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509 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
A healthy person has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT a. Being addicted to drugs and alcohol b. Being free of illness c. Being physically fit d. Being mentally and emotionally stable |
a. Being addicted to drugs and alcohol |
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Life expectancy in the early 1900s was largely determined by a person's a. Family history b. Susceptibility to infectious disease c. Occupation and location d. Hygiene habits |
b. Susceptibility to infectious diseases |
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Jane is sedentary and obese. What effect, if any, do these have on her dimensions of health? a. They only affect her dimensions of health if she has health problems as a result of these b. They affect all her dimensions of health c. They only affect her physical health d. They affect her ability to recover from illness |
a. They affect all her dimensions of health |
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Eve is always upset about something. It seems she is never really happy. Her mental outlook is likely to adversely affect a. They affect her health only if she has a family history of health problems related to obesity b. They affect her physical health only c. They affect her ability to recover from illnesses d. They affect all her dimensions of health |
d. They affect all her dimensions of health |
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Emotional health can best be described as a. Feel and express emotions appropriately b. Think clearly, without emotional influence c. Adapt to various social situations d. Maintain satisfying relationships |
a. Feel and express emotions appropriately |
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Spiritual health could best be described as a. Holding to religious beliefs learned in childhood b. Finding fulfilling relationships c. Not as important as other factors to overall wellness d. Having a sense of meaning and purpose in one's life |
d. Having a sense of meaning and purpose in one's life |
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Healthy People 2020 is a plan designed to a. Update FDA regulations on the manufacture and sale of drugs in the US b. Extend health insurance coverage to millions more Americans c. Increase payments to doctors who serve Medicaid and Medicare patients d. Improve health-related quality of life and years of life of Americans |
d. Improve health-related quality of life and years of life of Americans |
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Health promotion a. Focuses on curing illness and disease b. Involves social justice aimed at health care for all Americans c. Refers to informational campaigns about health d. Includes policies, programs, and financial support for initiatives that promote health |
d. Includes policies, programs, and financial support for initiatives that promote health |
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The contemporary definition of wellness is a. The absence of ongoing symptoms or chronic disease b. Living longer than one's parents c. The ability to move about freely without pain d. All factors leading to positive health status or overall well-being |
d. all factors leading to positive health status or overall well-being |
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All of the following factors play a role in health disparities except a. Geographic location b. Economic status c. Inadequate health insurance d. Procrastination |
d. Procrastination |
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Young adults (15-24) are most likely to die from a. Homicide b. Cancer c. Unintentional accidents d. Heart disease |
C. Unintentional accidents |
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The 6 dimensions of wellness a. Seldom influence one another b. Affect health independently of each other c. Affect either the mind or the body d. Interact continuously |
d. Interact continuously |
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Overall, the leading cause of death for Americans is a. Unintentional accidents b. Respiratory disease c. Cancer d. Heart disease |
d. Heart disease |
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The science and profession involved in protecting and improving the health of individuals, families, and communities is a. Immunology b. Disease prevention c. Health care d. Public health |
d. Public health |
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A good example of a healthful enabling factor is a. Nagging your parents because they smoke b. Having friends who hate to exercise c. Living near a walking path when you want to begin a walking program d. Encouraging your spouse to go to the fitness club with you |
c. Living near a walking path when you want to begin a walking program |
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To successfully change a behavior, a person must recognize that change is a(n) a. Isolated event b. Process that occurs in stages c. Chance to wipe out past mistakes d. Stressful situation |
b. Process that occurs in stages |
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Family health back ground and the behaviors of family members are examples of a. Enabling factors b. Predisposing factors c. Reinforcing factors d. Motivational factors |
b. Predisposing factors |
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An adolescent smoker might think lung cancer only happened to old people. This is an example of which factor of the Health Belief Model? a. Perceived seriousness b. Cues to action c. Demographic variables d. Perceived susceptibility |
d. Perceived susceptibility |
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The ability to think clearly, analyze information, and use one's mental capacity to meet life's challenges is known as a. Social health b. Intellectual health c. Physical health d. Emotional health |
b. Intellectual health |
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Brenda is going on a ski trip over Spring Break. She has 12 weeks to get in shape, as she envisions herself looking like a ski bunny model on slopes. Brenda got an elliptical trainer and started exercising on it for ten min. every day. Every week she will add 10 min to her daily routine until she can exercise for one hour non-stop. If that is too rigorous, she will only add five minutes each week. Brenda is using ________ to get in shape for a wonderful Spring Break. a. Self-talk b. Visualization c. Modeling d. Shaping |
d. Shaping |
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When applying the strategy of shaping to behavior change, one should a. Expect this strategy to provide immediate success b. Only reward oneself when reaching the main goal c. Use small achievable steps d. Set very demanding goals for oneself |
c. Use small achievable steps |
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Observing a friend's successful attempts to quit smoking in order to help yourself quit smoking is an example of a. Conforming b. Modeling c. Shaping d. Envy |
b. Modeling |
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Mrs. J. is trying to get her 3rd grade students to remember to get their homework signed by a parent every night. Students who remember every day for a month receive a gift card from a local bookstore. This is an example of a. A manipulative reinforcer b. A possessional reinforcer c. An activity reinforcer d. A consumable reinforcer |
b. A possessional reinforcer |
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Lower health insurance rates for non-smokers is an example of a/an ____ type of reinforcer a. Social b. Activity c. Manipulative d. Possessional |
c. Manipulative |
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Not allowing yourself to think about getting stage fright and only focusing on the words when preparing to do a speech would be an example of a. Rational emotive therapy b. Self-threats c. Self-instruction d. Blocking/thought stopping |
d. Blocking/thought stopping |
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People with an internal locus of control believe that events turn out as they do based on a. Fate and luck b. Previous disappointments c. Their own actions d. Environmental factors |
c. Their own actions |
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The absence of disease or illness is the optimal description of health a. True b. False |
b. False |
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The development of self-esteem is an important part of intellectual health a. False b. True |
True |
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Spirituality can only be found through organized religion a. False b. True |
a. False |
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The surgeon General's warning on cigarettes is an example of health promotion a. True b. False |
a. True |
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A term used to encompass mental, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions of health is a. Psychological b. Socioemotional c. Holistic d. Psychiatric |
a. Psychological |
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Which of the following is true of psychosocially healthy people? a. They frequently experience guilt b. They value human diversity c. They are uncomfortable when put in new social situations d. They avoid new experiences |
b. They value human diversity |
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A mentally healthy student who gets a bad grade on an exam would respond by a. Getting angry at the professor b. Becoming withdrawn and avoiding friends c. Learning from the situation and improving study habits d. Drinking for distraction and to relieve tension |
c. Learning from the situation and improving study habits |
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Psychological health is a complex interaction of a. Opinions and interpretations of past experiences b. Thoughts of present and future events c. Thoughts, feelings, and personal experiences d. Personal experiences and thoughts of future events |
c. Thoughts, feelings, and personal experiences |
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Which of the following represents the primary difference between emotional health and mental health? a. Mental health does not encompass our responses to stimuli b.Emotional health deals specifically with thought processes rather than feelings c. Emotional health deals with feelings rather than thought processes d. Mental health does not assume responsibility for our actions |
c. Emotional health deals with feelings rather than thought processes |
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Keisha puts herself down all the time. She approaches any challenge with a negative attitude and doubts her ability to succeed. Keisha is displaying a. A dysfunctional response b. Low self-esteem c. Poor self-control d. Clinical depression |
b. Low self-esteem |
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Jose's belief that he can successfully pass his biology midterm is an example of a. Self-reliance b. Self-esteem c. Self-efficacy d. Self-satisfaction |
c. Self-efficacy |
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A psychologically healthy person is a. Loud and outspoken b. Introverted c. Resilient d. Athletic |
c. Resiliant |
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A person's sense of self respect of self worth is referred to as a. Conscientiousness b. Assertiveness c. Introversion d. Self-esteem |
d. Self-esteem |
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Psychologically healthy people a. Never think a negative thought b. Make time for others but not themselves c. Feel comfortable interacting with others d. Engage in vengeful acts |
c. Feel comfortable interacting with others |
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Which of the following is true of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a. A self actualized person has met basic needs but has not fully reached his or her potential b. Social needs are the most basic and essential needs c. Esteem needs are more basic than survival needs d. Failure to meet a lower-level need will interfere with fulfilling higher-level needs |
d. Failure to meet a lower-level need will interfere with fulfilling higher-level needs |
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Which of the following is true about laughter? a. It has no effect on everyday experiences b. It reduces levels of stress hormones c. It increases anxiety in people under stress d. It is characteristic of serious or studious people |
b. It reduces levels of stress hormones |
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Sharon has lost two jobs in the past year. She blames her coworkers whom she says didn't like her. She says that they were purposely trying to sabotage her and that she did absolutely nothing wrong. From her behavior, it is likely that Sharon has developed a. Narcissism b. Learned helplessness c. Learned optimism d. Low self-esteem |
a. Narcissism |
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Melody has been experiencing severe mood swings, having a lot of manic energy for a period and then experiencing an extremely depressed state. Her symptoms are associated with a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Seasonal affective disorder c. Bipolar disorder d. Dysthymic disorder |
c. Bipolar disorder |
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Which of the following is not a common sign of major depression (clinical depression)? a. Loss of motivation b. Memory lapses c. Feeling highly energetic d. Sleeping too much |
c. Feeling highly energetic |
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Which of the following statements about schizophrenia is true? a. Schizophrenia can be cured b. Symptoms most commonly appear in early childhood c. Schizophrenia is a biological disease of the brain d. Schizophrenia is cause by an environmental factor |
c. Schizophrenia is a biological disease of the brain |
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Mental illnesses characterized by ongoing worry and a sense of threat or agitation are a. Compulsive disorders b. Mood disorders c. Stress-induced disorders d. Anxiety disorders |
d. Anxiety disorders |
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Jake is being treated for depression. His counselor is a licensed medical doctor who provides talk therapy and has also prescribed medication for Jake's condition. Which type of mental health professional is Jake seeing? a. Social worker b. Psychologist c. Licensed family therapist d. Psychiatrist |
d. Psychiatrist |
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Celia spends a good deal of her time worrying, is easily fatigued, and often has difficulty concentrating, which is affecting her grades. Her symptoms may characterize a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder b. Generalized anxiety disorder c. Panic disorder d. Bipolar disorder |
b. Generalized anxiety disorder |
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A treatment for depression that involves correcting pessimistic thought patterns is a. Learned optimism b. Antidepressant therapy c. Cognitive therapy d. Behavioral therapy |
c. Cognitive therapy |
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Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is associated with a. Reduced exposure to sunlight b. Lack of social interaction c. Malfunction of the thyroid gland d. Too much external stimuli |
a. Reduced exposure to sunlight |
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Which of the following is true with respect to attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD? a. ADHD makes it more difficult to get along with others b. ADHD doesn't affect highly intelligent people c. ADHD can be controlled if the individual chooses to d. ADHD is only diagnosed in children |
a. ADHD makes it more difficult to get along with others |
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Which item below do adults with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) often have difficulty with a. Gaining weight b. Early onset of cardiovascular disease c. Concentrating and staying on task d. Remembering their name |
c. Concentrating and staying on task |
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Warning signs of suicide include all of the following except a. Giving away prized possessions b. Expressions of self-hatred c. A change in behavior d. Planning an important future event |
d. Planning an important future event |
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The mental health professional who can prescribe medication to treat mental disorder is a a. Social worker b. Clinical psychologist c. Psychiatrist d. School counselor |
c. Psychiatrist |
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Which of the following situations would be likely to boost your self-esteem? a. Expecting to get perfect grades every term b. Doubting your ability to succeed c. Keeping in contact with old friends and family members d. Handling all of your own personal problems alone |
