Contracting Cdc's - B Set

Front 1

A written acquisition plan must be reviewed and revised
a. quarterly.
b. as required.
c. semi-annually.
d. no less than annually.

Back 1

d. no less than annually.

Front 2

Unless waived, an acquisition strategy panel is normally appropriate for
a. complex requirements.
b. weapons and aerospace program acquisitions.
c. all acquisitions performed in a foreign country.
d. acquisitions that have a written acquisition plan.

Back 2

d. acquisitions that have a written acquisition plan.

Front 3

Who delegates responsibility to the Acquisition Strategy Panel chairperson?
a. SAF/AQ.
b. MAJCOM LG.
c. Wing Commander.
d. Numbered Air Force Commander.

Back 3

a. SAF/AQ.

Front 4

Who is responsible for all actions regarding government furnished property provided to
contractors?
a. Program manager.
b. Financial manager.
c. Property administrator.
d. Contracting officer representative.

Back 4

c. Property administrator.

Front 5

Contract files are generally considered
a. classified material.
b. for official use only.
c. open for public viewing.
d. open to any government personnel.

Back 5

b. for official use only.

Front 6

The purpose of a presolicitation notice is to
a. eliminate unqualified bidders.
b. identify or develop interested sources.
c. provide additional bidding time for complex requirements.
d. elicit assistance in developing the government requirements.

Back 6

b. identify or develop interested sources.

Front 7

An economic order quantity is best defined as the
a. maximum order quantity allowed against a GSA contract.
b. largest prepackaged size available in the commercial market place.
c. quantity that represents the best balance of acquisition and storage costs.
d. quantity required to order before receiving the greatest purchase discount.

Back 7

c. quantity that represents the best balance of acquisition and storage costs.

Front 8

If the requirement document does not describe a commercial item, the next step you should
take is to
a. conduct market research.
b. return the requirement documents.
c. contact the using activity to discuss the requirement.
d. issue a presolicitation notice to identify commercial sources.

Back 8

a. conduct market research.

Front 9

If you complete extensive market research without finding a suitable commercial item that
will meet the need, you should
a. review the delivery schedule to ensure it is not unnecessarily short or difficult to meet.
b. consolidate your package using normal government procedures since it is not feasible to use
commercial procedures.
c. provide offerors of commercial and nondevelopmental items an opportunity to compete in any
acquisition to fill such requirements.
d. have requirement documents reviewed by the Civil Engineering Squadron to ensure the
description uses recognized standards promulgated by governments.

Back 9

c. provide offerors of commercial and nondevelopmental items an opportunity to compete in any
acquisition to fill such requirements.

Front 10

You may include restrictive provisions or inclusions into specifications only
a. when the contracting officer includes a justification and approval within the file.
b. to the extent necessary to satisfy the minimum needs of the agency or as authorized by law.
c. when the requirements are already set forth in the DOD Index of Specifications and Standards
(DODISS).
d. when the requirements are already set forth in the General Services Administration Index of
Federal Specifications.

Back 10

b. to the extent necessary to satisfy the minimum needs of the agency or as authorized by law.

Front 11

What limits competition and increases overall price when describing requirements?
a. Listing non-essential characteristics.
b. Conducting excessive market research.
c. Limiting the requirement to small businesses.
d. Allowing offerors to supply modified commercial items.

Back 11

a. Listing non-essential characteristics.

Front 12

Which of the following data is not required when describing the requirement?
a. Performance required.
b. How the functions are to be performed.
c. Terms that enable and encourage offerors to supply commercial items, or modified commercial
items.
d. Requiring prime contractors and subcontractors at all tiers to incorporate commercial items or
nondevelopmental items as components of items supplied to the agency.

Back 12

b. How the functions are to be performed.

Front 13

To determine how well the documents within the Defense Standardization Program Policies
and Procedures reflect their needs, you communicate with customers
a. as part of your market research.
b. during the annual program evaluation.
c. when recommended by industry sources.
d. when the Government can perform the function in-house.

Back 13

a. as part of your market research.

Front 14

When reviewing construction specifications, you should ensure that the
a. requested performance dates are realistic.
b. “brand name” description elements do not describe the characteristics of the brand name item.
c. specifications are clear, free of conflicting requirements, and free of unnecessarily restrictive
provisions or conditions.
d. specifications protect the government’s interest by including liquidated damages when the
government estimate is above the simplified acquisition threshold.

Back 14

c. specifications are clear, free of conflicting requirements, and free of unnecessarily restrictive
provisions or conditions.

Front 15

Before accepting a proposed progress schedule from the Civil Engineering Squadron, you
must consider
a. job site safety.
b. contract administration costs.
c. effects of natural phenomena.
d. the availability of materials and equipment.

Back 15

d. the availability of materials and equipment.

Front 16

The responsibility for informing contractors of the name, duties, and limitations for all
quality assurance personnel assigned to a contract rests with the
a. Contracting Officer.
b. Quality Assurance Program Coordinator.
c. Functional Commanders/Functional Directors.
d. Contracting Squadron commanders and Chiefs of Air Force Contracting Offices.

Back 16

a. Contracting Officer.

Front 17

Customer-focused multifunctional teams are established to plan and manage service
contracts
a. after award only.
b. prior to award only.
c. for complex services only
d. throughout the life of a contract.

Back 17

d. throughout the life of a contract.

Front 18

When developing statements of work, use methods that are open, flexible and geared to
a. military processes.
b. commercial practices.
c. government processes.
d. military specifications.

Back 18

b. commercial practices.

Front 19

The Davis-Bacon Act applies to which of the following contracts?
a. Supply contract of $2,500.
b. Service contract of $2,000.
c. Construction contract of $1,000.
d. Construction contract of $2,500.

Back 19

d. Construction contract of $2,500.

Front 20

) The Buy American Act restrictions do not apply when the
a. cost would be reasonable.
b. cost would be unreasonable.
c. item is for use within the continental US.
d. service is performed within the continental US.

Back 20

b. cost would be unreasonable.

Front 21

Which law applies to commercial acquisitions?
a. Contingent Fees.
b. Truth in Negotiations Act.
c. Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988.
d. Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act.

Back 21

b. Truth in Negotiations Act.

