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278 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
why was the national commissions of fire prevention and control established

to determine how to reduce fire loss
a department type is determined by how

an organization is funded

which of the following is a result of the Iroquois Theater Fire, Chicago 1903

panic hardware on exit doors

which of the following duties is the responsibility of the public works division
provide sand for containing spills

the broad category for personnel that deliver emergency services directly to external customers is

line

what type of company protects structures in the wildland/urban interface?

brush company

which of the following staff positions is responsible for maintaining municipal fire alarm systems according to the requirements of NFPA 72?

fire alarm maintenance personnel

what part of the fire service is composed of a variety of companies located in a response area?

battalion

the all-hazards approach means the fire service

provides a variety of services in the community

what is the main duty of a firefighter 1?

perform assigned tasks under supervision
which of the following positions is responsible of monitoring operational safety according to the requirements of the NFPA 1521?
fire department incident safety officer

what cultural strength in the fire service is based on the feelings of self-respect and personal worth?

pride

a(an)_________ is a collection of rules enacted by law in a particular jurisdiction

code
which of the following is the BEST action to take when approached by media while on-scene?

direct them to Public information officer
which of the following types of staffing performs required functions for minimal or no pay?

volunteer
what is the first recommended step in locating information in departmental documents?
ask your supervisor
which of the following positions is trained in the operation of aerial devices according to the requirements of NFPA 1002?

fire apparatus driver

What type of company performs fire suppression duties at structure, vehicle, wildland and other types of fires?

engine company

when was the first fire engine purchased in colonial north America?

1653

A (an)_______ is a set of principles or procedures developed by consensus.

standard

what is the mission of the fire service?

to save lives and protect property

what organization formed in 1896 develops codes and standards to ensure fire and life safety for the public?

National fire protection association

which of the following is a result of the cocoanut Grove Nightclub fire, Boston Massachusetts (1942)?

increased fire and life safety requirements in


assembly type occupancies


Which of the following positions provides


advanced emergency medical care for critical an emergent patients

paramedic
which federal law affects hiring practices and building accessibility?

Americans with disabilities act
which of the following organizations may be an agency of the authority having jurisdictions (AHJ) or privately owned?

emergency medical services
which of the following positions belongs to the fire prevention division?

fire and arson investigator
what type of company is responsible for forcible entry?
truck company

which of the following fie service organizational principles is described as a formal line of


authority?

chain of command
which of the following is a cultural challenge in the fire service?
differences of personal characteristics
a (an)_____ is a guide to decision making in an organization

policy
Which of the following fire service organizational principles works to prevent duplication of effort?
division of labor
a (an) ________ is a written stepbystep plan of action

procedure
What NFPA standard establishes basic training criteria for firefighter 1 and firefighter II

1001
Which of the following is a common safety measure taken when ridiing on a fire apparatus?

secure all loose tools and equipment

which of the following is a one way firefighters can reduce exposure to carcinogens present in fires?

clean helmet liners

which NFPA standard defines safe training practices and programs?

1403


which of the following NFPA standards


establishes the design criteria for protective clothing and equipment

1977
firefighter should ______ and put all tools in a ready state before storing.

inspect and clean

which of the following is a goal of fire department safety and health programs?


prevent damage to emergency response


equipment

Which of the following best descries the case of apparatus collisions a driver/operator is not responsible for?

reckless driving by the public

The distance the apparatus travels from when the driver/operator realizes the need to stop, until the driver/operator's foot touches the brake pedal is...

called driver-reaction distance
acute illness

short term

chronic illness

long lasting


which of the following contributes to the common types of respiratory diseases for which


firefighters are at risk?


exposure to smoke an chemicals

Which of the following best describes all the


factors taken into account when establishing on-scene control zones?

work area needed, hazard present, weather conditions
which of the following is the BEST description of the main cause of injuries suffered in fire stations and facilities?

unsafe behavior

Which of the following commonly causes slips, trips, and falls in the fire station?

cluttered surfaces

which of the following is a minimum requirement for protective clothing and equipment as established by NFPA 1500?
cluttered surfaces
which of the following is a minimum requirement for protective clothing and equipment as established by NFPA 1500?
protective equipment must meet current NFPA design standard
When driving a fire apparatus, driver/operators should remember safe driving begins

before leaving the station
the risk management model assumes that responders will risk their lives ________ to save savable lives

a lot
Which of the following is a way t prevent accidents with power saws?

keep blades and cutting chains well sharpened
what is the goal of the International Association of Fire Chiefs annual safety stand-down?
to focus on firefighter safety
the concept of risk management is based on an assessment of benefits gained compared to the ________
risks involved
Which of the following is the only exception to the rule: never stand on or in moving apparatus?
When loading hose and apparatus is moving forward at 5 mph or less
In 2010 the leading causes of fire fatalities were

stress and overexertion
Which of the following illnesses can result in headaches, nausea, and weakness in legs?

stress-induced hypertension
Which NFPA standard sets requirements for care and maintenance of personal and respiratory protection equipment?