c. Keeping in contact with old friends and family members |
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Research on depression has found that women a. Can become distracted and less focused on a depressed meed than men b. Are prone to depression because of the multiple responsibilities in their lives c. Have less difficulty obtaining restorative sleep than men d. Experience depression less frequently than men |
b. Are prone to depression because of the multiple responsibilities in their lives |
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Which of the following is true about a major depressive disorders? a. True depressive disorders are the same as feeling down after a bad experience b. Symptoms include physical exhaustion and an inability to concentrate c. Symptoms usually do not las for more than a month or two and can be easily managed d. People can snap out of it if they choose |
b. Symptoms include physical exhaustion and an inability to concentrate |
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Which of the following is true about panic attacks? a. Symptoms can include decreased respiration b. They can lead to social isolation c. They are not linked to heredity d. They typically last for 5-10 minutes |
b. They can lead to social isolation |
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College students are a. More likely to commit suicide than the general population b. Less at risk for suicide if they drink alcohol c. More able to handle pressures that can lead to suicide than their younger peers d. Only prone to suicide if their grades are declining |
a. More likely to commit suicide than the general population |
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Which of the following is true about stress? a. Stress does not affect a person's general health b. Stress is a mental and physical response to real or perceived changes, challenges, or threats c. It is possible to eliminate all stressors in our lives if we try hard enough d. Stress is only produced by externally imposed factors and is always negative |
b. Stress is a mental and physical response to real or perceived changes, challenges, or threats |
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A pop quiz in class is an example of a. Eustress b. A stressor c. Chronic stress d. A frustration |
b. a stressor |
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An example of an event likely to be associated with distress is a. Completing an assignment b. Getting the highest score on a difficult exam c. The end of final exam week d. Bouncing several checks |
d. Bouncing several checks |
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David woke up in the middle of the night because he smelled smoke. This most likely caused him to experience a. The flight or fight response b. The resistance response c. The adaptation syndrome d. Insomnia |
a. The flight or fight response |
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Catrina just missed hitting a deer as she was driving along a dark, curving road. She felt her racing heart finally slow down after she pulled off the road and took a few deep breaths. This is an example of a(n) a. Adaptive response b. State of overload c. Challenge d. Fight or flight response |
a. Adaptive response |
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All of the following are likely to influence your response to stress except a. Your friend's level of stress b. Your personality c. Your general health status d. Your past experiences |
a. Your friend's stress level |
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The primary hormone responsible for physiological stress responses such as increase heart rate and breathing rates is a. Epinephrine b. Cortisol c. Thyroxin d. Insulin |
a. Epinephrine
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The stress hormone cortisol has a major role during the stress response in a. Increasing heart and respiratory rates b. Mobilizing nutrients to meet energy needs c. Relieving pain d. Decreasing appetite and thirst |
b. Mobilizing nutrients to meet energy needs |
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Emily is experiencing chronic stress in a dysfunctional relationship. Which of the following looks at the allostatic load Emily is carrying? a. The ability of the immune system to respond to assaults b. The magnitude of the body's response to a stressor c. The increased magnitude of a stressor require to cause a response d. The long term wear and tear of the stress response |
d. The long term wear and tear of the stress response |
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Peter recently ended a relationship when he found out his partner was cheating on him. This probably caused a. Distress b. Eustress c. Anger d. Episodic stress |
a. Distress |
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The ability of the immune system to respond to assaults is known as a. Immunocompetence b. Defense c. Immunity d. Adaptation |
a. Immunocompetence |
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As Joe prepares to spar with a tae kwon do opponent, his heart rate and respiration rate increase. These are indicators that which branch of the nervous system has been activated? a. Sympathetic b. Parasympathetic c. Central d. Autonomic |
a. Sympathetic |
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Tyler wants to win the trumpet soloist competition this year. His practice time always ends up being the same time his friends are going out to party. Tyler always goes along for the party because he figures he can squeeze inva few minutes of practice somewhere in his schedule. It is competition week and tyler has come down with a terrible stomach bug. Tyler's illness may be related to a.A consistent pattern of not eating healthy food b. Behavior is consistent c. Outward conflict d. Overload |
b. Behavior that is inconsistent with his goal |
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Of the following choices, the best example of conflict is a. Experiencing illness due to stress b. Worrying about a tough test c. Wanting to go out with friends but needing to study d. Too many responsibilities |
c. Wanting to go out to with friends but needing to study. |
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Which of the following best describes a Type C personality? a. Hosstile b. Relaxed c. Distressed d. Stoic |
d. Stoic |
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Which of the following forms a stress management is also a type of Chinese martial art. a. Yoga b. Tae bo c. Tai chi d. tae kwon |
c. Tai chi |
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The physiological state in which all body systems are in balance and functioning normally is a. Homeostasis b. Recovery c. Adaptation d. Eustress |
a. Homeostasis |
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Research on stress and body function have found that prolonged stress a. Affects only a limited number of body systems b. Increase adaptive energy stores c. Increaces B cell function d. Reduces the effectiveness of the immune system |
d. Reduces the effectiveness of the immune system |
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To manage stress, the fist step is to a. Control your emotional responses b. Determine which stressors can be reduced or eliminated c. Choose to ignore the stressors in your life d. Identify and assess the stressors in your life |
d. Identify and assess the stressors in your life |
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Which of the following statements regarding stress and hair loss is not true? a. Stress induced hair loss is irreversible b. Stress may cause hair to fall out as a result of destroyed hair follicles c. Solutions include improving diet and sleep quality and better managing stress d. Stress may cause hair to fall out in clumps |
a. Stress induced hair loss is irreversible |
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Cortisol contributes to weight gain by a. Lowering metabolic rate and elevating glucose levels b. Increasing testosterone productions c. Stimulating cravings for healthy foods such as vegetables d. Increasing thirst for sweet beverages |
a. Lowering metabolic rate and elevating glucose levels |
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Downshifting refers to the process of a. Deliberately completing tasks at a slower pace b. Taking steps to simplify one's life c. Allowing depression to take over as a result of stress d. Using meditation to combat the stress response |
b. Taking steps to simplify one's life |
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The process of replacing negative thoughts with positive ones is referred to as a. Affirmations b. Stress inoculation c. Meditation d. Cognitive restructuring |
d. Cognitive restructuring |
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Which of the following forms of stress management also improves flexibility? a. Deep breathing b. Progressive muscle relaxation c. Biofeedback d. Yoga |
d. Yoga |
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Meditation has been proven effective in managing stress. Which of the following is not true about meditation? a. It usually takes some effort and patience to learn to meditate b. There is only one meditation style that is considered effective c. Meditation allows the body to relax while the mind is focused d. Meditation involves some method of calming and focusing the mind |
b. There is only one meditation style that is considered effective |
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Chronic stress has a strong connection to all of the following medical conditions except a. Heart disease b. Tooth decay c. Diabetes d. Impaired immune function |
b. Tooth decay |
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Exercise reduces stress by a. Increasing endorphines and reducing levels of stress hormones b. Expanding aerobic capacity c. Providing a therapeutic way to reduce or eliminate pain d. Suppressing endocrine function |
a. Increasing endorphines and reducing levels of stress hormones |
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Eating healthy foods helps in managing stress because a. Food is comforting and can distract one from problems b. They nourish the body and provide stamina for stressful times c. A calming effect is usually produced d. They are easier on the digestive system |
b. They nourish the body and provide stamina for stressful times |
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Jeff knows the midterm chemistry exam is going to be tough. He is trying to prepare for it by taking a practice test every night before he goes out with his buddies. Jeff is a. Restructuring his thinking patterns b. Increasing his level of stress before the test c. Using the technique of stress inoculation d. Using alcohol as a coping mechanism to relax |
c. Using the technique of stress inoculation |
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Which of the following statements best describes self-esteem? a. Self-esteem is inherited and can rarely change b. Self-esteem has to do with the ability to follow the lead of others c. Self-esteem is established during childhood d. Self-esteem has to do with one's confidence and self-satisfaction |
d. Self-esteem has to do with one's confidence and self-satisfaction |
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Violence can be defined as a. A premiditated crime against another person, usually involving a weapon b. Injuries caused accidentally without intent to harm, such as a car accident c. A repeated implied or verbal threat against another person d. The intentional use of physical force or power against oneself or another person or group |
d. The intentional use of physical force or power against oneself or another person or group |
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Social and cultural factors that increase the likelihood of violence include all of the following except a. Poverty b. Political differences c. Unemployment d. Social support |
d. Social support |
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Breakdowns in the criminal justice system contribute to violence because a. Sentences in various jurisdictions range from lenient to excessive b. There are too many prisons c. Prisons are overcrowded and prisoners may be released early d. Prisoners serve their full sentences and may complete training programs while incarcerated. |
c. Prisons are overcrowded and prisoners may be released early |
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Which of the following is true about reactive aggression? a. It is often related to substance abuse b. It is defined as occasional or rare behavior c. It is goal-directed, hostile self-assertion d. It is often an emotional reaction to frustrating life experiences |
d. It is most often an emotional reaction to frustrating life experiences. |
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Research examining the relationship between substance abuse and violence indicates a.Users of illegal drugs commit robberies and assaults more frequently than nonusers b. Substance abuse markedly decreases the risk of both homicide and suicide c. Substance abuse sometimes has a reverse effect on criminals, elevating their moods and thereby preventing potential crime d. Chronic drinkers are less likely than others to have histories of violent behavior |
a. Users of illegal drugs commit robberies and assaults more frequently than nonusers |
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Which of the following is true regarding homicides? a. Homicide rates are about the same among white and nonwhite ethnic groups b. Homicides are the second leading cause of death for persons aged 15-24 c. Homicide rates increase each year in the United States d. Homicide rates in the United States have only been tracked since the 1980's |
b. Homicides are the second leading cause of death for persons aged 15-24 |
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Of the following, the least likely risk factor for gang involvement is a. Having high academic achievement b. Low socioeconomic status c. Alienation from family and society d. Low self-esteem |
a. Having high academic achievement |
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Which of the following would not be considered a hate crime? a. Criminals using illegal drugs commit robberies and assaults more frequently than non-using criminals b. Running a red light and hitting a pedestrian c. Burning a church d. Beating up a teenager because she is Hispanic |
b. Running a red light and hitting a pedestrian |
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International terrorism occurs when a. Students picket to protest global warning b. Workers lobby for unionization c. Terrorist activities transcend national boundaries d. Groups or individuals direct hostile activities towards their own government |
c. Terrorist activities transcend national boundaries |
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A woman often remains a victim of domestic violence because a. She is not financially dependent on her partner b. She believes the situation will not change over time c. Her cultural or religious beliefs forbid divorce d. She does not fear retaliation against her or her children |
c. Her cultural or religious beliefs forbid divorce |
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A tendency towards anger may be a. A learned response that increases with age b. A trait of emotionally mature people c. Both physiological and related to family back ground d. Simply a mood that will pass |
c. Both physiological and related to family back ground |
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Which of the following is true about the cycle of violence? a. In the remorse/reconciliation phase, the batterer tried to teach his spouse a lesson by inflicting severe pain b. This cycle explains why people stay in unhealthy or dangerous relationships c. This cycle involves a tension-building phase during which of the worst battering occurs d. Most women can break the cycle without outside intervention |
b. This cycle explains why people stay in unhealthy or dangerous relationships |
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A situation that would be a predictor of domestic violence is a. Economic instability b. Moving to an unfamiliar area c. Marital dissatisfaction d. Tobacco use |
c. Marital dissatisfaction |
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If a child is not provided with enough to eat and doesn't have proper clothes to wear, this is an example of a. Neglect b. Physical abuse c. Family of discipline d. Domestic violence |
a. Neglect |
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Which of the following is true about acquaintance rape? a. It is a crime of opportunity, not necessarily a prearranged date b. It usually doesn't involve drugs or alcohol c. It never occurs as incidental contact at a party d. It only occurs when the victim has known the perpetrator for a length of time |
a. It is a crime of opportunity, not necessarily a prearranged date |