Front 22

Agencies may exclude particular sources from a contract action if the agency head
determines that to do so would
a. satisfy a critical need for proper hazardous waste disposal.
b. prevent the release of sensitive information to unauthorized sources.
c. be in the interest of national defense in maintaining an essential source.
d. ensure the continuous availability of a reliable source of supplies or services.

Back 22

d. ensure the continuous availability of a reliable source of supplies or services.

Front 23

As a contracting officer, you are authorized to set-aside solicitations to allow only small
businesses to compete when
a. you have approved a justification for exclusion of sources.
b. it is authorized pursuant to section 8(a) of the Small Business Act.
c. your agency head approves the determination and finding you issued.
d. the set-aside fulfills the statutory requirements relating to small business concerns.

Back 23

d. the set-aside fulfills the statutory requirements relating to small business concerns.

Front 24

Which statutory authority allows you to prepare the required justification and approval after
contract award?
a. National Security, 10 USC 2304(c)(6).
b. International Agreement, 10 USC 2304 (c)(4).
c. Unusual or Compelling Urgency, 10 USC 2304(c)(2).
d. Authorized or Required by Statute, 10 USC 2304(c)(5).

Back 24

c. Unusual or Compelling Urgency, 10 USC 2304(c)(2).

Front 25

Which statutory authority permits contracting without providing for full-and-open
competition?
a. Public Interest.
b. Federal Disaster Response.
c. International Security Matters.
d. United Nations Trade Sanctions.

Back 25

a. Public Interest.

Front 26

) The “findings” in determination and findings means that
a. it is required by statute or regulation.
b. a special form of written approval by an authorized official.
c. conclusions or decisions supported by statute or regulation.
d. a statement of fact or rationale essential to support the determination.

Back 26

d. a statement of fact or rationale essential to support the determination.

Front 27

A determination and finding does not include
a. a description of action being approved.
b. identification of the contracting activity.
c. a specific contract type and contract amount.
d. citing of the appropriate statute and or regulation.

Back 27

c. a specific contract type and contract amount.

Front 28

) The contracting officer’s determination for competition is supported by a determination and
finding and
a. a Justification and Approval.
b. the Competition Advocate’s Approval.
c. a Component or Command Policy Letter.
d. the Staff Judge Advocate’s Determination of Legal Sufficiency.

Back 28

a. a Justification and Approval.

Front 29

Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a requirement of the
a. Small Business Act.
b. Regulatory Flexibility Act.
c. National Defense Authorization Act.
d. Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act.

Back 29

d. Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act.

Front 30

Competition Advocates are responsible for
a. assisting in the review of contract actions.
b. promoting the acquisition of commercial items.
c. ensuring that requirements are clearly stated in terms of function.
d. challenging barriers to the contracting activity’s small business goals.

Back 30

b. promoting the acquisition of commercial items.

Front 31

The contractor has the least incentive to control costs in a
a. firm-fixed-price contract.
b. cost-plus-fixed-fee contract.
c. cost-plus-percentage-of-cost contract.
d. fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract.

Back 31

b. cost-plus-fixed-fee contract.

Front 32

When acquiring commercial items the contracting officer uses a
a. firm-fixed-price or fixed-price incentive contract.
b. firm-fixed-price or fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract.
c. fixed-price with economic price adjustment or cost-plus-fixed-fee contract.
d. fixed-price incentive or fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract.

Back 32

b. firm-fixed-price or fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract.

Front 33

Which contract type may be used when it is impossible to negotiate a fair and reasonable
firm-fixed-price after the initial contract performance period?
a. Firm-fixed-price.
b. Fixed price with economic price adjustment.
c. Fixed-price with prospective price redetermination.
d. Fixed-ceiling-price with retroactive price redetermination.

Back 33

c. Fixed-price with prospective price redetermination.

Front 34

When a contractor receives no fee and is reimbursed only for an agreed upon portion of his
or her allowable costs, the contractor is operating under which type of cost-reimbursement
contract?
a. Cost.
b. Cost-sharing.
c. Cost-plus-award-fee.
d. Cost-plus-incentive-fee.

Back 34

b. Cost-sharing.

Front 35

Incentive contracts are appropriate when the
a. contractor requests it.
b. contractor refuses a fixed-price contract.
c. firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate.
d. Government cannot otherwise provide an accurate estimate.

Back 35

c. firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate.

Front 36

What factor ensures the proper treatment of the target profit or fee on a cost-incentive
contract?
a. If actual cost is below the target, the result is the target profit or fee.
b. If actual cost exceeds the target, the result is an upward adjustment of the target profit or fee.
c. If actual cost exceeds the target, the result is a downward adjustment of the target profit or fee.
d. If actual cost is below the target, the result is a downward adjustment of the target profit or fee.

Back 36

c. If actual cost exceeds the target, the result is a downward adjustment of the target profit or fee.

Front 37

What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives may be used?
a. Cost, price, and performance.
b. Cost, delivery, and performance.
c. Price, performance, and delivery.
d. Cost, performance, and financial capability.

Back 37

b. Cost, delivery, and performance.

Front 38

Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results in
all incentive areas?
a. United-incentive arrangement.
b. Multiple-incentive arrangement.
c. Combined-incentive arrangement.
d. Multi-faceted incentive arrangement.

Back 38

b. Multiple-incentive arrangement.

Front 39

When the Government cannot use other incentives in fixed-price contracts because it cannot
objectively measure contractor performance, it motivates the contractor by using
a. fixed-fee provisions.
b. award-fee provisions.
c. incentive-fee provisions.
d. indefinite-fee provisions.

Back 39

b. award-fee provisions.

Front 40

) Requirements and indefinite-quantity contracts are also known as
a. task order or call order contracts.
b. task order or change order contracts.
c. delivery order or call order contracts.
d. delivery order or task order contracts.

Back 40

d. delivery order or task order contracts.

Front 41

Which indefinite-delivery contract requires that the government order and the contractor
furnish a stated minimum quantity of supplies or services?
a. Requirements.
b. Definite-delivery.
c. Definite-quantity.
d. Indefinite-quantity.

Back 41

d. Indefinite-quantity.