1851

The unique characteristic of a fire apparatus can

make more difficult to handle
any power tool not marked double insulated should:
have a three-prong plug

the area that must be kept clear in case a piece of a structure collapses during an incident is called the



collapse zone
Which NFPA standard specifies the minimum requirement for department safety and health programs?
1500

Which personnel accountability system uses an accountability officer to track expected exit times based on the pressure of the team's lowest SCBA reading?
SCBA tag system
which of the following is an injury cost carried by an individual?

physical pain
When operating at roadside incident, ensure that floodlights are deployed to direct light down o the scene without.
blinding passing motorists
What best summarizes a benefit of the national Incident Management System (NIMS)

provides consistent framework for agencies from multiple jurisdictions to operate together
Which of the following is the best way to exhibit safe behavior during training?
remain focused on training exercises at all times
Which of the following best describes ways to prevent back and leg strains?

lift with straight back and use legs
Which of the following must a fir departments safety and health program address?

all anticipated hazards to which members may be exposed.
NFPA 1500 requires that departments develop _______, including an annual medical verification of duty fitness
physical performance standards for personnel participating in emergency operations
When operating at an emergency scene, why should a firefighter scan the outside of a building before entry?


to locate possible escape routes.



the goal of the national fallen firefighters foundation is to reduce fatalities by twenty-five percent within five years and by ______ in ten years

50%

NFPA 1403

states live fire training must be conducted in according to this NFPA standard
According to NFPA 1500 emergency operations are limited to

those that can be safely conducted by personnel on scene
Which of th following best describes the purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE)

designed to minimize risk of injury or fatality

structural fire fighting protective clothing must meet what NFPA standard

1971
which of the following best describes why personal protective equipment (PPE) should never be altered

may void manufacturers warranty and endanger lives
Which of the following best describes a design limitation of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE)

prevents heat transfer way from body

what part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) prevents scalding water and embers from reaching the ears and neck?

helmets

what part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) is intended for use in combination with a primary form of eye protection
helmet-mounted faceshields
What part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) is designed to fit inside a protective coat?

protective hoods

which of the following best describes why the liner should never be removed form a protective coat

it compromises the design and increase the


likelihood of injuries



which of the following structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) components must allow enough dexterity and tactile feel to perform the job required?

protective gloves

what part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) must be high enough to protect he lower leg?

protective footwear

what part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment is worn when noise exceed maximum noise exposure levels?

hearing protection devices


what part of structural fire fighting personal


protective equipment is useful in total darkness and confined spaces

personal alert safety systems

which NFPA standard outlines the specification for wildland personal protective clothing?

1977

what part of wildland personal protective equipment must meet the requirements of ANSI Z87.1

goggles
Steel toe boots are not recommended for wildland protective clothing because they
absorb and retain heat

hat piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) can be worn to increase visibility at roadway incidents

traffic vest with retroreflective trim
what component of emergency medical protective clothing may be dual certified for use in the station as well

footwear
Which of the following types of special protective clothing requires a personal flotation device

ice rescue

which of the following types of special protective clothing is designed as similar to structural personal protective equipment (PPE) but with an aluminized outer shell?

proximity fire fighting

which NFPA standard specifies requirements for station/work uniforms

1975

One-hundred percent cotton underwear is recommended for station/work uniforms to


prevents


burns

which of the following best describes the


frequency with with personal protective equipment (PPE) should be inspected

at the beginning of shift and after every use.
Where might a firefighter find wear due to friction during a routine personal protective equipment (PPE) insection

under arms, in crotch , at knees and elbow joints

the type of cleaning required for personal protective equipment (PPE) is determined by

amount and type of contamination
what type of NFPA defined cleaning may be done in a washing machind designed to handle heavy loads?

advanced

damaged equipment marked for training can be used in

non-live fire training
moisture in the shell and liner material of personal protective equipment (PPE) could result in

serious steam burns

what is the minimum overlap between coat and trousers when the wearer is bent over to a 90 degree angle?
2 inches
what action should a firefighter take if thermal radiant heat burns develop while wearing personal protective equipment (PPE)
withdraw from area immediately

which of the following respiratory hazards


causes superheated air to

elevated temperatures
what two respiratory hazards are responsible for the majority of fire-related fatalities

carbon monoxide and hydrogen cynaide


which of the following respiratory hazards can be protected against using high-efficiency


particulate (HEPA) filters


Airborne pathogens

which of the following best describes when SARs are used

for confined space rescues and technical rescue incidents
an open-circuit SCBA air cylinder control valve should be _____ when in use

opened fully

which part of the facepiece assembly releases exhaled air without admitting in the contaminated outside atmosphere

exhalation valve

which part of the facepiece assembly is made of clear safety plastic and mounted in a flexible rubber frame?