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Which of the following is true about marital rape? a. Women over the age of 25 are most at risk b. It is usually an isolated occurance that happens once c. It is not considered a crime d. Many states may treat marital rape as a lesser crime |
d. Many states may treat marital rape as a lesser crime |
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All of the following are common characteristics of child abusers except a. They have experienced violence in their life b. Their socioeconomic status is low c. They are socially isolated d. They have a healthy self-image |
d. They have a healthy self-image |
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Your friend confides in you that her coworker is always making sexually explicit comments to her and telling lewd jokes about sex. You explain to her that this is a. Sexual harassment b. Sexual coercion c. Sexual assault d. Sexual invasion |
a. Sexual harassment |
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Which of the following is true about stalking? a. It is not common on college campuses b. It can occur over the internet c. It does not include threats d. It typically occurs at random |
b. It can occur over the internet |
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Sexual penetration without the victim's consent constitutes a. Rape b. Sexual assault c. Aggravated rape d. Sexual harassment |
a. Rape |
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Which of the following explains why an individual may engage in stalking behavior? a. They are older and more experienced in life b. They lack social skills c. They are held accountable to authority figures for their actions d. They have a limited amount of free time |
b.They lack social skills |
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A common ploy used by rapists to a. Pose as a friend or employee b. Pose as a person of authority such as a police officer c. Engage in an initial e-mail exchange d. Offer to purchase an expensive item for the victim |
b. Pose as a person of authority such as a police officer |
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Successful community strategies for preventing violence include all of the following except a. Promote tolerance and acceptance b. Discouraging family planning programs c. Helping community members develop self-esteem d. Improving community-based support and treatment for victims |
b. Discouraging family planning programs |
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Children who have experienced sexual abuse are at increased risk for a. Academic problems or failure b. Anxiety disorders, depression, and suicide c. Irrational fears d. Enhanced self-esteem |
b. Anxiety disorders, depression, and suicde |
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James lost his job and was not able to make his rent. His frustration built up to the point that he initiated a physical fight with a friend. James is displaying a. Reactive aggression b. Primary aggression c. Spontaneous rage d. Negativity |
a. Reactive aggression |
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The US Public Health Service defines violence as a chronic disease. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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The media are to blame for the perpetuation of violence in our society. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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Domestic violence is very prevalent in the United States. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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Sexual harassment is carried out only by people who are in positions of power. a. False b. True |
a. False |
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The most frequent abusers are a child's parents or family member. a. True b. False |
a. True |
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The permanent cessation of menstrual periods is a. Menarche b. Fertility c. Menstruation d. Menopause |
d. Menopause |
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Emily and Rosa are close friends who are able to share their feelings freely, providing support and reassurance. This example demonstrates their a. Ability to provide objective feedback b. Codependence c. Low self-esteem d. Emotional availability |
d. Emotional availability |
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All of the following are true about intimate relationships except a. They may share emotional intimacy without being sexual b. They may be spiritually intimate c. They can include sexual relationships d. They lack emotional availability |
d. They lack emotional availability |
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Through our relationships with others, we fulfill our needs for a. Independence, social integration, and self-actualization b. Intimacy, social integration, and nurturance c. Communication, nurturance, and achievement d. Autonomy, intimacy, and connection |
b. Intimacy, social integration, and nurturance |
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Which of the following is true about communication patterns between men and women? a. Women tend to be more task oriented b. Men are more likely to share their innermost thoughts c. Men often believe that is is acceptable to show emotion d. Women tend to be more expressive |
d. Women tend to be more expressive |
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Which of the following is true about self-disclosure? a. It mostly involves story telling b. It is a key element in unhealthy communication c. It involves sharing feelings and information as a means of getting to know a person d. It involves sharing secrets and gossip about friends and acquaintances |
c. It involves sharing feelings and information as a means of getting to know a person |
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Julio wants to strengthen his relationship with LaVonne by sharing personal information with her. To get over his fear of disclosing his feelings, Julio can do all of the following except a. Select a safe, comfortable place for the conversation b. Blame his parents for his imperfections c. Learn to accept his imperfections d. Be open to discussing his sexual past |
b. Blame his parents for his imperfections |
|
You are most likely to listen best when a. You haven't slept for several days b. You are distracted by a project that is due the next day c. You believe the speaker is saying something you can relate to d. You are relaxed and under the influence of drugs |
c. You believe the speaker is saying something you can relate to |
|
Which factor would reduce the likelihood of your choosing a particular persona as a partner? a. You live in close proximity to each other b. You are physically attracted to each other c. Your beliefs, attitudes, and values are significantly different d. You have similar values, interests, and socioeconomic status |
c. Your beliefs, attitudes, and values are significantly different |
|
According to Robert Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, love involves a. Intimacy, passion, and commitment b. Friendship, reliability, and commitment c. Intimacy and similar interests and social status d. Passion and sexual desire |
a. Intimacy, passion, and commitment |
|
Attraction has been described by some social scientists as a. A peaceful feeling due to the release of oxytocin b. Emotional reactions triggered by past experiences c. Feelings of elation and euphoria produced by neuro -chemicals d. The degree of commitment in a relationship |
c. Feelings of elation and euphoria produced by neuro-chemicals |
|
According to researcher Helen Fisher, the feeling that the excitement and passion is gone from a relationship is due to a. Familiarity and daily stresses b. Developmental incompatibility c. A decrease in PEA levels d. A drop in level in adrenaline levels |
c. A decrease in PEA levels |
|
Daniel has been involved in four sexually exclusive relationships over the past 6 years. This is an example of a. Serial monogamy b. Open relationships c. Infidelity d. Cohabitation |
a. Serial monogamy |
|
Jeff and Dana have been married for 2 years. Their relationship involves exclusive sexual involvement with each other. This demonstrates a. A serial monogamy b. A monogamous relationship c. An open relationship d. A formalize partnership |
b. A monogamous relationship |
|
All of the following are true about cohabitation except a. It is more common among people who are religious b. After a number of years it can constitute a common-law marriage c. It may become legally binding d. It can offer love, companionship, and sex |
a. It is more common among people who are religious |
|
Which of the following is true about being single in the United States? a. The number of adults electing to remain single is decreasing b. Singles are unable to achieve intimacy through interactions with loved ones c. All singles view their life as being unfulfilled d. The number of adults electing to remain single is increasing |
d. The number of adults electing to remain single is increasing |
|
Which of the following is true about intersexuality? a. It may occur as often as 10 in 100 live births b. The person is exclusively female with minor male attributes c. The person is exclusively male with minor female attributes d. The person does not exhibit exclusive male or female sexual anatomy |
d. The person does not exhibit exclusive male or female sexual anatomy |
|
Which of the following best describes gender identity? a. The manner in which we express masculinity or femininity on a daily basis b. The practice of behaving in a masculine or feminine way c. Interactions with others that teach us certain behaviors d. Our personal sense of awareness of being masculine of feminine |
d. Our personal sense of awareness of being masculine or feminine |
|
Which of the following is true about androgyny? a. A person has masculine traits but tries to be a female b. Androgynous people follow traditional sexual roles c. A person has feminine traits but tries to be a male d. A person has a combination of both traditional masculine and feminine traits |
d. A person has a combination of both traditional masculine and feminine traits |
|
Sexual orientation is based on which of the following factors? a. Biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental b. Biological, social, and religious c. Psychological, familial, and environmental d. Biological and socioenvironmental |
a. Biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental |
|
All of the following are true about celibacy except a. It can be an opportunity for personal growth b. It can be lonely for some people c. It can be a result of religious beliefs d. It has nothing to do with personal growth |
d. It has nothing to do with personal growth |
|
All of the following are considered variant sexual behaviors except a. Voyeurism b. Masturbation c. Group sex d. Autoerotic asphyxiation |
b. Masturbation |
|
The duct system atop the testes where sperm reach maturity is the a. Vulva b. Epididymis c. Scrotum d. Endometrium |
b. Epididymis |
|
Sexual dysfunction only affects men a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
Trying to understand the gender differences in communication patterns is a good first step to better communication between the sexes a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
Sexual identity begins at birth. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
Sexual intimacy is the major reason for the existence of all relationships. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
Testosterone is the hormone responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Serial monogamy means that partners can have sexual involvement outside their primary relationship. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
The first sign of puberty in females is the beginning of breast development. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
Fertility is a person's ability to a. Reproduce b. Have a normal delivery c. Resist sexually transmitted infections d. Produce viable sperm |
a. Reproduce |
|
The typical use failure rate for a contraception method takes into account which of the following? a. Familiarity with the method b. Human error c. Perfect use d. Daily use |
b. Human error |
|
Which of the following is not true about male condoms? a. They are reliable against pregnancy when used consistently b. They can be purchased with spermicide c. They help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections d. They can be used with baby oil and body lotion as lubricants |
d. They can be used with baby oil and body lotion as lubricants |
|
Which of the following lubricants is safe to use with a condom? a. Water-based lubricant b. Petroleum jelly c. Hand lotion d. Baby oil |
a. Water-based lubricants |
|
The first widely used form of birth control used by women was a. The diaphragm b. Spermicidal foams and jellies c. The pill d. The IUD |
a. The diaphragm |
|
Diaphragms a. Create a physical and chemical barrier to sperm b. Can be purchased without a prescription c. Must be removed within 2 hours following intercourse d. Have a low effectiveness rate |
a. Create a physical and chemical barrier to sperm |
|
A primary advantage of the contraceptive sponge is that a. It protects well against all STIs b. Protection lasts for up to 12 hours c. It does not require a fitting from a doctor d. Only one type of spermicide can be used with it |
c. It does not require a fitting from a doctor |
|
Oral contraceptive pills are a. Effective protection against STIs b. An effective barrier contraceptive method c. Most commonly used by women who have had at least one child d. Up to 99 percent effective at preventing pregnancy if used correctly |
d. Up to 99 percent effective at preventing pregnancy if used correctly |
|
Many men are reluctant to have a vasectomy because a. General anesthetic is used b. Fear of decreased sexual performance c. Long recovery period d. Major surgery involved |
b. Fear of decreased sexual performance |
|
An IUD a. Always contains hormones b. Causes a long delay in the return of fertility c. Is unlikely to cause complications d. Offers long-term protection from pregnancy |
d. Offers long-term protection from pregnancy |
|
Which of the following is true about emergency contraceptive pills? a. They are 95 percent effective if taken 2 to 5 days after unprotected intercourse b. Most college health centers do not provide emergency contraception c. They are 100% effective if taken 2 to 5 days after unprotected intercourse d.Four brands are now available over the counter subject to certain age limits |
a. They are 95 percent effective if taken 2 to 5 days after unprotected intercourse |
|
Fertility awareness methods of birth control include all of the following except a. Abstinence b. The calendar method c. The body temperature method d. The cervical mucous method |
a. Abstinence |
|
A rise in woman's basal body temperature signals a. The beginning of the menstrual cycle b. The fertilization has occurred c. The end of the current menstrual period d. That ovulation has occurred |
d. That ovulation has occurred |
|
Preconception health involves all of the following except a. Avoiding food containing folic acid b. Avoiding x-rays and hazardous environmental chemicals c. Stopping tobacco and alcohol use d. Reducing or eliminating caffeine intake |
a. Avoiding food containing folic acid |
|
Which of the following is true about teratogenic effects? a. The fetus cannot develop an addiction to the drugs the mother is using b. The fetus is most susceptible to birth defects during the last three months of pregnancy c. These effects can be caused by environmental chemical exposure d. A rubella infection in the mother is not associated with teratogenic effects |
c. These effects can be caused by environmental chemical exposure |
|
Jade is pregnant. During a regular medical check-up, her physician discusses alcohol consumption.The physician will likely advise that she a. Limit her intake to two glasses per day b. Abstain from alcohol during pregnancy c. Have only an occasional glass of wine with dinner d. Limit her intake to one glass per day |
b. Abstain from alcohol during pregnancy |
|
A false negative pregnancy test may result from a. Taking the pregnancy test too early in the pregnancy b. High sodium in the diet c. A staph infection d. A sexually transmitted disease |
a. Taking a pregnancy test too early in the pregnancy |
|
A birth defect that occurs more frequently in babies born to mothers over the age of 35 is a. Blindness b. Deafness c. Spina bifida d. Down's syndrome |
d. Down's syndrome |
|
A fetus is the term used to describe an embryo as of a. 10 weeks of pregnancy b. the third month of pregnancy c. 6 weeks of pregnancy d. The first month of pregnancy |
b. The third month of pregnancy |
|
Cesarean sections are performed for all of the following reasons except a. If a baby is in physiological distress b. It labor lasts too long c. If the baby is about to exit the uterus any way but head first d. If the baby is about to exit the uterus head first |