Front 42

) When a contractor will acquire materials and services based on direct labor hours at
specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is
a. labor-hour.
b. indefinite-delivery.
c. time and materials.
d. fixed-price with economic price adjustment.

Back 42

c. time and materials.

Front 43

What contractual instrument may be used only after the head of the contracting activity or a
designated representative determines in writing that no other is suitable?
a. Letter contract.
b. Unpriced contract.
c. Basic ordering agreement.
d. Cost plus percentage of cost contract.

Back 43

a. Letter contract.

Front 44

A basic ordering agreement includes all of the following information except
a. delivery terms and conditions or how they will be determined.
b. the applicable FAR data if Fast Payment procedures will apply to orders.
c. a list of one or more Government activities authorized to issue orders under the agreement.
d. applicable FAR data indicating that no further competition is needed for individual orders if
competition was the basis for the original agreement.

Back 44

d. applicable FAR data indicating that no further competition is needed for individual orders if
competition was the basis for the original agreement.

Front 45

Federal policy requiring contracting officers to promote and provide for full-and-open
competition when soliciting offers and awarding government contracts comes from the
a. United States Code.
b. Small Business Act.
c. Trade Agreements Act.
d. Federal Acquisition Regulation.

Back 45

a. United States Code.

Front 46

Which general condition is not one that a contracting officer must meet in order to solicit
sealed bids?
a. Time permits the solicitation, submission, and evaluation of sealed bids.
b. There is a reasonable expectation of receiving more than one sealed bid.
c. The award will be made based on price and other price related factors.
d. It may be necessary to conduct discussions with the responding offerors about their bids.

Back 46

d. It may be necessary to conduct discussions with the responding offerors about their bids.

Front 47

Which type of contract is used with the sealed-bidding method?
a. Firm-fixed price.
b. Indefinite delivery.
c. Cost plus fixed fee.
d. Fixed-price incentive.

Back 47

a. Firm-fixed price.

Front 48

The first step in the sealed-bidding process is
a. preparing the IFB.
b. reviewing the IFB.
c. publicizing the IFB.
d. closing-out the previous contract.

Back 48

a. preparing the IFB.

Front 49

Which statement about bid openings is correct?
a. Bidders must be present at the bid opening.
b. Bids may not be evaluated without discussions.
c. Bid documents submitted cannot be altered physically or verbally.
d. Contractors who do not submit a bid may not attend unclassified openings.

Back 49

c. Bid documents submitted cannot be altered physically or verbally.

Front 50

When using the uniform contract format, which section title would you find under Part I –
The Schedule?
a. Contract clauses.
b. Evaluation factors for award.
c. Contract administration data.
d. List of documents, exhibits, and other attachments.

Back 50

c. Contract administration data.

Front 51

When using the uniform contract format, which section title is under Part IV –
Representations and Instructions?
a. Contract clauses.
b. Evaluation factors for award.
c. Contract administration data.
d. List of documents, exhibits, and other attachments.

Back 51

b. Evaluation factors for award.

Front 52

For each attached document, exhibit, or other attachments in the List of Documents,
Exhibits, and other Attachments, the contracting officer includes the title,
a. and table of contents.
b. date, and table of contents.
c. date, and number of pages.
d. index, and number of pages.

Back 52

c. date, and number of pages.

Front 53

The difference between a clause and a provision is that a clause is known as a
a. “contract clause” and may apply before award, but will apply after award. A provision is
known as a “solicitation provision” and only applies before award.
b. “solicitation clause” and may apply before award, but shall apply after award. A provision is
known as a “contract provision” and only applies before award.
c. “solicitation clause” and only applies before award. A provision is known as a “contract
provision” and may apply before award, but will apply after award.
d. “contract clause” and only applies before award. A provision is known as a “solicitation
provision” and may apply before award, but will apply after award.

Back 53

a. “contract clause” and may apply before award, but will apply after award. A provision is
known as a “solicitation provision” and only applies before award.

Front 54

Provisions and clauses will not be modified unless
a. bidders agree to their modification.
b. the FAR authorizes their modification.
c. command policy authorizes their modification.
d. the contracting officer approves their modification.

Back 54

b. the FAR authorizes their modification.

Front 55

Which is not considered by a contracting officer when determining whether to authorize
facsimile bids?
a. Urgency of the requirement.
b. Infrequency of price changes.
c. Anticipated bid size and volume.
d. Availability, reliability, speed, and capacity of the receiving facsimile equipment.

Back 55

b. Infrequency of price changes.

Front 56

Your customer requires magenta-colored products to match existing items in the office. To
ensure you receive magenta instead of another color, what can you require bidders to submit in
response to the invitation for bids as part of their completed bid package?
a. Bid samples or bid envelopes.
b. Bid samples or descriptive literature.
c. Technical proposals or bid envelopes.
d. Descriptive literature or technical proposals.

Back 56

b. Bid samples or descriptive literature.

Front 57

What does the term “construction” include?
a. Manufacturing, alteration, and repair of vessels and aircraft.
b. Construction, processing, and repair of buildings, structures, and aircraft.
c. Construction, alteration, and repair of buildings, structures, and other real property.
d. Construction, processing, and repair of buildings, structures, and other real property.

Back 57

c. Construction, alteration, and repair of buildings, structures, and other real property.

Front 58

Construction contracts may be priced on a
a. lump-sum or unit price basis, or a combination of these two.
b. bulk-funding or unit price basis, or a combination of these two.
c. lump-sum or bulk-funding basis, or a combination of these two.
d. bulk-funding, lump-sum, or unit price basis; or a combination of these three.

Back 58

a. lump-sum or unit price basis, or a combination of these two.

Front 59

Where can you find wage rates that must be included in construction contracts for more
than a certain dollar threshold?
a. Davis-Bacon Act.
b. Hawley-Smoot Act.
c. Taft-Hartley Act.
d. Walsh-Healey Act.

Back 59

a. Davis-Bacon Act.

Front 60

In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range, advance notices and
solicitations for a requirement must state
a. the project magnitude.
b. the project classification.
c. the government estimate.
d. whether it is under or over the simplified acquisition threshold.

Back 60

a. the project magnitude.