facepiece frame
which of following SCBA components warn when the systems is reaching 20-25% of cylinder capacity?

end-of-service-time indicators
which of the following types or respiratory protection uses visual ESTIs only?

air- purifying respirators

which of the following APR effectiveness clues is monitored by being aware of how labored a firefighter's breathing is

resistance to breathing indicators

which of the following limitations of respiratory protection may cause the wearer to deplete the air supply rapidly
psychological limitations
which of the following limitations of respiratory protection may affect the ability to get a complete facepiece seal

unique facial features

which of the following limitations of respiratory protection is created by the weight and resistance of harness straps

decreased mobility

which of the following limitations of respiratory protection is caused by fogging in the facepiece

limited visibility

which of the following best describes the factors respiratory equipment must protected from


during storage

contamination, temperature changes, ultraviolet light
when donning SCBA all straps on the harness assembly and facepiece should be

fully extended

which NFPA standard requires seat-mounted SCBA be held in pace by a mechanical latching device

1901

exposure to weather and physical hazards is a potential disadvantage for what type SCBA mount

rear external mount

compartment doors may interfere with what type of SCBA mount

backup mount

Before doffing SCBA, ensure you are out of the contaminated area nd
SCBA is no longer required
which NFPA standard establishes the inspection period for protective breathing appartus

1852

which piece of protective breathing apparatus has the frae checked weekly for deterioration, dirt, and cracks

facepiece

which piece of protective breathing apparatus has the hand wheel checked for damaged during weekly inspection

breathing air cyclinder assembly

which piece of protective breathing apparatus is checked for any usual sounds during operation

regulator

soot can reduce visibility on what piece of


protective breathing apparatus


facepiece
which types of SCBA air cylinder are tested very five years

steel and aluminum

any source used to refill SCBA must provide what type of air quality

type 1 grade D

which type of fill station is designed to refill SCBA at emergency incidents

mobile fill stations

which of the following best describes when an SCBA cyclinder needs to be replaced

during inspection if cylinder contains less than 90% of capacity

which of the following est describes SCBA safety precaustions to take in an IDLH atmosphere?

work in teams of two or more

which of the following is a nonemergency exit indicator?

Assignment completed

which of the following is a nonemergency exit indicator

situation is stabilized

which of the following is an emergency exit


indicator




SCBA failure

which of the following would be an emergency exit indicator

change in oxygen level
a firefighter experiences light-headedness, disorientation and rapid fatigue mot likely has

an oxygen deficiency
which nonemergency exit technique may require a second team member to remain outside monitoring a search line?

buddy system

which nonemergency exit technique should be practiced in training until it is second nature

controlled breathing.
Which of the following bst describes how understanding the physical science of fire can help firefighters


it translates into practical knowledge of fire


behavior


which of the following terms refers to a substance remaining chemically the same, but changing in size, shape or appearance
physical change

a substance changes from one type of matter to another, it has had a
chemical reaction

which of the following represents the amount of energy that an object can release in the future?
potential

the energy possessed by a moving object is called

kinetic energy

the potential chemical energy of fuel in fire behavior is converted to

thermal energy
what type of reaction absorbs energy as it occurs?

endothermic

what type of reaction releases energy in the form of heat and sometimes light?

exothermic

the process of ignition causes pyrolysis in soli and _________ fuels and liquid fuels

vaporization

what is the most common form of ignition

piloted

what mode of combustion produces a smoldering glow in a materials surface

nonflaming

in what mode of comubstion is a visible flame produced

flaming
what are the elements necessary to create fire in themodel represented by the fire triangle?

fuel, oxygen and heat

which of the followig best descries what the fire tetrahedron represents

an uninhibited chemical chain reaction (self-sustaining)
what type f comubstion occurs when burning is localized on or near a fuel's surface?

nonflaming
what product of combustion may heat adjacent fuels, making them susceptible to ignition?

thermal energy

what product of combustion causes the most fire deaths


toxic smoke
what product of combustion is the most common product in structure fires?

carbon monoxide
which of the following best describes why firefighters must use SCBA during overhaul?

volume and density of smoke may be reduced, but the hazard is not eliminated

h of the following best describes kinetic energy transfer?