d. If the baby is about to exit the uterus head first |
|
Which of the following circumstances can cause a miscarriage? a. Too much caffeine b. Robust maternal health c. Genetic normality d. Maternal infections or hormone imbalance |
d. Maternal infections or hormone imbalance |
|
The most common cause of female infertility is a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Gonorrhea d. Endometriosis |
b. Polycystic ovary syndrome |
|
Fertility drugs a. Reduce the risk of ovarian cysts b. Guarantee a successful pregnancy c. Can cause hypertension d. Increase the chances of the multiple births |
d. Increase the chances of multiple births |
|
To reduce the risk of her child having spina-bifida, a pregnant woman should consume an adequate amount of which nutrient a. Vitamin D b. Biotin c. Vitamin B12 d. Folic acid |
d. Folic acid |
|
The relatively ineffective method of birth control, known as coitus interruptus, in the a. Outercourse method b. Body temperature method c. Calendar method d. Withdrawal method |
d. Withdrawl method |
|
Diaphragms can typically be purchased over the counter wherever condoms are sold. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
All spermicides are effective in preventing sexually transmitted infection. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
Sterilization has become the leading method of contraception for women of all ages. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
One advantage of the female condom is that it can be used multiple times. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
Male infertility problems account for around 35 percent of infertility cases. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
Using a drug for a purpose other than that which is intended is a. Drug misuse b. Drug abuse c. Drug tolerance d. Drug use |
a. Drug misuse |
|
An aspirin taken to relieve minor muscle aches would be considered a a. Recreational drug b. Prescription medication c. Herbal preparation d. Over-the-counter drug |
d. Over-the-counter drug |
|
People with a physiological dependence on a substance, such as an addictive drug, will experience a. Neither tolerance nor withdrawal b. Tolerance but not withdrawal c. Both tolerance and withdrawal d. Withdrawal but not tolerance |
c. Both tolerance and withdrawal |
|
James is no longer able to feel the same effects from his drug of choice with his regular dose; he needs to increase the amount of the drug to feel the desired effects. This demonstrates a. Tolerance b. Withdrawal c. Intolerance d. Adjustment |
a. Tolerance |
|
David spends four hours a day lifting weights and is at the point of obsession about his fitness routine to the extent that he will miss classes and outings with friends so he can go to the gym. He most likely suffers from which of the following disorders? a. Exercise addiction b. Anorexia nervosa c. Bulimia d. Bipolar disorder |
a. Exercise addiction |
|
All types of addiction a. Have the potential to produce a positive mood change b. Involve some type of substance abuse c. Eventually lose their hold on a person over time d.Do not necessarily have negative consequences |
a. Have the potential to produce a positive mood chance |
|
Jason doesn't see that his addiction to heroin is self-destructive. He is experiencing a. Denial b. Obsession c. Compulsion d. Displacement |
a. Denial |
|
Which of the following is true about gambling addiction? a. Compulsive gamblers seek a high from the excitement rather than from money b. Compulsive gamblers and drug addicts have entirely different cravings and highs c. Gambling problems are greater among individuals with high socioeconomic status d. Gambling problems do not become increasingly worse over time |
a. Compulsive gamblers seek a high from the excitement rather than from money |
|
Lisa is aware that her best friend, Kim, has a drinking problem. Lisa continually makes excuses for her and often completes Kim's homework to protect her from flunking out of school. Lisa's behavior is an example of a. Intervening b. Reinforcing c. Enabling d. Compulsion |
c. Enabling |
|
Which of the following is true about over the counter drugs? a. Some require a prescription b. They can be abused c. They cannot be abused d. They are monitored under the care of a physician |
b. They can be abused |
|
Mikail is attempting to reduce his caffeine consumption. Which of the following drinks that he consumes daily has the highest amount of caffeine per serving? a. Black tea b. Regular cola c. Gourmet coffee from a coffee shop d. Energy drink |
c. Gourmet coffee from a coffee shop |
|
What is the most common reason offered by college students to explain their drug use? a. To be more popular with peers b. To reduce stress c. To escape an abusive home life d. To enhance self-esteem |
b. To reduce stress |
|
If you have questions about drug interactions, you should talk to a a. Fitness trainer b. Psychologist c. Pharmacist of physician d. Naturopath |
c. Pharmacist of physician |
|
A large does of cocaine can cause a. Increased heart rate and blood pressure b. Irregular heart rate and low blood pressure c. Increased appetite d. Excessive fatigue |
a. Increased heart rate and blood pressure |
|
Amphetamines such a Ritalin or Adderall are commonly prescribed to treat a. ADHD b. Anxiety c. Insomnia d. Hypertension |
ADHD |
|
Which of the following is not true of methamphetamine? a. It can produce a high lasting over 8 hours when smoked b. It is highly addictive from the very first use c. It can be made with over the counter ingredients d. It can be snorted or smoked, but not injected or orally ingested |
d. It can be snorted or smoked, but not injected or orally ingested |
|
Opioids are also called a. Depressants b. Narcotics c. Stimulants d. Hallucinogens |
b. Narcotics |
|
Marijuana today is a. Less of a health risk than it used to be b. Not subject to state or federal drug laws c. Not able to be orally ingested d. Much more potent than it was in the 60's |
d. Much more potent than it was in the 60's |
|
The most noticeable effect of the THC is marijuana is a. Bloodshot eyes b. Decreased thirst and appetite c. Quick reactions d. A slouched posture |
a. bloodshot eyes |
|
Long-term effects of marijuana include all of the following except a. Increased risk of lung cancer b. Increased risk of developing serious mental health problems c. Increased production of testosterone in males d. Increased risk of testicular cancer in males |
c. Increased production of testosterone in males |
|
Marijuana use presents clear dangers to those driving motor vehicles (as well as others on the road) because it a. Slows reaction time and impedes decision making b. Alters the color and depth perception c. Negatively affects night vision d. May cause seizures |
a. Slow reaction time and impedes decision making |
|
Morphine, codeine, and heroin are all a. Opioids b. Amphetamines c. Available over the counter d. Available by prescription |
a. Opioids |
|
Which of the following is not true about the treatment for opioid addiction? a. The most difficult time in the withdrawal process occurs 24-72 hours after the last use b. The most difficult time in the withdrawal process occurs 3 to 7 days after the last use c. Treatment can include taking a synthetic narcotic such as methadone to control the withdrawal symptoms d. Symptoms of withdrawal can include sleep disturbances, and muscle tremors |
b. The most difficult time in the withdrawal process occurs 3 to 7 days after the last use |
|
Which of the following is true about psilocybin? a. It is the active chemical in a type of grass b. It is similar to marijuana in its physical effects c. Its physical effects wear off in 1-2 hours d. It can cause hallucinations |
d. It can cause hallucinations |
|
Ecstasy is a a. Hallucinogen only b. Depressant only c. Stimulant and mild hallucinogen d. Stimulant only |
c. Stimulant and mild hallucinogen |
|
Which type of drug has the potential to alter a person's mood or behavior? a. Psychoactive drug b. Illicit drug c. Over-the-counter drug d. Recreational drug |
a. Psychoactive drug |
|
Endorphins are hormones that act as the body's own opioids in their ability to reduce pain and produce feelings of well-being. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
A synergistic drug interaction can be dangerous or even deadly. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Prescription drug abuse has increased dramatically among college students over the past 10 years. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
Methadone maintenance does not have the same potential for addiction that heroin does. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
What percentage of Americans abstain from drinking alcohol? a. 75% b. 25% c. 10% d. 50% |
b. 25% |
|
Which of the following statements about college drinking is true? a. The majority of college students drink alcohol on a daily basis b. Three-quarters of college students are classified as heavy episodic drinkers c. Female college students' alcohol consumption is now close to that of male college students d. Few students experience negative consequences as a result of alcohol consumption |
c. Female college students' alcohol consumption is now close to that of male college students |
|
Approximately what percentage of Americans consume alcoholic beverages regularly? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% |
c. 50% |
|
What is the percentage of alcohol in 100 proof whiskey? a. 80% b. 40% c. 20% d. 50% |
d. 50% |
|
Which of the following is not true about alcohol absorption? a. Alcohol can be absorbed throughout the entire gastrointestinal system b. Alcohol can be diffused from the stomach lining into the bloodstream c. Carbonated alcoholic beverages are absorbed less rapidly than those containing no sparkling additives d. Almost 80% of alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine |
c. Carbonated alcoholic beverages are absorbed less rapidly than those containing no sparkling additives |
|
One standard drink equals a. 12 oz of beer or 1. oz of 80 proof liquor b. 6 oz of malt liquor or 8 oz of beer c. 10 oz of wine or 1 oz of 80 proof liquor d. 16 oz of beer or wine |
a. 12 oz beer or 1 ox of 80 proof liquor |
|
The depressant effects of alcohol become apparent at a blood alcohol concentration of a. 0.10% b. 0.06% c. 0.15% d. 0.02% |
a. 0.10% |
|
After a night of heavy drinking, John still appears sober while his friends are obviously intoxicated. It is likely that John has developed a. Learned behavioral tolerance b. Alcohol poisoning tolerance c. Non-alcoholic personality d. Alcoholic acceptance |
a. Learned behavioral tolerance |
|
The toxic chemical by-product of alcohol metabolism that causes nausea and vomiting is called a. Acetate b. Transacetate c. Alcohol dehydrogenase d. Acetaldehyde |
d. Acetaldehyde |
|
When women drink alcohol during pregnancy, they can cause significant brain damage and other impairments in the fetus; this condition is known as a. Fetal alcohol syndrome b.Alcoholic hepatitis c. Teratogenic paralysis d. Fetal cirrhosis |
a. Fetal alcohol syndrome |
|
The reduction in alcohol-related driving fatalities since the 1980s is due to a. An increased number of rehabilitation facilities b. A decreased drinking age in many states c. Less restrictive enforcement of laws in some states d. 0 tolerance laws and increased drinking age |
d. 0 tolerance laws and increased drinking age |
|
Which is true about women and alcoholism? a. Women get addicted faster with less alcohol use than men b. The number of women alcoholics exceeds that of men c. Alcoholic death rates are lower for women than for men d. Married women are at the highest risk for alcoholism among females |
a. Women get addicted faster with less alcohol use than men |
|
Jeff has been drinking a lot over the past few months, including frequent binges. His friends are concerned that this behavior puts him at risk for a condition that involves a potentially lethal blood alcohol concentration. Which condition is this? a. Alcohol poisoning b. Cirrhosis c. Coronary artery disease d. Alcoholic hepatitis |
a. Alcohol poisoning |
|
Most new smokers in the US are a. Children and teenagers b. Men in their 20s c. College students d. Blue-collar workers |
a. Children and teenagers |
|
Marketing of tobacco products currently targets all of the following except a. Children through ads on TV b. Men through ads implying masculinity and ruggedness c. Women through ads implying social acceptance d. Ethnic and minority groups through sponsorship or community events |
a. Children through ads on TV |
|
Which of the following statements about nicotine is true? a. It causes a drop in blood pressure b. It is powerful central nervous system stimulant c. It decreases production of adrenaline d. It is mildly addictive |
b. It is a powerful central nervous system stimulant |
|
Which effect does carbon monoxide have on the body? a. It irritates nasal passages and lung tissue b. It diminishes the oxygen carrying capacity of the red blood cells c. It impairs the cilia's cleansing function d. It diminishes hormone production |
b. It diminishes the oxygen carrying capacity of the red blood cells |
|
Risk for developing lung cancer varies among smokers due to all of the following except a. Frequency of smoking b. Tolerance to nicotine c. Age of onset of smoking d. Amount of inhalation of cigarette smoke |
b. Tolerance to nicotine |
|
The following is not true about smokeless tobacco a. It does not contain cancer causing substances b. Dental problems are common among smokeless tobacco users c. It contains more nicotine than cigarettes d. It is just as addictive as smoking |
a. It does not contain cancer causing substances |
|
Which of the following is true about environmental tobacco smoke? a. ETS has fewer carcinogens, tar, and nicotine than mainstream smoke b. ETS accelerates the buildup of plaque in the heart and blood vessels c. Adults are more heavily exposed to ETS than children d. ETS is responsible for more lung cancer deaths than heart disease deaths annually |
d. ETS is responsible for more lung cancer deaths than heart disease deaths annually |
|
All of the following are smoking cessation medications except a. Nicvax b. Chantix c. Zyban d. Xenadrine |
d. Xenadrine |
|
Which of the following occurs within 24 hours of quitting smoking? a. Coughing deceases b. Cilia regrow in the lungs c. Circulation improves d. Chance of heart attack decreases |
d. Chance of heart attack decreases |
|
Which of the following is true with respect to women and smoking? a. Poor women are less likely to smoke than wealthy women b. Smoking rates for women are approximately 25% less than the smoking rates for men c. Smoking rates among women are similar across all races and ethnicities d. Women who smoke are more likely to have fertility problems than women who do not smoke |
d. Women who smoke are more likely to have fertility problems than women who do not smoke |
|
Smoking contributes to heart disease by doing all of the following except a. Increasing platelet adhesiveness b. Accelerating the buildup of plaque c. Weakening tissues d. Thinning the plaque in the major blood vessels |
d. Thinning the plaque in the major blood vessels |
|
The effects of alcohol are different for women and men because a. Men are not affected by congeners b. Women are not affected by congeners c. Women have lower levels of body fat than men d. Women have lower levels of alcohol dehydrogenase than men |
Women have lower levels of alcohol dehydrogenase than men |
|
College students think other students drink more than they actually do. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
Alcohol and tobacco result in more deaths each year than al illicit drugs combined. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
Smoking is second only to mold as the primary cause of indoor air pollution. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
Smokers have 70% higher death rate from heart disease than nonsmokers. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Worrying about an upcoming test would increase the alcohol absorption rate in the body. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Which of the following best describes appetite? a. It has the social meaning attached to food b. It is not triggered by smells or taste c. It is more psychological and physiological d. It is the same as hunger |
c. It is more psychological and physiological |
|
Which of the following is true about calories? a. Calories are one of the basic nutrient groups b. Caloric needs stay about the same during various life stages c. Restricted-calorie diets are always safe d. Calories are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food |
d. Calories are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food |
|
Which type of proteins contain all nine essential amino acids? a. Complementary b. Complete c. Incomplete d. Plant-source |
b. Complete |
|
What is the difference between a portion and a serving? a. A serving is the recommended amount to be consumed, and a portion is the amount you choose to eat b. A serving amount varies more than a portion c. Serving sizes and portions are equal for adults d. A serving is the amount you choose to eat, and a portion is the recommended amount to be consumed |