Front 61

What clause is unique to construction solicitations and should be inserted in these contracts?
a. Stop-Work Order.
b. Use of Government Facilities.
c. Superintendence by the Contractor.
d. Restrictions on Subcontractor Sales to the Government.

Back 61

c. Superintendence by the Contractor.

Front 62

) If there is controversy about the interpretation or application of contracting statutes,
policies, directives, and regulations you should consult the
a. Civil Engineer.
b. Contracting Officer.
c. Staff Judge Advocate.
d. Competition Advocate.

Back 62

c. Staff Judge Advocate.

Front 63

To identify proposed contract actions and contract awards, United States government
agencies use what public notification medium?
a. Bid Board.
b. Local newspaper.
c. Commercial Business Daily.

Back 63

d. Government-wide point of entry.

Front 64

May copies of a solicitation be provided to members and organizations of the public? If so,
how?
a. No.
b. Yes, mailed during distribution to proposed bidders.
c. Yes, when the contracting officer expects fewer than three bids will be received.
d. Yes, provide copies on a “first-come-first-served” basis for pickup at the contracting office.

Back 64

d. Yes, provide copies on a “first-come-first-served” basis for pickup at the contracting office.

Front 65

What can contracting officers send to organizations that maintain display rooms without
charge to the public for the benefit of prospective offerors, subcontractors, and material
suppliers?
a. Advance notices and solicitations.
b. Bidders mailing lists and solicitations.
c. Advance notices and bidders mailing lists.
d. Advance notices and presolicitation notices.

Back 65

a. Advance notices and solicitations.

Front 66

You can obtain Optional Forms 17, Offer Labels from the
a. Federal Prison Industries.
b. Defense Logistics Agency.
c. National Industries for the Blind.
d. General Services Administration.

Back 66

d. General Services Administration.

Front 67

What may be used as preliminary steps to develop or identify interested sources, request
preliminary information based on a general description, explain complicated specification
requirements, and aid prospective contractors in later submitting proposals?
a. Synopses and presolicitation notices.
b. Presolicitation notices and conferences.
c. Long-range acquisition estimates and synopses.
d. Presolicitation conferences and long-range acquisition estimates.

Back 67

b. Presolicitation notices and conferences.

Front 68

To make changes in quantity, specifications, delivery schedules, opening dates, etc., or to
correct defects or ambiguities in solicitations, you accomplish and issue
a. an additive.
b. an alternate.
c. a modification.
d. an amendment.

Back 68

d. an amendment.

Front 69

) You should cancel an invitation for bids when
a. the requirement is too complex.
b. it is clearly in the public interest.
c. you would be unable to conduct discussion.
d. doing so would involve a loss of the Government’s and bidders’ time, effort, and money.

Back 69

b. it is clearly in the public interest.

Front 70

A bid must be rejected when the bidder
a. refuses to provide literature to qualify the bid.
b. fails to provide the required number of signed bids.
c. limits rights of the Government under any contract clause.
d. fails to provide a certificate of competency for a large business concern.

Back 70

c. limits rights of the Government under any contract clause.

Front 71

A bidder may modify or withdraw its bid
a. at any time before the bid opening day.
b. at any time until the award of a contract.
c. after award if authorized by the agency head.
d. not later than the exact time set for the opening of bids.

Back 71

d. not later than the exact time set for the opening of bids.

Front 72

The contracting officer examines the situation to determine why there was a small number
of responses to the invitation for bids when
a. only one bid is received.
b. three or fewer bids are received.
c. bids are received from less than 10 percent of those responding to the IFB.
d. bids are received from less than 50 percent of those responding to the IFB.

Back 72

b. three or fewer bids are received.

Front 73

Contract awards are generally made using
a. SF 26, SF 33, or SF 1447.
b. SF 26, SF 33, or SF 1449.
c. SF 26, SF 1447, or SF 1449.
d. SF 33, SF 1447, or SF 1449.

Back 73

a. SF 26, SF 33, or SF 1447.

Front 74

When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the
minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer’s liability is
a. $20,000.
b. $100,000.
c. $200,000.
d. $500,000.

Back 74

b. $100,000.

Front 75

Which statement best describes the United States government’s payment of federal excise,
state, and local taxes?
a. The most common tax is the federal excise tax, and the law always exempts the Federal
Government from these taxes.
b. Federal highway vehicle user’s tax imposed is not exempted whether the vehicle is owned or
leased by the United States.
c. Contracting officers should solicit prices on a tax-exclusive basis when it is known that the
Government is exempt from these taxes, and on a tax inclusive basis when no exemption exists.
d. If appropriate, the contracting officer provides a Standard Form 1439, Schedule of Accounting
Information, or other evidence to establish that the purchase is being made by the Government.

Back 75

c. Contracting officers should solicit prices on a tax-exclusive basis when it is known that the
Government is exempt from these taxes, and on a tax inclusive basis when no exemption exists.

Front 76

An economic price adjustment can be included in a contract when there is a
recommendation by the
a. bidder or a recommendation by the Government.
b. bidder or a recommendation by a contracting officer.
c. apparent low bidder or a recommendation by the Government.
d. apparent low bidder or a recommendation by a contracting officer.

Back 76

a. bidder or a recommendation by the Government.

Front 77

If two or more bidders still remain equally eligible after ranking in order of priority, the
award is made by
a. allowing equal low bidders to rebid.
b. drawing lots with only these equal bidders participating.
c. selecting the contactor least used by the Government from the pool of equal low bidders.
d. selecting the contractor with the best past performance record from the pool of equal low
bidders.

Back 77

b. drawing lots with only these equal bidders participating.

Front 78

Protests against awards are made to
a. the appropriate agency or US Court of Appeals.
b. either the appropriate agency or the Comptroller General.
c. the Comptroller General or the Government Accountability Office.
d. either the appropriate agency or the General Accountability Office.

Back 78

d. either the appropriate agency or the General Accountability Office.

Front 79

Which Federal Acquisition Regulation Part prescribes actions required upon receipt of
protests?
a. Part 13.
b. Part 14.
c. Part 33.
d. Part 36.

Back 79

c. Part 33.

Front 80

Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency (under
most circumstances) has how many days to submit a complete report to the Government
Accountability Office?
a. 20.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.