it moves form high-temperature to low-temperature substances

what source of thermal energy is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions?

chemical energy

which of the following sources of energy is a form of oxidation?

self-heating

what method of electrical energy occurs when a high-temperature luminous discharge crosses a gaP?

arcing

what method of heat transfer occurs when a material is heated as the result of direct contact with a heat source?

conduction
what heat ranfer method usually occurs through movement of hot smoke and fire gasses?
convection

what method of heat transfer can become the dominant mode as the fire grows in size?
radiation
which of the following best describes the influence of exposures surfaces on radiant heat?

dark materials emit and absorb heat more effectively than light materials.
which type of fuel does not contain carbon?

inorganic

of the following terms is the total amount of energy released when a specific amount of fuel is burned

heat of combustion
heat release rate is usually expressed in which of the following measurements?

Killowatts (KW)
what type of fuel can be the most dangerous of all the types

gaseous

what type of fuel has mass an volume but no definite shape
gaseous

at type of fuel has mass an volume but no definite shape?

liquid

liquids with a specific gravity of less than 1 will

float on the surface

which of the following best describes what vapor pressure indicates?
how easily a substance will evaporate


which of the following terms is the minimum


temperature at which a liquid give off sufficient vapors to ignite, but still not sustain


combustion ?


flash point
what term is used to describe the extent to which a substance will mix with water
solubility

what type of fuel has a definite size and shape?

solid

which of the following terms is used to refer to the process that can generate sufficient quantities of burnable vapors to ignite in the presence of a sufficient oxidizer
pyrolysis
fuel particles become smaller as the ratio of surface to mass

increases

the primary oxidizing agent in most fires is

oxygen

which of the following best describes the impact of higher oxygen concentration on combustion

materials burn more intensely
the term defines the minimum concentration of fuel vapor and air that supports combustion

lower flammable limit
which of the following best describes the compete oxidation of methane?
it produces carbon dioxide and water
which of the following best describes the impact of an extinguishing agent when trying to extinguish flaming combustion
it interferes with the chemical reaction
which of the following fire development factors affects heat release rate?

fuel type

what fire development factor is based on considering how the volume of air will impact radiated heat in a fire
compartment volume and ceiling height

what form of compartment fire is controlled by the availability of oxygen and the configuration of fuel

fuel-controlled

what thermal property of a compartment contains heat within the compartment, causing localized increase in temperature

insulation


what fire development factor includes cold


temperature, strong winds, and wind direction


ambient conditions
in what stage is fire development largely dependent on the characteristics and configuration of the fuel involved?

incipient
which of the following affects the amount of air entrained in the plume during the growth stage
location of fuel package
which of the following is defined as the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature?

thermal layering

the neutral plane in the growth stage is the

interface of hot and cool layers at an opening

isolated flames in the gas layer during growth stage indicates

that portions of the layer are within flammable range
what stage of fire development occurs when all the combustible materials in a compartment are burning?

fully developed
what fire stage occurs as the tue is consumed and oxygen concentration falls

decay
what type of rapid fire development happens when all the combustible materials and gases in a compartment ignite almost simultaneously

flashover

what common element of flashover represents the shift from growth stage to fully developed stage?

transition in fire development

which of the following is a heat indicator of a possible flashover?

darkened windows
the ignition of unburned fire gases at the top of the compartment is known as

rollover

what aspect of fire development is a result of an increase in low-level ventilation prior to upper level ventilation?

backdraft

which of the following is a building indicator for a possible backdraft?
fire confined to a void space
which of the following is a heat indicator for a possible backdraft

smoke stained windows

what type of rapid fire development occurs as unburned fuel gases contact an ignition source?

smoke explosion

what is the most common method used in fire fighting operations

temperature reduction
water is converted to steam at

212 degrees F

what method of fire suppression is the simplest?

fuel removal

what fire-suppression method does NOT work if fuel is self-oxidizing?

oxygen exclusion

what suppression method uses extinguishing agents to stop flame production

chemical flam inhibition

what fire behavior can be the result of wind from outside the structure?

unplanned ventilation

which of the following is the most common building material in north America?

wood
green wood has a high_______that affects burn rate

moisture content
what type of common building material includes brick, stones, and concrete blocks?