a. A serving is the recommended amount to be consumed, and a portion is the amount you choose to eat |
|
Nutrients are a. Best obtained from foods containing protein b. Best absorbed when drinking a lot of water c. Units of measure that indicate the amount of energy in a particular food d. The compounds in food that the body requires to sustain proper functioning |
d. The compounds in food that the body requires to sustain proper functioning |
|
Which of the following foods is the most nutrient-dense? a. A bowl of ice cream b. A glass of low-fat milk c. A glass of whole milk d. A stick of butter |
b. A glass of low-fat milk |
|
Which of the following is not true about fiber? a. It is the digestible portion of plant foods b. It helps move foods through the digestive systems c. It is the indigestible portion of plant foods d. It adds bulk to the diet |
a. It is the digestible portion of plant foods |
|
Which of the following foods is an example of a complete protein? a. Chicken breast b. Tofu c. Peanuts d. Pinto beans |
a. Chicken breast |
|
The complex carbohydrate form of a sugar that is stored in the liver and muscles is a. Galactose b. Glucagon c. Glycogen d. Glucose |
c. Glycogen |
|
Which type of fiber dissolves in water and can be digested by bacteria in the colon? a. Composite b. Complex c. Soluble d. Insoluble |
c. Soluble |
|
All of the following are good sources of complex carbs except a. Milk b. Spinach c. Oatmeal d. Carrots |
a. Milk |
|
The ideal cholesterol ratio for an individual would include a. High HDL and low LDL b. Low HDL and high LDL c. High HDL and high LDL d. Low HDL and low LDL |
a. High HDL and low LDL |
|
When liquid oils are hydrogenated, a. Trans fatty acids are produced b. HDL's are produced c. LDL's are produced d. Amino acids are produced |
a. Trans fatty acids are produced |
|
Minerals that the body needs in very small amounts are a. Organic minerals b. Macrominerals c. Trace minerals d. Major minerals |
c. Trace minerals |
|
The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is a. Sodium deficiency b. Potassium deficiency c. Iron deficiency d. Calcium deficiency |
c. Iron deficiency |
|
The chief function of this mineral in the body is to make teeth resistant to decay and bones resistant to mineral loss. a. Calcium b. Fluoride c. Phosphorus d. Magnesium |
b. Fluoride |
|
Which of the following could be included in a vegan diet? a. Raw milk b. Fish c. Apples d. Eggs |
c. Apple |
|
To ensure safety, leftovers that have been properly wrapped and refrigerated should be eaten within a. 3 days b. 2 days c. 24 hours d. 4 days |
a. 3 days |
|
An increase in the spread of food-borne illness could be attributed to all of the following except a. Insufficient education about food safety b. The globalization of the food supply c. The inadvertent introduction of pathogens into new geographic regions d. Increased consumption of locally grown or raised food |
d. Increased consumption of locally grown or raised food |
|
According to the criteria set by the USDA, which of the following would be the most appropriate label for an apple grown without insecticides, chemical fertilizers, or hormones? a. Some organic ingredients b. 100% organic c. Made with organic ingredients d. Grown organically |
b. 100% organic |
|
The science that studies food and nourishment, including food composition and the physiological effects of food on the body is a. Hunger b. Appetite c. Nutrition d. Craving |
c. Nutrition |
|
What proportion of people avoid something in their diet because they think they're allergic to it? a. About 10% b. About 1/3 c. More than half d. About half |
b. About 1/3 |
|
Common food allergens include all of the following except a. Milk b. Peanuts c. Green beans d. Eggs |
c. Green beans |
|
Individuals need more protein if they are pregnant, fighting off a serious infection, or recovering from surgery or burns. a. True b. False |
a. True
|
|
Many processed foods contain high amounts of sugar. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Fats should make up less than 10% of daily calories. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
Simple sugars provide short-term energy. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Eating yogurt is a scientifically proven method to benefit from probiotics' ability to optimize the bacterial environment in the intestines. a. Ture b. False |
b. False |
|
Antioxidants have been scientifically proven to slow the aging process. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
Food allergy and food intolerance are the same thing. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
What percentage of adult Americans are overweight or obese? a. More than 60% b. More than 20% but less than 30% c. More than 30% but less than 40% d. More than 50% but less than 60% |
a. More than 60% |
|
Obesity is a risk factor for a. Heart disease, cancer, stroke, diabetes b. Certain forms of cancer c. Type 1 and 2 diabetes d. Cardiovascular disease and cancer |
a. Heart disease, cancer, stroke, and diabetes |
|
When trying to determine her ideal, healthy weight, a woman should be less concerned about comparing herself to her friends and more concerned about a. How her clothes fit b. How often her weight fluctuates up and down and in what increments c. The body structure of close family members d. Her percentage of body fat and how her weight is distributed |
d. Her percentage of body fat and how her weight is distributed |
|
Problems with the BMI measurement include that a. It requires the use of special laboratory equipment b. It takes too long to calculate c. It cannot be used for children d. It is an indirect estimate of body fat |
d. It is an indirect estimate of body fat |
|
John underwent a body composition test that involved being submerged to compare his underwater weight with land weight to determine the amount body fat. This method of assessment is known as a a. Hydrostatic weighing b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis c. Skinfold measure d. Bod Pod test |
a. Hydrostatic weighing |
|
A good way to control portion sizes when you eat at home is to a. Serve meals on smaller plates b. Serve the food buffet style to reduce trips to the kitchen c. Eat restaurant leftovers several times a week d. Eat more frozen and convenience foods |
a. Serve meals on smaller plates |
|
The method of body composition measurement that sends a small current through the body to measure the resistance based on percentage of body water is a. Soft tissue roentgenogram b. bioelectrical impedance analysis c. Dual-energy x-ray absorpiometry d. Electrical conductivity test |
b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis |
|
The US population has become increasingly sedentary because a. People are under more stress at work b. Physical education is required in schools c. People have less access to health clubs than in the past d. People spend more time sitting at home and at work |
d. People spend more time sitting at home and at work |
|
The amount of energy the body uses at complete rest is known as a. Caloric restriction b. Basal metabolic rate c. Metabolic balance d. Resting metabolic rate |
b. Basal metabolic rate |
|
Data from the National Health Interview Survey show that 4 in 10 adults a. Participate in athletic activities on a regular basis b. Participate in vigorous physical exercise at least 3 times a week c. Participate in daily physical activity d. Never engage in any exercise, sports, or physically active hobbies |
d. Never engage in any exercise, sports, or physically active hobbies |
|
In addition to the US, which of the following nations or regions are also experiencing an obesity epidemic? a. Mexico and the UK b. Mexico and Central America c. Japan and Korea d. The UK and Scandinavia |
a. Mexico and the UK |
|
Individuals who go on and off starvation diets multiple times to lose weight will likely end up with a. A higher basal metabolic rate b. A lower basal metabolic rate c. An increased ability to lose weight each time d. A decreased ability to lose weight without drugs |
b. A lower basal metabolic rate |
|
Which of the following people would be most likely to notice the effect of an age-related decline in metabolic rate? a. 30 year old computer program b. 25 year old student c. 30 year old pregnant woman d. 25 year old truck driver |
a. 30 year old computer programmer |
|
The concept of adaptive thermogenesis attempts to explain a. How metabolic rate slows down as we age b. How thin people can consume large amounts of calories without gaining weight c. How genetics influences childhood obesity d. How obese people conserve calories which makes it harder to lose weight |
b. How thin people can consume large amounts of calories without gaining weight |
|
Some scientists believe that the hypothalamus does all of the following except a. Monitors the level of certain nutrients in the blood b. Disrupts adaptive thermogenesis c. Regulates appetite d. Aids in adaptive thermogenesis |
b. Disrupts adaptive thermogenesis |
|
Which of the following is not true about weight management? a. Low calorie diets increase the risk of disordered eating b. Short-term diets are not as effective as long-term behavior modification c. Long-term behavior modification is not as effective as short-term diets d. Depression and stress can influence a person's ability to lose weight |
c. Long-term behavior modification is not as effective as short-term diets |
|
A person's exercise metabolic rate (EMR) will increase if he or she a. Performs light daily activities instead of structured exercise routines b. Decreases the activity level from moderate to light c. Increases the activity level from light to moderate d. Decreases the time spent exercising |
c. Increases the activity level from light to moderate |
|
In planning a weight management program that has the best chance of success you must a. Set realistic short and long term goals b. Follow a formal plan such as Weight Watchers c. Decide to eliminate all fat from the diet d. Think of weight management as a temporary phase |
a. Set realistic short and long term goals |
|
The body adapts to prolonged fasting or carbohydrate deprivation by converting body fat to ketones to be used as fuel for brain cells, a process called a. Stenosis b. Hyperplasia c. Ketosis d. Ketogenesis |
d. Ketogenesis |
|
When fasting or eating a very-low-calorie diet for prolonged periods, the body will obtain fuel from its energy stores. One of the last reserves the body will use is a. Protein in muscle and organ tissue b. Fat stored in the liver c. Glycogen stores in the brain d. Subcutaneous fat |
a. Protein in muscle and organ tissues |
|
Problems associated with severe caloric restriction include all of the following except a. Increased tolerance to cold b. Blood sugar imbalance c. Fatigue d. Dehydration |
a. Increased tolerance to cold |
|
The weight loss drugs Redux and Pondimin (also known asfen-phen) were recalled after FDA approval and widespread use because they were found to a. Damage heart values b. Produce drastic ketosis c. Cause cancer d. Damage the gastrointestinal tract |
a. Damage heart valves |
|
Currently there is no prescription weight loss drug available that can be used over time without increasing the chances of a. Adverse effects b. Excess fluid loss c. Adverse effects and abuse d. Relapse and weight gain |
c. Adverse effects and abuse |
|
Over the counter weight loss supplements typically contain a. Antidepressants b. Diuretics c. Minerals d. Vitamins |
b. Diuretics |
|
Liposuction is used to a. Decrease levels of leptin b. Reroute the passage of food through the body c. Spot reduce or contour body shape d. Restrict the calories absorbed by the body |
c. Spot reduce or contour body shape |
|
Some forms of cancer are associated with obesity. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
Extremely low body fat can contribute to amenorrhea in females. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
A mother's decision to bottle feed her baby, as opposed to breast feeding would increase the child's chances of becoming obese. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
Basal metabolic rate is relatively stable throughout life. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
2 males of equal size and leanness but different ages will bur the same amount of calories at rest. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
Which of the following is NOT a major health-related component of physical fitness? a. Body composition. b. Body image c. Muscular strength and endurance. d.Cardiorespiratory fitness. |
b. Body image |
|
Walking to class or up a flight of stairs would be examples of a. Physical fitness b. Exercise c. Endurance d. Physical activity |
d. Physical activity |
|
Which statement best summarizes the association between exercise and improved immunity? a. Moderate-intensity exercise temporarily increases the number of white blood cells, thereby boosting immunity. b. Regular exercise does not have any correlation to a healthy immune system. c. The most significant improvements in immunity are seen when a moderate exerciser begins a more intense exercise program. d. Long-term, heavy exercisers get the most gain in immunity versus those who exercise only moderately. |
a. Moderate intensity exercise temporarily increases the number of white blood cells, thereby boosting immunity |
|
Exercise can reduce the risk of heart disease by all of the following except a. Improving blood flow b. Increasing the number of capillaries c. Increasing LDL levels d. Increasing heart efficiency |
c. Increasing LDL levels |
|
All of the following are ways to measure the intensity of cardiovascular exercise EXCEPT a. target heart rate. b.rating of perceived exertion. c. talk test. d. blood gas analysis. |
d. Blood gas analysis |
|
Tasha is 20 years old and wants to find her 60 percent target heart rate. This calculation would equal a. 120 beats per minute b. 60 beats per minute c. 160 beats per minute d. 200 beats per minute |
a. 120 beats per minute |
|
Which of the following statements is true about tai chi? a. Tai chi combines stretching and movement against resistance, which is aided by devices such as tension springs or heavy rubber bands. b. Tai chi increases flexibility through the use of asanas(poses). c. Tai chi originated in India about 5,000 years ago. d.Tai chi is an ancient Chinese form of exercise widely practiced in the West that promotes balance, coordination and meditation. |
d. Tai chi is an ancient Chinese form of exercise widely practiced in the West that promotes balance, coordination and meditation |
|
The amount of force that a muscle is capable of exerting is referred to as a. the overload principle. b. aerobic capacity. c. muscular endurance. d. muscular strength. |
d. Muscular strength |
|
The principle of fitness training that holds that the body should be gradually required to do more than it is used to doing is a. specificity. b. overload. c. duration. d. tension. |
b. Overload |
|
If you can perform regular moderate to vigorous levels of physical activity without excessive fatigue you are considered to be a. agile. b. flexible. c. athletic d. physically fit. |
d. Physically fit |
|
Exercise can improve mental health by a. burning off chemical byproducts of the stress response and increasing endorphins. b. increasing strength and aerobic capacity. c. burning off the byproducts of metabolism and improving cognitive ability. d. decreasing endorphin production after exercise. |
a. Burning off chemical byproducts of the stress response and increasing endorphins |
|
All of the following are overuse injury EXCEPT a. ligament sprain. b. shin splints. c. plantar fasciitis. d. runner's knee. |
a. Ligament sprain |
|
All of the following are part of the RICE formula for treating sports and fitness-related injuries EXCEPT a. apply heat at the injury site. b. elevate the injured extremity. c. rest the injured body part. d. compress the injury with an elastic bandage. |
a. Apply heat at the injury site |
|
Which of the following is the most serious form of heat-related illness? a. Heat cramps b. Heatstroke c. Heat exhaustion d. Heat response |
b. Heatstroke |
|
What of the following would NOT be good advice for someone who is purchasing running shoes? a. Make sure there is no extra room in the toe box. b. Make sure the shoes are made specifically for running. c. Make sure the shoes have good shock absorption. d. Make sure they fit properly by trying them on later in the day when feet have expanded to their largest size. |
a. Make sure there is no extra room in the toe box |
|
A person with strong core muscles has improved posture and a. reduced chance of injury. b. reduced training time. c. the ability to lift free weights. d. enhanced cardiovascular fitness. |
a. Reduced chance of injury |
|
When doing some form of aerobic exercise, you are at an appropriate intensity when you are a. able to talk to someone. b. not able to catch your breath. c. intermittently able to talk. d. able to sing clearly. |
c. Intermittently able to talk |
|
A swimmer trying to improve her stroke performance concentrates mainly on upper body weight training; her training program is an example of a. isolation. b. tension training. c. specificity. d. isometric training. |
