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31 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
11. Which of the following duties is not the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower?
A. Operating communication equipment
B. Processing and forwarding flight plan information
C. Compiling statistical data
D. Issuing clearances and ensuring accuracy of readback
C. Compiling statistical data
53. The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is _.
A. up to but not including FL450
B. FL450
C. up to but not including FL600
D. FL600
D. FL600
93. Parallels and meridians are divided into _____, minutes and seconds.
A. circles
B. days
C. degrees
D. hours
C. degrees
110. Information NOT found on sectional aeronautical charts are .
A. MEAs and MOCAs
B. VOR, VORTAC’s, NDB’s, as well as their position, identification, and frequencies
C. MOAs, Restricted, Prohibited, Alert and Warning Areas
D. airports
A. MEAs and MOCAs
113. The graphic depiction of a SID or STAR is found in the section of the chart.
A. margin
B. planview
C. textual description
D. legend
B. planview
114. SIDs are listed alphabetically in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication -first under___________ then under ____________.
A. SIDs, STARs
B. airport name, city
C. Index, Legend
D. city, airport name
D. city, airport name
115. Which statement is true regarding a SID?
A. A pilot may accept a SID when possessing only the textual description
B. SIDs are normally assigned by En Route controllers..
C. If a SID exists for the departure airport, the pilot must be prepared to accept it as part of the clearance.
D. Pilots are encouraged to include the phrase “No SID” in their flight plans if they do not want a SID.
D. Pilots are encouraged to include the phrase “No SID” in their flight plans if they do not want a SID.
140. The FMS is _______.
A. a computer data base used for navigation
B. a radio NAVAID receiver
C. a gyroscopic instrument
D. Inoperable with a clogged pitot
A. a computer data base used for navigation
189. During which step in the relief process does the relieving specialist check, verify, and update the position
information obtained?
A. Preview the position
B. Verbal briefing
C. Assumption of position responsibility
D. Review the position
D. Review the position
195. Which item is always included in a clearance?
A. Aircraft identification
B. Departure procedure
C. Holding instructions
D. Altitude
A. Aircraft identification
203. Holding an aircraft is NOT used for .
A. en route traffic
B. position relief
C. flow control
D. spacing
B. position relief
198. Select the correct sequence of the following clearance items:
1. Route of flight
2. Holding instructions
3. Aircraft identification
4. Clearance limit
5. Mach number, if applicable
6. Altitude data in order flown
7. Frequency and beacon code information
8. Departure procedure or DP/FMSP
9. Any special instructions
A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7
B. 3,8,1,2,4,5,9,6,7
C. 3,9,8,7,4,1,6,2,5
D. 3,1,6,4,8,5,2,7,9
A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7
266. Which of the following is a principal airfoil?
A. Rudder
B. Propeller
C. Fuselage
D. Trim tabs
B. Propeller
301. On an En Route Low Altitude chart, prohibited, restricted, and warning areas are shown within
boundaries.
A. solid grey
B. blue hatched
C. light brown
D. solid magenta
B. blue hatched
360. SPECI KHYS 092338Z AUTO…
A. “Hays, automated, special report, three eight observation…”
B. “Hays, special report, automated, two three three eight observation…”
C. “Hays, special report, automated two three three eight zulu observation…”
D. “Special report, Hays, two three three eight zulu observation, automated…”
A. “Hays, automated, special report, three eight observation…”
378. Authorized symbols and abbreviations must be used for recording .
A. TCAS RAs when voice recorders are operational
B. relief briefings
C. clearances, requests and advisories
D. clearances, reports and instructions
D. clearances, reports and instructions
502. In which section of the Instrument Approach Chart are the DME arcs depicted?
A. Profile View
B. Airport Diagram
C. Planview
D. Circling section
C. Planview
532. Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of occasionally severe turbulence over Colorado?
A. AIRMET Tango
B. AIRMET Zulu
C. SIGMET
D. Convective SIGMET
C. SIGMET
656. RNAV route 24 would be spoken as ___________.
A. “QUEBEC TWO FOUR”
B. “ROMEO TWENTY FOUR”
C. “Q TWENTY FOUR”
D. “RNAV TWO FOUR”
C. “Q TWENTY FOUR”
Who does an Air Defense Liaison Officer (ADLO) work for?

1. NORAD
2. System Operations Security AJR-2
3. Air Defense Sectors
4. They don’t work
2. System Operations Security AJR-2
What does ESCAT stand for?

1. Established Category
2. Escape All Terminal
3. Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic
4. None of the Above
3. Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic
What is MARSA?
1. A women’s name
2. Marginal surveillance
3. Self-separation by military aircraft
4. A military terminal radar
3. Self-separation by military aircraft
How are MTR routes designated?
1. IR and VR plus a number
2. MTR plus a number
3. By the geographical area
4. Carefully
1. IR and VR plus a number
What does an aircraft that uses a “Flynet” call sign do?

1. Catches flies
2. Transports a Nuclear Emergency Team or a Disaster Response Team to a potential or actual nuclear accident or an accident involving chemical agents or hazardous materials.
3. Contains military cargo
4. Acorbatics
2. Transports a Nuclear Emergency Team or a Disaster Response Team to a potential or actual nuclear accident or an accident involving chemical agents or hazardous materials.
8. Which is not a Special Interest Flight
1. Aircraft registered in a State Department designated special interest country;
2. Aircraft designated as a state aircraft by a State Department designated special interest country;
3. Aircraft operating by special request of the President of the United States;
4. Any foreign aircraft to which SIF procedures are applied following 14 CFR 99.7, Special Security Instructions.
3. Aircraft operating by special request of the President of the United States;
What does the DEN stand for?

1. Distant Education
2. Denver International Airport
3. Room in a house
4. Domestic Events Network
4. Domestic Events Network
If radio communications are lost or not (re) established with an aircraft after 5 minutes what should a controller do?

1. Consider the aircraft’s activity to be suspicious, and report it to the front line manager (FLM)/controller-in-charge (CIC).
2. Quit issuing traffic advisories to the aircraft.
3. Assume that the pilot is hard of hearing and talk louder.
4. None of the above.
1. Consider the aircraft’s activity to be suspicious, and report it to the front line manager (FLM)/controller-in-charge (CIC).
What does ATREP stand for and where could they be assigned?

1. Alternate Representative; in Congress
2. Alternate Representative; in the House
3. Air Traffic Republicans; in ATC facilities
4. Air Traffic Representatives; in military approach control facilities
4. Air Traffic Representatives; in military approach control facilities
What does AFIO stands for?

1. FAA Authorization for Interceptor Operations
2. Auto Fixed Intake/Ouput
3. Association For Interesting Observers
4. Air Force Intercept Observers.
1. FAA Authorization for Interceptor Operations
In aerial refueling what does ARIP stand for?
1. Air Refueling Internet point
2. Air Refueling Initial Point
3. Accidental Release Initial Program
4. Air Refueling Initial Point
4. Air Refueling Initial Point
NORAD stands for what treaty organization?
1. Northern Radiation Organization
2. Northern Radicals
3. North American Aerospace Defense Command
4. None of the above
3. North American Aerospace Defense Command