Back 80

b. 30.

Front 81

A negotiated contract is
a. a solicitation awarded from an invitation for bids (IFB).
b. a contract awarded without discussions.
c. any contract awarded without using sealed bidding.
d. an awarded contract using noncompetitive methods.

Back 81

c. any contract awarded without using sealed bidding.

Front 82

What circumstance allows an invitation for bids (IFB) to be converted to a request for
proposal (RFP)?
a. Time allows for reasonable bidding time.
b. Unreasonable prices or only one bid was received.
c. The bids were independently arrived at and not collusive.
d. There is a reasonable expectation of at least two or more responsible bidders.

Back 82

b. Unreasonable prices or only one bid was received.

Front 83

When compared to sealed bidding, the negotiation process is considered more
a. rigid.
b. flexible.
c. expeditious.
d. competitive.

Back 83

b. flexible.

Front 84

Once it has been determined that negotiation of a contract is in the best interest of the
government, the contracting officer
a. must award to the responsible bidder offering the lowest price.
b. cannot make changes to delivery and specifications.
c. has to accept the contractor’s proposed profit and fee.
d. has wide latitude in exercising business judgement

Back 84

d. has wide latitude in exercising business judgement.

Front 85

When responding to a solicitation for a negotiated action, contractors submit
a. a bid.
b. an offer.
c. a package.
d. a proposal.

Back 85

d. a proposal.

Front 86

Exchanging information with industry serves what purpose?
a. Shortens large bid lists by eliminating contractors.
b. Allows the government to determine the lowest price a contractor will propose.
c. Improves the understanding of the government’s requirements and industry capabilities.
d. Streamlines the acquisition process by reducing the amount of paperwork required.

Back 86

c. Improves the understanding of the government’s requirements and industry capabilities.

Front 87

Which statement best describes oral presentation?
a. They may be a substitute for written information.
b. They occur during the final round of negotiations.
c. They are evaluated quantitatively and scored by the government.
d. They may contain only the information provided in the offeror’s proposal.

Back 87

a. They may be a substitute for written information.

Front 88

When are contracting officers relieved from complying with portions of the Federal
Acquisition Regulation (FAR) concerning letter request for proposals (RFPs)?
a. When supervising foreign procurement.
b. When an urgency exists and FAR compliance would be restricted.
c. When permitted under circumstances of other than full-and-open competition.

Back 88

d. Using a letter RFP does not eliminate the requirement to comply with other portions of FAR.

Front 89

If a negotiated procurement is to be awarded based on other-than-price and price-related
factors, this information is found in solicitation Section
a. B, Supplies or services and prices/costs.
b. C, Description/specifications/work statement.
c. L, Instructions, conditions, and notices to offerors and respondents.
d. M, Evaluation factors for award.

Back 89

d. M, Evaluation factors for award.

Front 90

Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary
arrangements?
a. Contract specialist.
b. Contracting officer.
c. Functional commander.
d. Quality assurance personnel.

Back 90

b. Contracting officer.

Front 91

When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?
a. Quantity, specifications, contract.
b. Quantity, contract type, specifications.
c. Quantity, specifications, delivery schedules.
d. Defects or ambiguities after the closing date.

Back 91

c. Quantity, specifications, delivery schedules.

Front 92

After the closing date, amendments to request for proposals (RFPs) are provided to
a. all interested parties.
b. only the top three ranked offerors.
c. all parties on the original bidders mailing list.
d. all offerors that have not been eliminated from the competitive range.

Back 92

d. all offerors that have not been eliminated from the competitive range.

Front 93

Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal (RFP) before closing?
a. The incumbent contractor did not submit a proposal.
b. Several contractors have combined together into a teaming arrangement.
c. Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.
d. The civil servants union submitted a complaint about the ongoing competitive sourcing.

Back 93

c. Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.

Front 94

The best description of a modification to a proposal is
a. a change made to correct a mistake after award.
b. a change made after the solicitation’s closing date and time.
c. a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.
d. all changes made after exceeding the maximum number of amendments

Back 94

c. a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

Front 95

The best description of a revision to a proposal is
a. a revision amends a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.
b. a change made after the solicitation closing date at the request of a contracting officer as a
result of negotiations.
c. a revision corrects a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.
d. a change made after the solicitation closing date made during negotiations at the contractor’s
request.

Back 95

b. a change made after the solicitation closing date at the request of a contracting officer as a
result of negotiations.

Front 96

Can a proposal be withdrawn at anytime before award?
a. Yes, by written notice at any time before award.
b. No, the proposal is retained with the contract file.
c. No, once submitted, the proposal will be opened at closing.
d. Yes, at any time before award, provided the contracting officer writes a determination and
finding (D&F).

Back 96

a. Yes, by written notice at any time before award.

Front 97

When using a tradeoff process, all the evaluation factors that affect award will be disclosed
a. in the solicitation.
b. during negotiations.
c. in presolicitation notices.
d. in the notice to unsuccessful offerors.

Back 97

a. in the solicitation.

Front 98

Which statement is true about the lowest price technically acceptable source selection
process?
a. Any tradeoffs are okay and are encouraged.
b. Exchanges with contractors will not be required or allowed.
c. Proposals are ranked based on noncost/price factors.
d. Award is made to the lowest priced proposal that meets or exceeds standards.

Back 98

d. Award is made to the lowest priced proposal that meets or exceeds standards.

Front 99

Performance price tradeoff allows tradeoffs between which two evaluation factors?
a. Technical merit and price/cost.
b. Price/cost and past performance.
c. Past performance and quality.
d. Quality and technical merit.

Back 99

b. Price/cost and past performance.

Front 100

When using source selection procedures, the source selection organization consists of
personnel representing
a. government and contractor personnel as needed.
b. government personnel, including one technical member and one contracting member.
c. contractor personnel representing the various functional disciplines involved.
d. government and contractor personnel representing various functional and technical disciplines.

Back 100

b. government personnel, including one technical member and one contracting member.

Front 101

Who is normally the source selection authority for procurements?
a. Contract specialist.
b. Contracting officer.
c. Functional commander.
d. Quality assurance personnel.

Back 101

b. Contracting officer.

