Front 126

The medical batallion has ___ beds and __ operating rooms.

Back 126

260,9

Front 127

can quickly identify infectious
and biologic threats to the deployed force.

Back 127

Forward Deployed Laboratory

Front 128

the process of selecting destination
MTFs with the necessary HSS capabilities for patients being
medically evacuated

Back 128

Medical regulating

Front 129

Institute provides research related
to immediate operational problems

Back 129

The Naval Medical Research Institute

Front 130

Bas is normally divided into how many sections during the Assalt echelon

Back 130

2

Front 131

How many surgical companies does a FSSG have?

Back 131

3

Front 132

How many shock trauma platoons does a FSSG have?

Back 132

8

Front 133

AE missions are classified as _______ or ________ .

Back 133

preplanned
immediate

Front 134

What are the three phases of medical support in an amphibious operation?

Back 134

Assault Echelon
Assault follow on echelon
Follow on forces.

Front 135

The medical batallion is made of of _ H&S company and _ surgical companies

Back 135

1,3

Front 136

Who manages the MAP?

Back 136

BUMED

Front 137

A MAW had how many aircraft groups?

Back 137

4

Front 138

The total T/E and AMALs/ADALs are designed to support a MEF in an estimated worst case scenario for a __day period of combat.

Back 138

60

Front 139

is responsible for funding AMALs/ADALs above the level prescribed by the Marine Corps order
4400 series.

Back 139

The authorizing commander.

Front 140

All navy-marine corps personnel must have documented ____ in their health record

Back 140

G6pd

Front 141

Any person who is G-6-pd deficient has a risk of ______associated with taking primaquine.

Back 141

Hemolysis

Front 142

Blood donors treated for malaria in the past must wait ___ years from the date treatment was finished

Back 142

3

Front 143

Laboratory diagnosis is allowed by using

Back 143

Giemsa's staining solution

Front 144

Which mosquito carries malaria

Back 144

Anopheles

Front 145

The _____ ______ strain can quickly become fatal.

Back 145

Plasmodium falciparum.

Front 146

The _________ is a screening test for the presence of chloroquine in the urine.

Back 146

Wilson-Edeson Test.

Front 147

Disease alert report also known as

Back 147

med 6220-3

Front 148

______ & ________ can be used for the treatment of severe malaria.

Back 148

Quinidine and Quinine.

Front 149

Normally used for chemoprophylaxis in malaria.

Back 149

Primaquine, chloroquine

Front 150

All Disease Alert Reports are submitted by _____ message

Back 150

Priority

Front 151

Blood donors who visited malaria infested areas who were not treated for malaria must wait ____ to donate blood

Back 151

6 months

Front 152

Control of communicable Diseases in Man is also know as the ____

Back 152

p-5038

Front 153

The wilson-edeson test gives a ___% false negative

Back 153

15

Front 154

Used when parasites are resistant to Primapuine and chloroquine

Back 154

Pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine (Fansidar)

Front 155

Ideal drinking water temps are

Back 155

50-60 degrees f

Front 156

Transportable quick-response water purification system capable of aerating clarifying filtering and disinfecting contaminated water

Back 156

ERDLATOR

Front 157

Which chlorine agent is most preferred?

Back 157

Calcium Hypohlirite, 65-70%

Front 158

Personnel deployed for more than 6 months must submit their aar within ___ days

Back 158

30

Front 159

One urine trough is designed for every ___ people

Back 159

100

Front 160

Serious condition which may occur in as little as 24 hours in environments where the water is below 50 degrees

Back 160

Immersion syndrome.

Front 161

ROWPU gives ____ gallons of water per hour

Back 161

600

Front 162

Refrigerated space should be emptied and thoroughtly cleaned at least?

Back 162

Once per week

Front 163

Food that is held between 40 and 140 degrees will not be served if ___ hours have passed

Back 163

4

Front 164

Heat stroke, body temp is greater than

Back 164

104

Front 165

Latrines must be located ___ft from water, ___yds from food, ___ft from berthing areas.

Back 165

100,100,50

Front 166

The AAR After Action Report should be separated into three phases, what are they?

Back 166

predeployment
deployment
post-deployment

Front 167

One 4ft deep pit latrine is required for every __ people

Back 167

50

Front 168

Ground water must be at least ___ ft from sources of contamination.

Back 168

100

Front 169

Personnel deployed for less than 6 months must submit their aar within __ days

Back 169

15

Front 170

All food items are to be inspected by _____ at time of receipt?

Back 170

FSO

Front 171

Add ___ points to WBGT index for personnel wearing body armor.