c. Specificity |
|
The body's core muscles are a. chest and abdominals. b. back and legs. c. abdominals and legs. d. back and abdominals. |
d. Back and abdominals |
|
General pain that occurs below the knee and above the ankle is called a. tendon inflammation. b. shin splints. c. plantar fasciitis. d. shin fasciitis. |
b. Shin splints |
|
Good advice to someone who wants to exercise in hot weather would include all of the following EXCEPT a. avoid dehydration. b. restrict the intake of fluids before working out. c. wear appropriate clothing. d. exercise in early morning or evening, when temperatures are cooler. |
b. Restrict the intake of fluids before working out |
|
A sprained ankle should be iced a. every two hours for the first 24 hours. b. every hour for the first 24 hours. c. three times a day for the first 24 to 72 hours. d. for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 to 72 hours. |
d. For 20 min every hour for the first 24 to 72 hours |
|
Which type of exercise is designed to increase heart rate? a. Resistance b. Aerobic c. Flexibility d. Anaerobic |
b. Aerobic |
|
The amount of effort needed during a workout to improve some aspect of fitness is exercise a. intensity b. resistance c. duration d. flexibility. |
a. Intensity |
|
Longevity is positively correlated with the intensity of regular exercise. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
The lower the intensity of activity, the longer the duration of exercise should be. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
If you strain your muscle during exercise you should put heat packs on it when you get home to ease the pain and promote healing. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of muscles in the lower back. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
Regular physical activity decreases LDL levels and increases HDL levels in the blood. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
What percentage of American suffer from some type of cardiovascular disease? a. 1/2 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 3/4 |
c. 1/3 |
|
Which of the following is behavior that is important in preventing cardiovascular disease? a. Having adequate health insurance b. A sedentary lifestyle c. Avoiding tobacco d. Getting regular medical checkups |
c. Avoiding tobacco |
|
Which of the following cholesterol profiles would not indicate an increased risk of coronary heart disease? a. total cholesterol=180; LDL=135 b. total cholesterol=200; HDL=40 c. total cholesterol=170; Triglycerides=160 d. total cholesterol=170; HDL=70 |
d. total cholesterol=17-; HDL=70 |
|
The average healthy heart beats 70-80 beats per minute. A lower heart rate of 60 might indicate that a. the individual is exercising vigorously b. a heart valve is malfunctioning. c. the individual is stressed. d. the individual is very fit. |
d. The individual is very fit |
|
An adult with a damaged sinoatrial node a. must have a pacemaker implanted to control the heart rhythm. b. doesn't usually have any significant health problems. c. must always take medication to control the heartbeat. d. must have a heart transplant to survive. |
a. Must have a pacemaker implanted to control the heart rhythm |
|
All of the following are methods of reducing risk for CVD EXCEPT a. reducing your intake of saturated fat and cholesterol. b. not smoking. c. increasing triglycerides in your blood. d. increasing exercise. |
c. Increasing triglycerides in your blood |
|
A reduction in the heart's oxygen supply is a condition known as . b. atherosclerosis. c. ischemia. d. myocardial infarction. |
c. Ischemia |
|
Metabolic syndrome is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a. insulin resistance. b. fat deposits in the abdomen. c. low blood pressure. d. elevated triglycerides. |
c. Low blood pressure |
|
All of the following occur as part of congestive heart failure EXCEPT A. the walls of the heart and blood vessels become weakened. B. the heart becomes enlarged making it less efficient. C. blood cannot accumulate in the legs, ankles, or lungs. D. the flow of blood through the veins backs up. |
c. Blood cannot accumulate in the legs, ankles, or lungs |
|
Which of the following represents the most serious type of heart arrhythmia? a. Tachycardia b. Fibrillation c. Sinus rhythm d.Bradycardia |
b. Fibrillation |
|
Which of the following foods should be part of a heart-healthy diet? a. steak. b. bacon. c. olive oil. d. butter. |
c. Olive oil |
|
The best way to try to achieve the ideal HDL to LDL ratio before medications are prescribed is to a. reduce the amount of saturated fat in your diet. b. increase dietary protein. c. engage in regular exercise. d. reduce the saturated fat in your diet and engage in regular exercise. |
d. Reduce the saturated fat in your diet and engage in regular exercise |
|
Non-modifiable factors for CVD include all of the following EXCEPT a. heredity. b. race. c. gender. d. cholesterol levels. |
d. Cholesterol levels |
|
Which of the following has a body shape that is considered a high risk for heart disease? a. Woman shaped like an hour glass b. Man shaped like a pear c. Woman shaped like an apple d. Woman shaped like a pear |
c. Woman shaped like an apple |
|
Taking an aspirin a day is useful in treating cardiovascular disease because a. it increases the absorption of nutrients in cardiac muscle. b. it decreases the likelihood of hypertension. c. it reduces the risk of clot formation. d. headaches are a leading cause of CVD. |
c. It reduces the risk of clot formation |
|
A biopsy reveals that a woman who has had breast cancer now has cancer in her lymph nodes. The process of cancer spreading from one organ or body area to others is moving throughout the body is called a. transference. b. transvergence. c. malignance. d. metastasis. |
d. Metastasis |
|
A construction company used asbestos on many job sites over the years. Asbestos is an example of a(n) a. environmental carcinogen. b. radioactive material. c. widely used dye. d. pesticide. |
a. Environmental carcinogen |
|
A woman who began to have sex at an early age may be at risk for a. inherited mutations. b. breast cancer. c. leukemia. d. cervical cancer. |
d. Cervical cancer |
|
Jeremy was told that his cancer could not be treated with radiotherapy and must be treated with chemotherapy. This is probably because the cancer is a. no longer localized. b. in remission. c. localized. d. too small to target with radiation. |
a. No longer localized |
|
Al is going to begin chemotherapy to treat a type of lymphoma. Which of the following side effects is he likely to experience? a. Memory loss b. Rapid heartbeat c. Lowered risk of infection d. Nausea, fatigue, and hair loss |
d. Nausea, fatigue, and hair loss |
|
One reason exercise might decrease breast cancer risk is because of a. an increase in self-esteem. b. a decrease in body fat. c. the social support involved. d. an increased metabolism. |
b. A decrease in body fat |
|
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for colorectal cancer? a. Obesity b. Family history c. Low intake of fruits and vegetables d. Regular exercise |
d. Regular exercise |
|
If caught early, the prognosis for colon cancer is good because a. the disease progresses slowly. b. it can be cured with diet. c. treatments are so advanced. d. treatment can be delayed. |
a. The disease progresses slowly |
|
Sexually transmitted diseases have the greatest impact on increasng the incidence of which type of cancer. a. Cervical b. Prostate c. Testicular d. Ovarian |
a. Cervical |
|
An individual's lifestyle does not play a significant role in the development of cancer. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
Arrhythmias can be triggered by lifestyle factors. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Having a father or brother with prostate cancer more than doubles a man's risk of getting prostate cancer. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Speech and memory impairments following a stroke may be permanent. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Both saturated fats and trans fats raise blood cholesterol. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
The CT scan is a noninvasive procedure that uses X-rays to determine the shape and location of tumors. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
Microscopic organisms that are disease-causing agents are called a. pathogens. b. toxins. c. antibodies. d. carcinogens. |
a. Pathogens |
|
You want to decrease your risk of developing an infectious disease. Which of the following factors can you control? a. Nutritional status b. Age c. Heredity d.Environmental conditions |
a. Nutritional status |
|
All of the following behaviors will compromise your immune system ability to fight infections EXCEPT a. not getting enough sleep. b. excessive alcohol consumption. c. eating junk food. d. exercising regularly. |
d. Exercising regularly |
|
Greg frequently gets cold sores (caused by HSV-1). He recently noticed that his left eye had a painful lesion, and he immediately made an appointment with his doctor. Gregs's eye most likely became infected with the herpes virus when he touched his mouth and shortly afterward rubbed his eye, which is transmission via a. direct contact. b. indirect contact. c. autoinnoculation. d. irritation |
c. Autoinnoculation |
|
Every time you eat something that contains yellow dye, you wheeze and get a rash. The dye must be an a. immunoglobulin. b. antigen. c. antibody. d. enzyme. |
b. Antigen |
|
A rise in body temperature that occurs to destroy invading cells is a(n) a. allergic reaction b. autoimmune disease. c. fever. d. sign of hypertension |
c. Fever |
|
When the body overreacts to a specific antigen, which is a hypersensitivity reaction, this is a(n) a. allergic response. b. hyperimmune response. c. histamine response. d. antibody response. |
a. Allergic response |
|
You suffer from hay fever. The best way for you to minimize or prevent the symptoms of hay fever is to a. take antihistamines. b. take allergy shots. c. There is no way to prevent hay fever symptoms. d. avoid exposure to the plants that triggers your symptoms. |
d. avoid exposure to the plants that triggers your symptoms. |
|
You woke up this morning with the worst headache of your life and you feel nauseous. . Your neck feels so stiff that you can hardly nod your head. Your roommate says your skin is very hot and you probably have a fever. Which of the following statements is true? a. You drank too much and your roommate should make you quit whining and get out of bed. b. You studied so much last night that you developed a tension headache. Your roommate should let you rest. c. You have meningitis. Both you and your roommate should contact and go to the student health clinic immediately. d. You are experiencing an aura associated with a migraine headache and your roommate should sleep somewhere else tonight. |
c. You have meningitis. Both you and your roommate should contact and go to the student health clinic immediately |
|
Tuberculosis (TB), largely controlled in the United States since 1950, has seen a resurgence in the last 20 years as a result of all the following EXCEPT a. conditions such as overcrowding and poor sanitation b. growth in immigration and international travel. c. improved sanitation d. failure to isolate active cases of TB. |
c. Improved sanitation |
|
The common cold is always present in the population, meaning that it is a. endemic. b. pandemic. c. virulent. d. epidemic, |
a. Endemic |
|
Which of the following best describes the relationship between getting a chill and contracting a cold? a. A chill may indirectly increase a person's risk for getting a cold by lowering the immune system's resistance. b. Getting a chill has no effect on a person's immunity. c. Getting a chill may increase a person's risk for contracting a cold but not increase risk of infection from other pathogens. d.Getting a chill will cause a person to get a cold. |
a. A chill may indirectly increase a person's risk for getting a cold by lowering the immune system's resistance |
|
Mallory spent the summer working at a seafood restaurant in a small costal town. While there, she began a relationship with a man she later discovered was a user of IV drugs. Now Mallory has hepatitis, which type is she most likely to have? a. hepatitis C. b. hepatitis D. c. hepatitis A. d.hepatitis B. |
d. hepatitis B. |
|
Candi was mortified when her doctor told her that she had a protozoal disease. She probably had a. candidiasis. b. trichomoniasis. c. rickettsia. d. parasitic worms. |
b. trichomoniasis. |
|
A self-replicating protein-based agent that is thought to cause "mad cow disease" is a type of A. virus. B. protozoan. C. prion. D. fungi. |
C. prion. |
|
David got very ill with an E.coli infection while living on his grandfather's dairy farm last summer. He could have been infected in all of the following ways EXCEPT a. swimming in sewage-contaminated creek. b. drinking unpasteurized milk. c. a mosquito bite. d. eating undercooked ground beef. |
c. A mosquito bite |
|
When Maria's boyfriend returned for the health clinic, he told her he had been diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which of the following statement is true? a. Maria does not need to worry about contracting an STI because she was checked last year. b. Marie should go to the clinic to get tested for gonorrhea and treated if she has it. c. Marie does not need to worry because she does not have any gonorrhea symptoms. d.Maria should break up with her boyfriend because he is cheating on her. |
b. Maria should go to the clinic to get tested for gonorrhea and treated if she has it |
|
Misty, now 31, has been trying to get pregnant since she got married 4 years ago. Her doctor suspects that their infertility problem was likely caused by her history of PID from the most commonly reported STI in the United States. During her early 20s, Misty had contracted a. AIDS. b. chlamydia. c. gonorrhea. d. herpes simplex. |
b. chlamydia. |
|
The stage of syphilis that is characterized by a bacterial-filled chancre is A. primary syphilis. B. tertiary syphilis. C. secondary syphilis. D. latent syphilis. |
A. primary syphilis. |
|
Betthany is 42 and has cervical cancer. It is probably related to an infection she had during her college years, which was a. hepatitis A b. human papillomavirus (HPV) c. chlamydia d.syphilis |
b. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) |
|
Barry just found out his HIV test is positive. Which of the following statements is true? a. Barry's wife does not need to worry about getting infected, since she is a heterosexual female. b. Barry's positive HIV test means he has AIDS. c. Barry should seek treatment as soon as possible to slow progression of the disease. d. Looking back, Barry knows exactly when he got infected with HIV because the initial symptoms are markedly different than other STIs. |
c. Barry should seek treatment as soon as possible to slow progression of the disease. |
|
The major risk factor for chronic bronchitis is a. dust and pollen in the air. b. a family history of lung disease. c. a history of allergies. d. cigarette smoking. |
d. Cigarette smoking |
|
Once a month Jason experiences a headache that is severe, lasts 6-8 hours, and is accompanied by vomiting and extreme sensitivity to light. He most likely has these types of headaches. a. Migraine b. Tension c. Cluster d. Stress |
a. Migraine |
|
An antibody is any substance capable of triggering an immune response. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
Amy contracted the flu. Getting a flu shot now will enable her body to attack and eliminate the flu virus in her system. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
Rates of most STIs have decreased in recent years. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
The new human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination prevents only certain types of the human papillomavirus. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a sexually transmitted infection (STI). a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
Herpes can be cured in its early stages with proper antibiotic treatment. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
The terms HIV and AIDS are synonymous and can be used interchangeably. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
Katie is a researcher who studies factors that influence aging and how individuals cope with the aging process. Katie works in the field of. a. disease prevention b. geriatrics c. gerontology d. seniorology |
c. Gerontology |
|
Successful aging involves all of the following EXCEPT a. maintaining cognitive function and engaging in mentally challenging tasks. b. participating in meaningful activities, including social, family, and volunteer activities. c. refusing to accept physical, emotional, and social changes associated with growing older. d. avoiding debilitating diseases and disability by eating a healthy diet, exercising, and not smoking. |
c. Refusing to accept physical, emotional, and social changes associated with growing older |
|