Front 102

The source selection authority is responsible for
a. the contract award portion only.
b. selection and contract award only.
c. selecting the source selection evaluation team only.
d. solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award.

Back 102

d. solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award.

Front 103

All are distinct parts that are included in the source selection plan (SSP) except
a. source selection team.
b. presolicitation activities.
c. evaluation factors and subfactors.
d. source selection approval document.

Back 103

d. source selection approval document.

Front 104

Evaluation factors and subfactors establish the level an offeror’s proposal must meet in
order to be judged minimally acceptable. Therefore, the factors should
a. include every aspect of the solicitation.
b. be quantitative, qualitative, or both.
c. be tailored to each proposal.
d. be quantitative only.

Back 104

b. be quantitative, qualitative, or both.

Front 105

“Can potentially cause some disruption of schedule, increase in cost, or degradation of
performance,” is the definition of which proposal risk?
a. Low.
b. High.
c. Medium.
d. Moderate.

Back 105

d. Moderate.

Front 106

When determining which offerors to include in the competitive range, the contracting
officer
a. excludes the bottom 10% of the offerors.
b. only includes the top 10% of the offerors.
c. includes all of the most highly rated proposals.
d. includes all offerors who are technically acceptable.

Back 106

c. includes all of the most highly rated proposals.

Front 107

What action is appropriate when the contracting officer decides that a proposal should not
be included in the competitive range?
a. Begin negotiations with offeror.
b. Request the offeror clarify their proposal.
c. Allow the offeror one more change to revise their proposal.
d. Eliminate from award consideration and provide notice to the offeror.

Back 107

d. Eliminate from award consideration and provide notice to the offeror.

Front 108

What type of exchanges is held after determining the competitive range?
a. Discussions.
b. Presentations.
c. Clarifications.
d. Communications.

Back 108

a. Discussions.

Front 109

What comparisons are allowed in a source selection decision document?
a. no comparisons are allowed.
b. one contractor’s approach to another.
c. all of the contractors’ approaches against the SSET’s personal knowledge.
d. the top three contractors’ approaches against the SSET’s personal knowledge.

Back 109

b. one contractor’s approach to another.

Front 110

Price analysis is preferred over cost analysis because it
a. is less time-consuming.
b. normally determines price reasonableness.
c. is the process of evaluating separate cost elements.
d. requires little or no comparison of proposed prices.

Back 110

a. is less time-consuming.

Front 111

What factors are considered in determining whether a cost is allowable?
a. Cost and pricing data are certified.
b. Costs are not allocable to the contract.
c. Rough yardsticks (such as dollars per pound) have been applied.
d. Standards have been established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.

Back 111

d. Standards have been established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.

Front 112

) A cost is reasonable if
a. it does not exceed the fair market value paid by the contractor over the last three years.
b. it does not exceed 110% of the price last paid by the government for the same item.
c. the amount is determined fair and reasonable by the contracting officer and its nature is not
illegal.
d. its nature and amount does not exceed that which would be included by a prudent business
person in the conduct of competitive business.

Back 112

d. its nature and amount does not exceed that which would be included by a prudent business
person in the conduct of competitive business

Front 113

Which would be identified as a direct cost?
a. The cost of doors for the building being constructed.
b. The cost of tools to cut and assemble wood.
c. The salary of a management official.
d. The cost of two pounds of nails.

Back 113

a. The cost of doors for the building being constructed.

Front 114

If a contractor buys a piece of equipment for $1,000, estimates its expected service life at 10
years and projects salvage value of $200, its annual depreciation value under the straight-line
method is
a. $20.
b. $80.
c. $100.
d. $120.

Back 114

b. $80.

Front 115

Cost or pricing data is described as
a. factual.
b. subjective.
c. generalized.
d. judgmental.

Back 115

a. factual.

Front 116

Which is not an exception to obtaining cost and pricing data?
a. Acquisition of a commercial item.
b. A modification is made to an existing contract.
c. Prices agreed upon are based on adequate price competition.
d. Prices agreed upon are based on prices set by law or regulation.

Back 116

b. A modification is made to an existing contract.

Front 117

When cost or pricing data is required, the contracting officer requires the contractor to
submit
a. a certificate of current cost or pricing data.
b. projections of cost for the first six months of production.
c. a certificate of authenticity for each vendor quote provided.
d. affidavits setting maximum expenditures for material and labor.

Back 117

a. a certificate of current cost or pricing data.

Front 118

If after award, cost and pricing data are found to be inaccurate, incomplete, or noncurrent,
what contract price adjustment is the government entitled to?
a. No adjustment.
b. Any price increase or decrease that resulted from the faulty data.
c. Any price increase that resulted from the faulty data plus a 10% penalty charge.
d. Any significant price increase including profit or fee that resulted from the faulty data.

Back 118

d. Any significant price increase including profit or fee that resulted from the faulty data.

Front 119

A win/win negotiated outcome is preferred in achieving long-term satisfaction because
a. each party feels the “victory” was at the other side’s expense.
b. competition enhancement is not as important as being trusting.
c. the government is interested in establishing long-lasting relationships.
d. government officials are required to get the lowest price yet remain friendly with suppliers.

Back 119

c. the government is interested in establishing long-lasting relationships.

Front 120

What helps the contracting officer negotiate a fair and reasonable price?
a. Audit report.
b. Field pricing report.
c. Fact-finding meeting.
d. Prenegotiation objective.

Back 120

d. Prenegotiation objective.

Front 121

Due to the importance of unity during the bargaining session, who should be the only
individual designated to speak?
a. Functional representative.
b. Senior team member.
c. Pricing specialist.
d. Chief negotiator.

Back 121

d. Chief negotiator.

Front 122

) How should the physical environment enhance win/win outcomes?
a. Facilitates your side “buying” a position.
b. Makes the contractor feel as comfortable as possible.
c. Gives other side the perception that they are being treated fairly.
d. Arranging the conference room gives you a psychological advantage.

Back 122

c. Gives other side the perception that they are being treated fairly.

Front 123

What is the best sequence for negotiating areas of disagreement?
a. No one approach is better than another.
b. Start negotiating on secondary issue first.
c. Start negotiating issues of greatest importance.
d. Government negotiates the contractor’s demands first.