Back 171

10

Front 172

Heat exhaustion body temp is less than

Back 172

104

Front 173

If hot water is not available, soak veges in ___ppm for ___ seconds

Back 173

50,60

Front 174

Straddel Trench Latrine serves ___ people

Back 174

25

Front 175

Who is ultimately responsible for the health and safety of their personnel?

Back 175

Unit commander

Front 176

The most common field purification system in use. Will produce potable water form all water sources but water must still be disinfected.

Back 176

ROWPU

Front 177

One soakage pit will service ___ people

Back 177

200

Front 178

White Flag
Green Flag
Yellow Flag
Black Flag

Back 178

<80
80-84
85-89
90-and above

Front 179

Temperature readings must be taken and logged at least

Back 179

3 times a day

Front 180

PERSONNEL ASSIGNED AS FOOD EMPLOYEE FOR LESS THAN 30 DAYS MUST RECEIVE ___ HOUR TRAINING?

Back 180

2

Front 181

WHAT TRAINING IS MANDATORY FOR FOOD EMPLOYEE?

Back 181

4 HOUR FOOD SAFETY. MUST BE COMPLETED WITHIN 30 DAYS OF REPORTING TO NEW COMMAND

Front 182

WHAT TRAINING IS MANDATORY FOR PERSON IN CHARGE?

Back 182

18 HOUR FOOD SERVICE SANITATION/FOOD SAFETY TRAINING COURSE

Front 183

WHAT IS THE SUPPO RESPONSIBLE FOR?

Back 183

PROCUREMENT,RECEIPT,INSPECTION,STORAGE AND ISSUE OF FOOD ITEMS

Front 184

WHAT CHAPTER OF THE P-5010 COVERS FOOD SAFETY?

Back 184

CHAPTER ONE

Front 185

IN CASE OF FOOD BORNE OUTBREAK, WHO INITIATES EPIDEMIOLOGIVCAL INVESTIGATION?

Back 185

PMA-PREVENTIVE MEDICINE AUTHORITY

Front 186

Can cheese with mold be used?

Back 186

yes, after you remove 1/2 inch layer

Front 187

What is the Temp that Milk should be received at?

Back 187

45 degrees F

Front 188

How many rings are you allowed to wear whil working in food service?

Back 188

One, wedding band

Front 189

What are some of the diseases that are prohibited while working with food?

Back 189

Salmonella, Shigella, E Coli, Hepatitis A

Front 190

Are the CS's allowed to serve frozen fish?

Back 190

No

Front 191

How must food be stored in the Food storage area?

Back 191

6 inches up (8 on ship) and 4 in fron the wall

Front 192

What is the measurment of acidity and alkalinity of a solution? 7 is neutral

Back 192

PH Balance

Front 193

What is Ware Washing?

Back 193

Cleaning and sanatizing of food contact surfaces, equipment and utensils.

Front 194

For nonactive duty records, when should the record be retired?

Back 194

2 years of non movement

Front 195

Records may be filed in alphabetical order be patient's last names in files housing of how many?

Back 195

200 or fewer records

Front 196

If a member was retired or separated prior to 31 January 1994, his/her medical and dental records were sent to _____.

Back 196

National Personnel Records Center (NPRC)

Front 197

What is the second group of the following SSN: 123-45-6789?

Back 197

67

Front 198

What are the three types of secondary records commonly used?

Back 198

Convenience records, temporary records, and ancillary records

Front 199

What would be the Family Member Prefix be for the third child?

Back 199

03

Front 200

What is the retirement year for record with the color of yellow?

Back 200

2005,2011

Front 201

What would be the Family Member Prefix be for foreign military personnel?

Back 201

99

Front 202

What is used to file Health records, outpatient, and inpatient records?

Back 202

Terminal digit filing system (TDFS)

Front 203

What is the primary group of the following SSN: 123-45-6789?

Back 203

89

Front 204

What are the three major catagories of primary records.

Back 204

Health records, outpatient records, and inpatient records

Front 205

What is the second group of the following SSN: 123-45-6789?

Back 205

67

Front 206

If a member was retired or separated after 31 January 1994, his/her medical and dental records were sent to _______

Back 206

Department of Vetern Affairs (DVA)

Front 207

Each Medical Treatment Facility or medical department must develop policies to ensure the record is __1____and the patient's __2___ is protected.

Back 207

1. secure 2. privacy

Front 208

What is the purpose of the medical record?

Back 208

To provide an individual chronological record of medical treatment afforded members of naval service.

Front 209

What color would a record be for SSN 123-45-6789?

Back 209

Pink NAVMED 6150/28

Front 210

The medical record is the property of the __ __________ and must be maintained by the MTF or DTF which has primary cognizance over the care of the patient.