Which of the following is the LEAST likely effect of the baby boomer generation aging? a. It could challenge the ability of the healthcare system to meet long-term needs. b. It could overload and potentially bankrupt social security revenues. c. It will have no impact on the economy, housing market, healthcare system, or Social Security. d. It could create disparities in safe and affordable long-term care options. |
c. It will have no impact on the economy, housing market, healthcare system, or Social Security. |
|
Jessica's grandmother has frequent urinary tract infections, which her doctor attributes to an inability of her body to recognize and fight the bacteria which causes it. This is an example of which theory of aging? A. Autoimmune B. Cellular C. Wear-and-tear D. Genetic mutation |
a. Autoimmune |
|
Osteoporosis would most likely result in a. arthritis in the lower back and knees. b. a high bone density. c. a wrist fracture as a result of a fall. d. redistribution of body fat in the trunk region. |
c. A wrist fracture as a result of a fall |
|
Which of the following best describes facial changes related to aging? a. The forehead becomes narrower. b. The earlobes shrink as a result of redistributed fatty deposits. c. The nose becomes wider and longer. d. The skin of the face smooths out. |
c. The nose becomes wider and longer |
|
After his stroke at the age of 80, Austin now has urinary incontinence, meaning he has a. kidney failure. b. reduced control or no control over urination. c. slowing of the urinary stream flow. d. dietary phosphorus that interferes with urination. |
b. Reduced control or no control over urination |
|
Your grandfather is having blurred vision in his right eye due to clouding in the lens associated with aging. To improve his vision, he would need which type of surgery. a. Glaucoma b. Retina c. Cataract d. Macular regeneration |
c. Cataract |
|
Miles is 75 and he has been diagnosed with glaucoma. What must he do to keep this problem from worsening? a. Take daily showers to prevent infection b. Inject insulin twice a day to keep his pancreas functioning properly c. Use special eye drops in his eyes to relieve pressure in the eye d. Take prescription medication to improve his thyroid function |
c. Use special eye drops in his eyes to relieve pressure in the eye |
|
Jean's hearing has diminished over the years. She probably has the most difficulty hearing a. conversation at the dinner table. b. a conversation over the telephone. c. the cheerleaders' words at the basketball game. d. the sermon at church. |
c. The cheerleaders' words at the basketball game |
|
What percentage of American couples between the ages of 55 and 70 engage in sexual activity? a. 30% b. 50% c. 60% d. 75%. |
b. 50% |
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Your 80-year-old aunt lives in an independent-living retirement center. She still has a very sharp memory. All of the following probably apply to her EXCEPT A. she keeps her mind active by reading and playing the piano. B. she has exercised regularly over the years. C. she remains physically active even now. D. she has never exercised and prefers to spend all of her time alone. |
d. She has never exercised and prefers to spend all her time alone |
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A bone condition that is a major cause of disability in the United States is a. rheumatoid arthritis . b. osteoarthritis. c. osteoporosis. d. fibromyalgia. |
b. osteoarthritis. |
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Too often, drug interactions in elderly people are first diagnosed as which condition before the underlying cause is found? A. Chronic fatigue syndrome B. Dementia C. Diabetes D. Addiction |
b. Dementia |
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Which of the following statements about Alzheimer's disease is NOT true? a. If caught early, its progression can be stopped. b. Nerve cells in the brain stop communicating with each other. c. It affects personality as well as memory. d. It is a disease in which brain cells die. |
a. If not caught early, its progression can be stopped |
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Which of the following is true about the elderly and alcohol abuse? a. More than 90 percent of older men drink at least occasionally. b. Elderly women are more likely to abuse alcohol than their male counterparts. c. The rate of alcoholism is higher in the elderly as compared to younger generations. d. Most older adults who consume alcohol are social drinkers. |
d. Most older adults who consume alcohol are social drinkers |
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Which of the following statements is NOT accurate concerning the drug use of the elderly? a. Some elderly people use illicit drugs to avoid the cost of conventional medical treatment. b. Some elderly are likely to overuse prescription drugs. c. The majority of individuals over the age of 60 take at least one prescription medication. d. More than a third of individuals age 65 and older take 5 or more prescription drugs. |
a. Some elderly people use illicit drugs to avoid the cost of conventional medical treatment. |
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Nutrients considered especially important for healthy aging include a. vitamins A, C, and E. b. protein and fats. c. calcium, vitamin D, and protein. d. sodium and magnesium |
c. Calcium, vitamin D, and protein |
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Phillip was involved in a car crash and placed on a respirator. After his family had the respirator removed he was non-responsive, with no reflexes and a flat EEG. These vital signs indicate Phillip has experienced a. myocardial death. b. brain death. c. hyperthermic death. d. clinical death |
b. Brain death |
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The loss or deprivation experienced by a person when a loved one dies is known as a. bereavement. b. guilt. c. acceptance. d. coping. |
a. Beraevement |
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The cultural practice of waiting a year after the death of a spouse to begin dating would be an example of a. social death. b. thanatology. c. mourning. d. expressed grief. |
c. Mourning |
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Funeral rituals a. are found in all cultures. b. always include a viewing of the body of the deceased. c. are not useful in helping survivors cope with their loss. d. are a relatively recent phenomenon in Western societies. |
a. Are found in all cultures |
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Withholding life-prolonging treatments and allowing a terminally ill patient to die naturally is a. pallative care. b. passive euthanasia. c. rational suicide. d. active euthanasia. |
b. passive euthanasia. |
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Hospice care A. provides care for a terminally ill patient and his or her family. B. lacks the counselors and clergy that a hospital would have on staff. C. is only provided in a nursing home setting D. is based on the patient's or family's ability to pay for the care. |
A. Provides care for a terminally ill patient and his or her family |
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Most older people end up living in a nursing home. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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The genetic mutation theory attributes aging to the decline of the body's immunological system. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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Menopause may make sexual activity less pleasurable for women. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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Gerontology explores the influences on aging and the ways in which people cope with and adapt to this process. a. True b. False |
a. True |
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Anger is a normal part of the grief process. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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To complete the grief work process, a person first must set a time limit for each of the stages to be completed. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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Which of the following are consequences of population growth? a. animal habitats being destroyed b. decreased availability of clean water c. natural resources being depleted d. All of these |
d. All of these |
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The country projected to have the largest increase in population by 2050 is a. the Philippines. b. China. c. Zambia. d. India. |
d. India |
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Reasons for continued population growth in many developing nations include all of the following EXCEPT a. incentives and tax breaks for larger families. b. traditional views of children as "social security". c. low socioeconomic status of women. d. a traditional desire for sons. |
d. a traditional desire for sons. |
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When couples choose to have no more than two children, this will result in a. reproductive restriction. b. limited procreation. c. negative population growth. d. zero population growth. |
d. 0 population growth |
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Air pollutants regulated in the Clean Air Act include all of the following EXCEPT a. carbon dioxide. b. particulates. c. carbon monoxide. d. sulfur dioxide. |
a. carbon dioxide. |
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A yellowish brown gas that is a by-product of burning fossil fuels is a. particulates. b. carbon dioxide. c. sulfur dioxide. d. carbon monoxide. |
c. Sulfur dioxide |
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Motor vehicle emissions are the primary source of the dangerous, odorless, colorless gas known as a. ozone b. nitrogen dioxide c. sulfur dioxide d. carbon monoxide |
d. Carbon monoxide |
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Nitrogen dioxide and oxygen interact with sunlight to form a. carbon monoxide. b. sulfur dioxide. c. ozone. d. particulates. |
c. Ozone |
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You are surveying your home for sources of lead because a. the weight of lead in a house can cause the foundation to crack. b. lead can make the paint on windowsills chip away. c. lead can cause minor allergic reactions. d. lead can be extremely detrimental to children and fetuses. |
d. Lead can be extremely detrimental to children and fetuses |
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You are considering purchasing an older home in a historic neighborhood. You have hired an inspector to check the house for sources of lead, which may be in all of the following EXCEPT a. Paint b. Pipes and plumbing c. wood floors. d. glazes. |
c. Wood floors |
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You have been looking at numerous new homes. The nausea and fatigue you are attributing to the stress of buying a new house may actually be due to exposure to a. carbon monoxide. b. formaldehyde. c. asbestos. d. radon. |
b. Formaldehyde |
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Coal-powered electrical utility boilers and motor vehicles emit A. carbon dioxide B. hydrochlorazine. C. nitrogen dioxide D. hydrocarbons. |
c. Nitrogen dioxide |
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When trying to ensure clean air in your home, sources of pollution to look for include all of the following EXCEPT a. formaldehyde. b. radon. c. lead gases. d. asbestos. |
c. Lead gases |
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Increases in the planet's temperature over the past few decades can be attributed to a. the increased use of chlorofluorocarbons since 1970. b. acid rain. c. the enhanced greenhouse effect. d. excess carbon monoxide |
c. The enhanced greenhouse effect |
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Seth has a sensitivity to mold. When he visits his grandparents and stays in their damp basement, he likely experiences a. All of these b. headaches. c. nasal congestion. d. respiratory complaints. |
a. All of these |
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Ozone is an atmospheric layer that is a. close to Earth and poses no serious health threats. b. in the stratosphere and protects the planet from UVB radiation. c. the layer of gas located 100 miles above the Earth's surface. d. a chemical that is produced when oxygen interacts with water. |
b. In the stratosphere and protects the planet from UVB radiation |
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The most predominant greenhouse gas is a. nitrous oxide. b. carbon dioxide. c. hydrochlorazine. d. methane. |
b. Carbon dioxide |
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The chemical originally contained in aerosol propellants that is thought to have contributed to the depletion of the ozone layer is a. flourohydrochlorides. b. chlorofluorocarbons. c. nitrous oxide. d. carbon-oxides. |
b. Chlorofluorocarbons |
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Earth's surface temperature has risen by how much in the past 100 years? a. More than 3 degrees but less than 5 degrees b. More than 5 degrees c. More than 1 degree but less than 2 degrees d. More than 2 degrees but less than 3 degrees |
c. More than 1 degree but less than 2 degrees |
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Global warming can cause all the following EXCEPT A. increases in the growth of forests. B. glacier retreat. C. extreme weather events. D. altered patterns of agriculture. |
a. Increases in the growth of forests |
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Most experts agree that the only truly effective way to reduce air pollution is to a. change all industrial waste laws. b. make cars larger, heavier, and more efficient. c. eliminate mass transportation as much as possible.ol propellants containing pollutants. d. reduce consumption of fossil fuels and shift to alternative energy sources. |
d. Reduce consumption of fossil fuels and shift to alternative energy sources |
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All of the following are examples of renewable resources EXCEPT a. wind. b. coal. c. solar. d. water. |
b. Coal |
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An example of a nonpoint source water pollutant is a. waste from a sewage treatment plant. b. waste from a wood-chip factory. c. industrial waste. d. pesticide runoff. |
d. Pesticide runoff |
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The average person in the U.S. generates more than ________ pounds of municipal solid waste each day. a. 12 b. 24 c. 21 d. 4 |
d. 4 |
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Marta collects kitchen scraps and yard clippings in a bin outside of her home to create this soil enhancement for her garden. She is creating a. waste. b. combustion. c. source reduction. d. compost. |
d. Compost |
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Countries that can afford a high birth rate are the ones with the most rapidly growing populations. a. False b. True |
a. False |
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All of the following statements regarding the safety of cell phones are true EXCEPT a. for the highest level of safety, it is best to use a hands-free device if a cell phone will be used for extended periods of time. b. the levels of radio frequency energy in cell phones are high enough to cause biological tissue damage. c. the FCC limits the radio frequency energy in cell phones to 1.6 watts. d. three large studies showed no relationship between cell phone usage and brain tumors to date. |
b. The levels of radio frequency energy in cell phones are high enough to cause biological tissue damage |
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Cigarette smoke releases particulates into the air. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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Most of the global warming over the last 50 years is due to human activities. a. True b. False |
a. True |
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Most solid municipal waste is recycled or composted. a. False b. True |
a. False |
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Taking responsibility for your health care includes all of the following EXCEPT a. using over-the-counter medications to treat illness such as sudden high fever or recurrent vomiting. b. learning when to seek medical attention. c. learning how to navigate the health care system. d. being knowledgeable about the benefits and limits of self-care. |
a. using over-the-counter medications to treat illness such as sudden high fever or recurrent vomiting. |
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Communicating with health care providers can be improved by all of the following EXCEPT A. seeking a second opinion when you have doubts about the provider's recommendations. B. writing down information so that you remember it accurately. C. relying on your health care provider for all information about your condition and possible treatments. D. knowing your family history. |
C. relying on your health care provider for all information about your condition and possible treatments. |