Back 123

a. No one approach is better than another.

Front 124

Once both sides have reached general agreement during negotiations, the next step is to
a. close the negotiations as soon as possible.
b. address specific issues which are still in question.
c. take a short break to allow each side to reconsider each point.
d. wait while your administrative staff finalizes the agreement for signature.

Back 124

a. close the negotiations as soon as possible.

Front 125

During negotiations, how should you handle weaknesses in your negotiation position?
a. Do not volunteer weaknesses.
b. Immediately reveal them as an act of good faith.
c. Divulge your weaknesses if the contractor does the same.
d. Explain your weaknesses only after agreeing to a final price.

Back 125

a. Do not volunteer weaknesses.

Front 126

Deadlocks in negotiations
a. are not always avoidable.
b. only occur when parties are unfair.
c. only occur when parties are unreasonable.
d. always signify the end of negotiation attempts.

Back 126

a. are not always avoidable.

Front 127

Why must a price negotiation memorandum (PNM) permit the rapid reconstruction of the
major consideration in pricing the contract?
a. So courts can render decisions quicker.
b. In case the contract file is lost or destroyed.
c. It aids in auditing contract file by inspectors.
d. Because of the high turnover rate for contracting personnel.

Back 127

d. Because of the high turnover rate for contracting personnel.

Front 128

A price negotiation memorandum (PNM) must contain all of the following except
a. a description of the acquisition.
b. the basis for profit or fee negotiated.
c. the duration of the negotiation session.
d. documentation of fair and reasonable pricing.

Back 128

c. the duration of the negotiation session.

Front 129

What contract award form is used for construction, alterations, or repair?
a. SF 26.
b. SF 33.
c. SF 1442.
d. SF 1447.

Back 129

c. SF 1442.

Front 130

The contracting officer provides written notice of award to the unsuccessful offerors within
a. three days.
b. four days.
c. five days.
d. six days.

Back 130

a. three days.

Front 131

Inspections performed by the government to determine whether a contractor has fulfilled
contract obligations pertaining to quality and quantity are included under what aspect of general
contract administration?
a. Contract quality requirements.
b. Quality assurance evaluator program.
c. Government contract quality control.
d. Government contract quality assurance.

Back 131

d. Government contract quality assurance.

Front 132

Who is responsible for ensuring the government receives only those supplies or services that
conform to contract requirements?
a. Customer.
b. Contractor.
c. Contracting officer.
d. Contract administrator.

Back 132

b. Contractor.

Front 133

The Air Force provides GFP to a contractor when necessary to achieve significant economy,
a. standardization, or replace obsolete equipment.
b. specialization, or replace obsolete equipment.
c. standardization, or expedited production.
d. specialization, or expedited production.

Back 133

c. standardization, or expedited production.

Front 134

What part of the FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress
payments?
a. Part 30.
b. Part 31.
c. Part 32.
d. Part 33.

Back 134

c. Part 32.

Front 135

When delivery is late on a commodities contract that exceeds the SAT, the government may
take any of the following actions except to
a. invoke liquidated damages in the agreed amount until delivery is made or the delivery schedule
is renegotiated (if liquidated damages are included in the contract).
b. enter into negotiations with the contractor to extend the delivery date, provided the government
receives appropriate consideration for doing so.
c. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 49 of the FAR.
d. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.

Back 135

d. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.

Front 136

In a commodity contract that has a Variations in Quantity clause, the variations that are
allowed by the government are those
a. known to be acceptable to the contractor.
b. that meet customary commercial standards.
c. caused beyond the reasonable control of the contractor.
d. caused by loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes.

Back 136

d. caused by loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes.

Front 137

What delineates the rights and obligations of the contractor and the government for defective
items and services and fosters quality performance?
a. Warranty.
b. New Materials clause.
c. Manufacturer’s guarantee.
d. Evaluation - Commercial Items clause.

Back 137

a. Warranty.

Front 138

If an item is customarily warranted in trade practice, the cost of the item when purchased for
the government
a. should be the same whether or not a warranty is included.
b. should be less because the government does not require a warranty.
c. will be less because commercial warranties are discounted to the government.
d. will be slightly higher because of the higher standard of performance required by the
government.

Back 138

a. should be the same whether or not a warranty is included.

Front 139

What document is used to guide discussions during a contract post award conference?
a. Contracting Officer’s Guide.
b. Contract Administrator’s Guide.
c. DD Form 1484, Post Award Conference Record.
d. DD Form 1484, Contract Administrator Checklist.

Back 139

c. DD Form 1484, Post Award Conference Record.

Front 140

Which contracting party is responsible for quality control?
a. Contractor.
b. Contracting officer.
c. Contract administrator.
d. Functional director.

Back 140

a. Contractor.

Front 141

Which labor standards provisions require all laborers and mechanics employed or working
upon the site of construction to be paid unconditionally and not less often than once a week?
a. Davis-Bacon Act.
b. Service Contract Act.
c. Contract Work Hours Act.
d. Payrolls and Basic Records.

Back 141

a. Davis-Bacon Act.

Front 142

Which labor standards provisions require the contractor to submit weekly copies of all
payrolls to the contracting officer and maintain payroll and basic records for a period of three
years?
a. Davis-Bacon Act.
b. Service Contract Act.
c. Payrolls and Basic Records.
d. Contract Work Hours Act.

Back 142

c. Payrolls and Basic Records.

Front 143

When bonds are required on a construction contract, the contractor’s notice to proceed is
issued after the
a. award but prior to receipt of bonds.
b. contracting officer has received all executed bonds.
c. award but prior to contacting surety for proof of issuance of bonds.
d. contracting officer has received notification from the contractor that bonds have been secured.

Back 143

b. contracting officer has received all executed bonds.

Front 144

What requires that all work under a construction contract be performed in a skillful and
workman like manner?
a. Davis-Bacon Act.
b. Service Contract Act.
c. Material and Workmanship clause.
d. Apprentices and Trainees standards.

Back 144

c. Material and Workmanship clause.

Front 145

A progress schedule is required when the performance period exceeds how many days?
a. 30 days.
b. 45 days.
c. 60 days.
d. 90 days.