Masonry

which of the following can be the result of rapidly cooling cast iron with water

it may crack or shatter

steel structural member lengthen as much as 4 inches when heated to

900 degrees F

the critical temperature for steel can be reached at ceiling level from

the rising heat an smoke in the room
which of the following metals will be affected by heat more rapidly than steel?
aluminum
which of the following building materials absorbs heat as moisture evaporates?

gypsum
laminated timber, medium density fiberboard (MDF) and finger-jointed timber are all examples of what common building material

composite material
which of the following best describes who determines a structure's construction classification

architect, structural engineer, contractor

which of the following buildings may be exempt fro local building codes?
factory-built (mobile) home

the International Building Code (IBC) and National fire protection Association (NFPA) define


construction type based on the performance of the construction when


exposed to fire.
which of the following construction types has walls, floors, and ceilings that must be able to resist fire for three to for hours?
type 1 (I)
what construction type is composed of materials that will not contribute to fire development or spread?

type 2 (II)
what construction type requires exterior walls and structural members to be constructed of noncombustible materials?

type 3 (III)

the interior elements in what type of


construction are made of solid or laminated wood wit no concealed space?

type 4 (IV)

in what construction type are exterior load-bearing walls composed entirely of wood?

type 5 (v)
the use of prefabricated wood truss systems in type V construction creates

a large, open void between floors

manufactured homes built before 1876 have less ______ than those of current construction

fire resistant


according to the national building code of


Canada (NBCC) heavy timber construction avoids


concealed spaces under floors and roofs
a ______ occupancy type must meet the building code for its intended use

single - use

what occupancy type contains multiple occupancy or use groups?

separated use

what building component is designed to support the weight of a building and all it contents
foundation
what building component's construction varies depending on its level

floor/ceiling
what building component may be an assembly of studs with exterior materials on the outside and an interior covering on the inside?

wall
which of the following best describes walls that support the weight of a structure or structural components

load-bearing walls



what building component is designed to provide drainage, support snow accumulation and resist the effects of wind?

roof
what roof type is frequently penetrated by chimneys, shafts an skylights?

flat

in which roof style does the design depend on exterior walls to support its weights

arched

what part of the roof extend from wall to wall on a flat roof

beams

what part of a roof's construction can be manufactured from smaller pieces of wood or light gauge steel?

lightweight construction support system
what part of the roof is exposed to weather?

coverings

the locations of bathrooms an mechanical


spaces can be indicated by roof

penetrations and openings
what type of roof is used to prevent ice damming?

cold roof

what type of roof contains panels that retain electricity even when off?

photovoltaic (solar) roof

ventilating a rain roof will not remove smoke until

the original roof is penetrated
what building component may be mounted over doors and windows to prevent illegal entry?
security bars or grilles
additions to the structure, replacing fire escapes with enclosed stairways, and removing non-loadbearing walls are all types of


permitted structural modification



what type of stairs typically connects no more than two levels if not required as part of the means of egress
access stairs
what type of stirs uses a ventilation system activated by automatic fire or smoke detection?

smoke proof stair enclosures

doors are classified by

they way they operate

which of the following doors has the advantage of eliminating door swing that might interfere with use of interior space

sliding door

what type of door design can prevent movement of hose or equipment into a building?

revolving door
what type of door may be required by building codes to be constructed of tempered material that resist breakage?

glass door
what type of door protects openings in fire-rate walls?

fire door

what part of the window is composed of a sill, side, jamb and head jamb?

frame

what type of movable window has side-hinged sash, usually installed to sting outward

casement

which of the following movable windows includes a large number of narrow overlapping glass section that swing outward
jalousie
knowing types f doors and door hardware can help firefighters

select correct forcible entry tools

which of he following best describes a primary dangerous building condition?

conditions that contribute to fire spread

fuel loading is defined as the maximum heat produced if

all combustible materials are present
what is the most effective defense against heavy content fuel loading

proper inspection and code enforcement

vertical tactical ventilation can be defined as channeling smoke from the

highest point in a building

the critical temperature for steel trusses is

1,000 degrees f

which type of roof is used whenever large open floor spaces with limited interior support is needed?
bowstring truss
which of the following best describes a possible construction hazard


the building is subject to rapid fir spread because protective features are not in place
renovation, age of the structure, weather, and loads are all

structural collapse factors

which of the following best describes when structural collapse may occur?

it can occur well after the fire is extinguished

what fire stage is structural collapse very likely

decay

how much is added to the weight of floors for very US gallon used during suppression

8.33 pounds
when a collapse is imminent, personnel _____ in the collapse zone

may cautiously place an unstaffed master stream

which of the following best describes where the collapse zone is established
adjacent to any exposed exterior walls
for which type of construction is flying glass the primary collapse zone hazard concern?
type I
when exposed to temperatures above _____ unprotected steel will expand and twist

1000 degrees F
A collapse zone for a type IV structure should be established when

the structure has been adopted
which of the following must be considered when deciding the size of a collapse zone?
type of building construction and safest location for personnel