Back 210

U.S Government

Front 211

What color would a record be for SSN 987-65-4321?

Back 211

Yellow NAVMED 6150/22

Front 212

What is the retirement year for record with the color of yellow?

Back 212

2005,2011

Front 213

What plays a critical role in the process of identifying unknown human remains?

Back 213

Dental Radiology.

Front 214

What are the bacis steps in Forensic Dental Identification?

Back 214

1. Postmortem Examination and charting 2. Antemortem Record Acquisition and Record Reconstruction. 3. Ante and Postmortem record comparison.

Front 215

What is the last and most important step in the Dental ID process?

Back 215

Classification

Front 216

What is an unreliable means of ID in a Medico-Legal death investigation?

Back 216

Visual ID.

Front 217

What is the software used in the role of Dental ID?

Back 217

CAPMI Computer Assisted Postmortem Identification.

Front 218

This type of Identification requires matching of Postmortem radiographs with raidographs that were taken befor death.

Back 218

Identification of Skeletal Remains.

Front 219

What materials used on teeth can with stand 1600 degrees F?

Back 219

Gold Silver Amalgam Fused Porcelain Synthetic Porcelain Porcelain Dentures

Front 220

What are the drawbacks to Visual ID?

Back 220

In cases of Fire, Illness, Decomposition or Water Immersion.

Front 221

What is an absolute inconsistency?

Back 221

Differences between the ante and postmortem findings that are impossible and prove the remains cannot be those of the individual in question.

Front 222

Of all the methods of ID, What type is best known?

Back 222

FINGERPRINTS

Front 223

Forensic Densitry is defined as?

Back 223

The branch of forensic medcine that applies dental knowledge to civil and criminal problems.

Front 224

How long is it be fore a person can be decleard legally dead?

Back 224

7 years.

Front 225

What is the most commonly used restorative material?

Back 225

Silver Amalgam

Front 226

What is the most common method of identification?

Back 226

Visual.

Front 227

What type of technology is fairly new, and may replace dental identification and fingerprint identification as the most definitive means of ID?

Back 227

DNA Analysis OR DNA Fingerprinting.

Front 228

What is a relative discrepancy

Back 228

Differences between the ante and postmorten findings which can be explained by continued dental treatment.

Front 229

What are the four categories in a radiographic comparison?

Back 229

Exact Match Similarity Relative Discrepancy Absolute Inconsistency

Front 230

Charting is done in?

Back 230

Pen.

Front 231

Areas of Forensic Dentristry?

Back 231

Dental identification. 2. Bite mark analysis. 3. Human abuse and neglect. 4. Dental Malpractice and Negligence. 5.Dental Anthropology and Archaeology.

Front 232

What is the purpose of Forensic Densistry?

Back 232

1. Identification of Armed forces personnel as well as civilians. 2. Estate, Insurance, Legal, and Psychological considerations. 3. Manpower and Intelligence.

Front 233

What are the five classifications used to establish Identity?

Back 233

Positive ID Positive ID by Charting Only Consistent With Exclusion Unidentified.

Front 234

How long does it take to expose a complete set of postmortem raidographs?

Back 234

20 minutes

Front 235

What are the two types of definitive posittive ID?

Back 235

Fingerprints and Dental ID

Front 236

Teeth can be destroyed by temperatures greater than?

Back 236

1000 degrees F, unprotected by the teeth and lips.

Front 237

What is routine dental care?

Back 237

1.Dental examinations and advice on dental health.
2.Restoration of lost tooth structure.
3.Treatment of periodontal conditions.
4.Surgical procedures.
5.Replacement of missing teeth essential to personal appearance, the performance of
military duty, or the proper mastication of food.

Front 238

What type of list is used for patients requiring extensive treatment?

Back 238

Patient call list

Front 239

Where is the Forensic Examination form located in
the NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Back 239

Inside back cover

Front 240

Which of the phrase is written in the lower portion of the patient’s Identification box for Retired 0-7 and above personnel?

Back 240

“FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER”

Front 241

What can DENMIS do?

Back 241

1. Dental Workload reports
2. Unit and individual operational dental readiness reports.
3. Provider Treatment Time reports
4. Patient and Unit Dental Treatment Needs reports
5. For class 3 or 4 pts that require operative or prophy, and so forth.

Front 242

What is the maximum time allowed for retention of loose treatment forms?

Back 242

1 year

Front 243

What forms are in the inside back cover of the dental record jacket?