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The primary difference between a board certified and board eligible physician is a. a board eligible physician practices complimentary alternative medicine. b. a board eligible physician has failed the board exam and only has one additional chance to take the exam and pass it. c. a board certified physician is associated with an accredited health care facility. d. a board certified physician has demonstrated competency in their area. |
d. A board certified physician has demonstrated competency in their area |
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In a clinical trial for a new pain medication, if you were given an inactive substance instead of the actual drug but after taking it, your headache improved, this resulted from the a. ingredients in the inactive pills. b. time that had passed. c. a placebo effect. d. a nocebo effect. |
c. A placebo effect |
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Which of the following symptoms probably would not require professional medical advice? a. You get a tingling sensation in your arm and your friends say your speech is slurred. b. You develop a low grade fever and sore throat. c. Your skin and the whites of your eyes turn yellow. d. You notice that your fingers are bluish in color. |
b. You develop a low grade fever and sore throat |
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You should consult a physician a. for relaxation techniques. b. for a reaction to an insect bite. c. for a monthly breast or testicular exam. d. to check blood pressure and temperature. |
b. For a reaction to an insect bite |
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When choosing a health care provider, you should examine a. how their care compares to established medical practices. b. their educational training. c. All of these d. their associations with medical facilities. |
c. All of these |
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All of the following statements are true about traditional Western medical practice EXCEPT a. Its practitioners go through rigorous educational training. b. It can be practiced by a wide range of specialists and health professionals. c. All treatments have had the benefit of extensive clinical trials. d.It is best when the patient actively participates in decisions. |
c. All treatments have had the benefit of extensive clinical trials |
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Which of the following health professionals is least likely to be a primary health care provider? a. an allergist b. an internist c. a pediatrician d. an obstetrician-gynecologist |
a. An allergist |
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Your right eye has become very red and swollen and you suspect a possible infection. With whom should you make an appointment for treatment? a. ophthalmologist. b. optometrist. c. Optician d. osteopathic physician. |
a. Ophthalmologist |
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An optometrist a. Both performs eye exams and fits individuals for glasses. b. fits individuals for glasses. c. performs eye exams. d. prescribes medications to treat eye illnesses. |
a. Both performs eye exams and fits individuals for glasses |
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The primary care practitioner in your school's health clinic has a master's degree and is authorized to perform exams, conduct diagnostic tests, and in some states may also prescribe medications. He or she is a. a nurse practitioner b. licensed practical nurse c. vocational nurse d. registered nurse |
a. A nurse practitioner |
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Physician assistants a. Both can offer treatment and write prescriptions only when supervised by a physician and are licensed by state boards of medicine. b. are competently able to treat 100 percent of those seeking primary care. c. can offer treatment and write prescriptions only when supervised by a physician. d. are licensed by state boards of medicine. |
a. Both can offer treatment and write prescriptions only when supervised by a physician and are licensed by state boards of medicine |
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The majority of health care dollars in the United States is spent on a. physician services. b. hospital care. c. prescription drugs. d. nursing home care. |
b. Hospital care |
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Based on the percentage of gross domestic product (GDP), the United States spends more on healthcare than a. Germany. b. All of these c. China. d. England/the United Kingdom |
b. All of these |
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Originally health insurance only covered major medical expenses. This type of coverage failed to a. encourage disease prevention. b. control physicians' rates and the number of procedures performed. c. All of these d. provide incentives to contain costs. |
c. All of these |
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Approximately how many Americans are currently uninsured? a. More than 30 million b. More than 50 million c. More than 40 million d. More than 60 million |
c. More than 40 million |
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Which of the following is true with respect to the population of underinsured in the United States? A. There are no underinsured people in the United States. B. They are primarily children under the age of 16. C. Young adults are more likely to be underinsured than older adults. D. Most are either unemployed adults or their dependents. |
c. Young adults are more likely to be underinsured than older adults |
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A set fee that an insurance plan requires that patients pay at the time of service (per office visit or prescription) is the. a. copayment b. limit maximum c. deductible d. coinsurance |
a. Copayment |
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Your father was laid off six months ago but recently started a new job. He was able to keep his health insurance during the transition through a. Medicare. b. Medicaid. c. Social Security. d. COBRA. |
d. COBRA |
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If you have moved to a new town and want to find a physician you can see for annual wellness exams and the treatment of routine ailments, you are seeking a(n) A. in-network practitioner. B. internal medicine practitioner. C. specialist. D. primary care practitioner. |
D. Primary care practitioner |
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You are concerned about the ever-increasing costs of health care, so you try to do all of the following EXCEPT a. avoid receiving the same services from more than one provider. b. maintain your weight and avoid obesity. c. use the emergency room for your routine health care. d. exercise often and regularly. |
c. Use the emergency room for your routine health care |
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Access to health care can be limited by a. ability to understand the system. b. insurance coverage. c. health status. d. All of these |
d. All of these |
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A measurement of care quality used by many health care payers is based on which criteria? a. Number of providers on a case b. patient outcomes c. Mortality rates d. days spent in the hospital |
b. Patient outcomes |
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All patients have the legal right to refuse treatment. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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Allopathic medicine is based on scientifically validated methods and procedures. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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A patient is entitled to have access to all of their medical records. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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People without health care coverage increase health care costs when they wait until a condition becomes more serious before seeking medical attention. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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Waiting periods are illegal when getting a new health insurance plan. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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All physicians must accept Medicare patients. a. False b. True |
a. False |
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All of the following are examples of conventional medical treatment EXCEPT a. physical therapy. b. acupuncture. c. prescription medications. d. surgery. |
b. Acupuncture |
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A person who administers minute doses of natural substances derived from plants, animals, and minerals is which type of CAM practitioner? a. naturopathy b. Chinese medicine practitioner c. homeopathy d. Ayurvedic practitioner |
c. Homeopathy |
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You are seeking to balance your body, mind, and spirit and reduce stress-related symptoms by eliminating impurities in your body. You decide to consult with a practitioner of a. Ayurvedic medicine. b. naturopathic medicine. c. traditional Chinese medicine. d. homeopathic medicine. |
b. Naturopathic medicine |
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Naturopathy refers to a. practice based on the principle of "like cures like." b. practice based on manipulation of the spinal column and other structures.in the spine to align the tissues properly. c. holistic treatment approach based on three body types. d. practice based on restoring the body's innate ability to heal itself. |
d. Practice based on restoring the body's innate ability to heal itself |
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Before considering an alternative medical treatment, a wise consumer will do all of the following EXCEPT a. avoid practitioners who promote their treatment as a "miracle cure." b. thoroughly evaluate the risks of the CAM product or service. c. consult reliable resources to determine the scientific basis of claimed benefits. d. believe practitioners' promises without doing any research or asking for references. |
d. Believe practitioners' promises without doing any research or asking for references |
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Which CAM modality focuses on balancing qi (chi) through acupuncture, massage, energy therapies, and herbal treatments? a. Homeopathy b. Ayurvedic medicine c. Traditional Chinese medicine d. Energy medicine |
c. Traditional Chinese medicine |
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The CAM therapy that Americans have come to rely on heavily for treatment of musculoskeletal problems and that many insurance companies will now cover is a. energy medicine. b. chiropractic medicine. c. massage therapy. d. Chinese medicine. |
b. Chiropractic medicine |
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Chiropractic medicine is based on the idea of a. health is defined as having the proper balance of vital energy or life force. b. soft-tissue manipulation can be used for a wide variety of healing purposes. c. equal emphasis on body, mind, and spirit is essential to restore harmony. d. energy flows through the spine via nerves and if the spine is not properly aligned, the energy is disrupted. |
d. Energy flows through the spine via nerves and if the spine is not properly aligned, the energy is disrupted. |
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Chiropractors a. are federally licensed and regulated. b. offer treatment that may be effective for chronic low back pain, neck pain, and headaches. c. and medical doctors maintain an adversarial relationship. d . attend a training program that requires three years of intensive courses. |
b. Offer treatment that may be effective for chronic low back pain, neck pain, and headaches |
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All of the following are forms of bodywork EXCEPT a. the Feldenkrais Method®. b. the Alexander Technique. c. Rolfing® Structural Integration. d. reflexology. |
d. Reflexology |
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A Japanese massage technique, similar to acupressure, based on applying pressure to traditional acupuncture points to unblock energy flow is a. shiatsu. b. relaxation. c. deep tissue. d. trigger point. |
a. Shiatsu |
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Acupuncture A. practitioners are state licensed and regulated. B. can only be practiced by medical doctors in the United States. C. is the art of inserting fine needles in 14 places on the head. D. has not proven effective for any medical problem. |
A. Practitioners are state licensed and regulated |
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Mind-body interventions that have been researched to the degree that they are now considered part of traditional medicine rather than alternative treatments are a. biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy. b. hypnosis and regression therapy. c. yoga and Pilates. d. meditation and tai chi. |
a. Biofeedback and cognitive behavioral therapy |
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According to studies in psychoneuroimmunology, which of the following would be most effective for improving a person's immunity? a. teaching relaxation techniques b. supplementing the diet with herbals c. walking 30 minutes per day d. providing social support |
a. Teaching relaxation techniques |
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All of the following are true about dietary supplements EXCEPT a. they may contain vitamins, minerals, and amino acids. b. they are in the form of capsules, powder, or liquid. c. they are taken to enhance mood, prevent disease, and enhance health. d. they can be marketed as a conventional food item. |
d. They can be marketed as a conventional food item |
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All of the following are true of herbal remedies EXCEPT a. they cannot harm humans because they are in a natural plant form. b. They are not regulated by the FDA in the same manner as other medications. c. The active ingredients have not been standardized so you know what you are buying. d. They can interact with other medications and foods in a way that could be dangerous. |
a. They cannot harm humans because they are in a natural plant form |
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You want to take several herbal supplements in tablet or capsule form. Your best option is to purchase them as a. tinctures. b. standardized extracts. c. freeze-dried extracts. d. herbal teas. |
b. Standardized extracts |
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Although you study for hours, your memory seems to fail you when taking an exam. To improve your memory, you are considering trying a. ginkgo biloba. b. echinacea. c. St. John's wort. d. kava. |
a. Ginko Biloba |
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Which of the following supplements can cause liver damage? a. Kava b. Flaxseed c. Zinc d. St. John's wort |
a. Kava |
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The current FDA regulations for supplements have the goal of ensuring that supplements a. do not contain inactive ingredients. b. are sold only by U.S. pharmacies. c. are sold only by reputable retail outlets. d. comply with safety and purity standards. |
d. Comply with safety and purity standards |
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A somatic education technique designed to improve movement, flexibility, and nervous system function is a. the Trager® Approach. b. the Feldenkrais Method®. c. the Alexander Technique. d. Rolfing® Structural Integration. |
b. The Feldenkrais Method |
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A country that has implemented stringent methods for the regulation of dietary supplements is a. China. b. France. c. the United States. d. Germany. |
d. Germany |
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Complementary and alternative medicine is a subsection of conventional medicine. a. False b. True |
a. False |
|
Alternative medicine approaches are sometimes used along with conventional medicine. a. True b. False |
a. True |
|
People are now more likely to use CAM and other therapies once considered exotic and strange. a. False b. True |
b. True |
|
According to a NCCAM survey, the people who use alternative therapy tend to have higher levels of education. a. False b. True |
b. True |
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Most people seek CAM because conventional medicine is too expensive. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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Because herbs are natural products, they will not interfere with how prescription drugs work within the body. a. True b. False |
b. False |
|
The FDA banned the sale of all supplements containing ephedra. a. True b. False |
a. True |
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If a product is labeled "natural," you may assume that it is safe. a. False b. True |
a. False |