Back 243

IN ORDER:
1. NAVPERS 5510/1 2. Current status form 3. NAVMED 6600/12 4. EZ603A 5. OLD SF603s and 603As 6. SF 513 7. SF 502 8. SF 509 9. SF 515 10. SF 522

Front 244

What forms are in the inside front cover of the dental record jacket?

Back 244

1. unmounted radiographs in envelopes.
2. Seqential bitewing radiograph.
3. Panographic or full-mouth radiographs.

Front 245

Which program allows patients to voice and document how they are treated?

Back 245

Patient Contact

Front 246

The NAVMED 6600/3 is filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Back 246

Front of dental record jacket center page

Front 247

Which NAVMED form is used to schedule dental appointments?

Back 247

NAVMED 6600/5

Front 248

What are the Priority Categories?

Back 248

1A Members of the uniformed services on active duty.
1B Members of a Reserve Component of the Armed Forces and National Guard personnel.
2 Family member of active duty members of the uniformed services; family members of
persons who died while in such a status.
3 Members of the Senior reserve Officers Training Corps.
4 Retired members of the uniformed services and their family members (including family members of deceased retired members.)
5 Civilian employees of the Federal Government.
6 All others.

Front 249

Dental Exam Forms and EZ 603s should be filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Back 249

Back of dental record jacket center page

Front 250

The new Dental Record Jacket is which of the following NAVMED forms?

Back 250

NAVMED 6150/21-30

Front 251

When using the terminal digit filing system, how many equal sections are the central files divided into?

Back 251

200

Front 252

A patient without an SSN will have which of the following substitute SSN’s established.

Back 252

EX: AUG 10 1945
800-08-1045

Front 253

Where is the Disclosure Accounting Record located
in the NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Back 253

Back of center page

Front 254

Sequential bitewing radiographs should be filed in
which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Back 254

Inside front cover of dental record jacket

Front 255

Which of the following NAVMED Forms is the Health Record Receipt?

Back 255

NAVMED 6150/7

Front 256

The most current Dental Treatment Form, EZ603A is filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-
30?

Back 256

Inside back cover of dental record jacket

Front 257

What is emergency care?

Back 257

This is treatment necessary to relieve pain, control bleeding, and manage acute septic conditions or injuries to the oral-facial structures.

Front 258

Validated patient complaints and compliments are incorporated into which of the command’s annual assessments?

Back 258

Quality Assurance

Front 259

The dental computerized recall system uses a maximum of how many lists?

Back 259

12

Front 260

What is elective dental care?

Back 260

Examples of elective dental are malocclusion,
orthodontics, replacing amalgam fillings with gold
crowns, etc.

Front 261

The Request for a Medical/Dental Record
Information Form is Identified by which of the
following DD numbers?

Back 261

DD 877

Front 262

BUMED Instruction 6300.10 is divided into how many parts?

Back 262

Three: Internal, External, and PT relations.

Front 263

The Daily DIRS record is designed to give providers what type of a treatment record?

Back 263

Daily

Front 264

What color of record category tape is used?

Back 264

Active Duty: Blue Resrve: Red amily memeber: Yellow Retired Green
All others: Black

Front 265

Where is the DD 2005, Privacy Act Statement located in the NAVMED 6150/21-30 (RECORD)?

Back 265

Front of center page

Front 266

Which NAVMED form is used as a dental appointment card?

Back 266

NAVMED 6600/6

Front 267

OPNAVINST 1752.1

Back 267

Sexual Assault Victim Intervention

Front 268

BUMEDINST 6320.70

Back 268

Family Advocacy Program

Front 269

BUMEDINST 6010.13

Back 269

Quality Assurance Program

Front 270

NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.18

Back 270

CHAMPUS

Front 271

BUMEDINST 6010.21

Back 271

Risk Management Program

Front 272

remain in one position in bed, difficulty breathing,

Back 272

Position

Front 273

Flushed, pale, cyanotic, hot, moist, clammy, cool, dry, redness, bruised, scarred, laccerated, scratched, perspiring profusely, infested with lice

Back 273

Skin

Front 274

Spinal Anesthesia is injected where

Back 274

subarachnoid space of the spinal canal between the 3rd and 4th lumbar space (or between the 5th lumbar and 1st sacral space.

Front 275

Begins moment patient is taken into operating room

Back 275

Operative phase

Front 276

What are the vitial signs for the 2nd Excitement phase

Back 276

pinpoint to light, pulse irregular and fast, BP high

Front 277

elements of the enviroment, such as noise

Back 277

Physical barriers

Front 278

what happens during depression

Back 278

Not only are patients upset of their own personal loss but start to get affairs in order for family

Front 279

5 stages of death

Back 279

denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance

Front 280

What are the vital signs for 1st Induction phase of consciousness?

Back 280

Usual size pupil and Reactive to light, pulse irregular, BP normal

Front 281

What stage is the stage of excitement, to include muscular activity and delirium, vital signs show stimulation, pt may respond violently

Back 281

Stage 2

Front 282

one's inaccurate perception of self or others

Back 282

Psychosocial barrier

Front 283

Dorsal Recumbent

Back 283

used for heriorrhaphy

Front 284

Pt must be in the best possible Psychological , spriitual, and phsysical condition

Back 284

Pre op phase

Front 285

Begins moment patient is taken into operating room

Back 285

Operative phase

Front 286

What type of block is injected into the dural sac at the 3rd and 4th lumbar space and what does it block

Back 286

Saddle block to the perineal area of body

Front 287

How long does a leg cast typically take to dry

Back 287

24-48 hrs

Front 288

What are the procedures for a long arm cast?

Back 288

Elbow maintained in a 90 degree position and same as short arm cast

Front 289

What happens during bargaining

Back 289

people revert to a culturally reinforced concept that good behavior is rewarded, "I'd do anything if I could just turn this around"

Front 290

Regional anethesia - types of

Back 290

Topical, Local, Nerve, Spinal, Epidural, Saddle, Cuadal

Front 291

What type of block is injected into the sacral canal and what does it block?

Back 291

Cuadal block, and the umbilicus to the toes

Front 292

What stage of anestheisa is the toxic or danger stage?

Back 292

4th stage

Front 293

Observations that are made by you, symptoms

Back 293

O-Objective

Front 294

May include labs or rad tests, meds, consults, patient disposition

Back 294

P-Plan

Front 295

Sensory Dysfunciont, to include hearing and speech impairments, and vision

Back 295

Physiological Barriers

Front 296

A patient that has the right to be advised in nonclinical terms of information needed to make knowledgeable decisions to constent or refuse tx.

Back 296

Informed Consent

Front 297

What stage of anesthesia is referred to as the stage of induciton or analgesia?

Back 297

Stage 1

Front 298

what are 2 ways to remove a cast

Back 298

soaking in warm vinegar and water or cutting

Front 299

The word that means - custom or practice; a set of rules or a body of principles

Back 299

Ethics

Front 300

What stage is the operative stage, to include the anesthesiologist to determine what planes that fits the procedure

Back 300

Stage 3

Front 301

Lithotomy

Back 301

position used for vaginal hysterectomy

Front 302

the diagnosis of patient's condition

Back 302

A-Assessment

Front 303

Consists of observations, Patient verbally gives these to you

Back 303

S- Subjective

Front 304

What are v.s. for 3rd operative phase?

Back 304

pupils beginning to dilate, pulse steady and slow, BP normal

Front 305

Is pt short, tall thin, well-groomed, in apparent pain,

Back 305

General Appearance

Front 306

How is a short arm cast applied?

Back 306

3 layers of webril, make sure each layer overlaps, Dip plaster of paris into water for 5 seconds, Wrap plaster in spiral motion, overlapping by 1/3 Repeat until thick enough to provide support(4-5 layers)

Front 307

appears worried, nervous, excited, depressed, refuse to talk, sleep well, lisp, stutter, sullen, bored

Back 307

Behavior

Front 308

Because this tissue is continuous throughout the body, if an infection were allowed to spread, it could reach every area of the body by moving through which of the following tissues?

Back 308

Areolar

Front 309

The valves of the heart include all of the following

Back 309

mitral
Tricuspid
atrial

Front 310

The head of the humerus is called the

Back 310

glenoid fossa

Front 311

What is the approximate total capacity of the adult bladder?

Back 311

600 ml

Front 312

The ability of muscles to regain their original form when stretched is known as

Back 312

elasticity

Front 313

Calcium levels in the blood are controlled by which of the following hormones?

Back 313

Parathormone

Front 314

Transmits sensation of taste

Back 314

Facial

Front 315

The venous system that carries digested materials from the intestinal tract is called the

Back 315

abdominal

Front 316

In addition to preventing excessive blood loss, the formation of a blood clot serves which, if any, of the following purposes?

Back 316

To form the foundation for new tissue growth

Front 317

Balance, coordination of movement, and harmony of motion are functions of what part of the brain?

Back 317

Cerebellum

Front 318

Actin and myosin are the two protein substances involved in

Back 318

muscle contraction

Front 319

In what part of the body is cerebral spinal fluid produced?

Back 319

Ventricles of the brain

Front 320

Which of the following are the two most prominent mineral elements of bone?

Back 320

Ossein and calcium