Back 145

c. 60 days.

Front 146

Which clause protects the government from latent defects in construction?
a. Inspection and Warranty.
b. Inspection of Construction.
c. Use and Protection Prior to Completion.
d. Specifications and Drawings for Construction

Back 146

b. Inspection of Construction.

Front 147

What type of modification is used when affecting the substantive rights of either party and
sufficient time exists for negotiations?
a. Bilateral.
b. Unilateral.
c. Undefinitized.
d. Administrative.

Back 147

a. Bilateral.

Front 148

Changes authorized in fixed-price contracts for supplies include each of the following
except
a. place of delivery.
b. methods of shipment or packing.
c. drawings, designs, or specifications.
d. directed acceleration in performance of work.

Back 148

d. directed acceleration in performance of work.

Front 149

A release of claims is required from contractors after the equitable adjustment has been
agreed upon to
a. prevent on-going negotiation requests from subcontractors.
b. prevent unauthorized personnel from representing the contractor in negotiations.
c. help contractors understand all legal ramifications of the supplemental agreement.
d. help avoid controversy over supplemental agreements resulting from unilateral modifications.

Back 149

d. help avoid controversy over supplemental agreements resulting from unilateral modifications.

Front 150

What actions may the contractor take if an equitable adjustment agreement could not be
reached and no release of claims was signed?
a. Nullify the contracting officer’s final decision under the Disputes clause.
b. Nullify the contracting officer’s final decision under the Changes clause.
c. Dispute the contracting officer’s final decision under the Disputes clause.
d. Dispute the contracting officer’s final decision under the Changes clause.

Back 150

c. Dispute the contracting officer’s final decision under the Disputes clause.

Front 151

The contracting officer shall effect a no-cost settlement instead of issuing a termination
notice when
a. government property was not furnished.
b. it is known that the contractor will accept one.
c. there are no outstanding payments, debts due the government, or other contractual obligations.
d. all of the above requirements have been met.

Back 151

d. all of the above requirements have been met.

Front 152

A notice for termination can be rescinded if it is determined that the items had been
completed or shipped before the contractor’s receipt of notice by
a. modification of the notice.
b. amendment of the notice.
c. converting the termination notice to a cure notice.
d. converting the termination notice to a show cause notice.

Back 152

b. amendment of the notice.

Front 153

How may a termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract be settled?
a. Inventory basis or total-cost basis.
b. Inventory basis or adjusted-cost basis.
c. Total-price basis or total-cost basis.
d. Total-price basis or adjusted-cost basis.

Back 153

a. Inventory basis or total-cost basis.

Front 154

The total-cost basis settlement may be used for terminations for convenience when preapproved
by the
a. contracting officer and a variable-rate is used.
b. terminating contracting officer and a fixed-rate is used.
c. terminating contracting officer and a variable-rate is used.
d. terminating contracting officer and use of inventory basis is not practicable.

Back 154

d. terminating contracting officer and use of inventory basis is not practicable.

Front 155

The government may exercise its right to terminate for default by terminating
a. the entire contract for default.
b. the contract for default either completely or partially.
c. for default after the contractor fails to make the required delivery time.
d. only those portions of the contract for which the requirement no longer exists.

Back 155

b. the contract for default either completely or partially.

Front 156

) If a contractor’s failure to perform is due to actions of a subcontractor, will the contractor
remain liable for excess costs of repurchase?
a. Yes, if the subcontractor’s failure was beyond his control.
b. No. Prime contractors are protected from liability by the Subcontract Protection clause.
c. No. Contractor can only be held accountable for costs as defined in the contract; the
subcontractor will be charged any excess costs.
d. Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for
the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule.

Back 156

d. Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for
the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule.

Front 157

What action does the contracting officer take if a claim exceeding $100,000 is submitted
without certification?
a. Notify the contractor of the failure to certify the claim and withhold final decision.
b. Notify the contractor of the failure to certify the claim and proceed with final decision.
c. Submit the claim for certification to the head of the contracting activity and proceed with final
decision.
d. Submit the claim for certification to the head of the contracting activity and withhold final
decision until certified.

Back 157

a. Notify the contractor of the failure to certify the claim and withhold final decision.

Front 158

When a contractor is paid for a claim, interest will be paid from the date
a. of the last payment to the contractor through the date the claim is paid.
b. the contracting officer received the claim through the date the claim is paid.
c. of the last payment to the contractor through the date of the contracting officer’s final decision.
d. the contracting officer received the claim through the date of the contracting officer’s final
decision.

Back 158

b. the contracting officer received the claim through the date the claim is paid.

Front 159

Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s final decision on claims
exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?
a. Functional area chief.
b. US Court of Federal Claims.
c. Air Force Material Command Law Center.
d. Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals.

Back 159

c. Air Force Material Command Law Center.

Front 160

If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when
should the amount be paid to the contractor?
a. As soon as possible after resolution of any appeal.
b. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.
c. Payment will be made along with final contract payment.
d. Payment will be made along with the next scheduled contract payment.

Back 160

b. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.

Front 161

How long after the contracting officer’s final decision does the contractor have to appeal to
the US Court of Federal Claims?
a. 90 days from the date of the contracting officer’s decision.
b. 180 days from the date of the contracting officer’s decision.
c. 6 months from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.
d. 12 months from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.

Back 161

d. 12 months from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.

Front 162

Upon learning of an appeal to the ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4
of the ASBCA rules found in
a. DFARS, Appendix C.
b. AFFARS, Appendix CC.
c. DFARS, Appendix A.
d. AFFARS, Appendix AA.

Back 162

c. DFARS, Appendix A.

Front 163

Three types of ADRs encountered in the local contracting office are
a. mitigation, arbitration, and controversy hearings.
b. mediation, binding arbitration, and controversy hearings.
c. mitigation, binding arbitration, and nonbinding arbitration.
d. mediation, binding arbitration, and nonbinding arbitration.

Back 163

d. mediation, binding arbitration, and nonbinding arbitration.

Front 164

When may the government make consent to arbitration a condition of entering into a
contract?
a. Only when the contractor is agreeable to such terms.
b. When it is determined to be in the best interest of the government.
c. The government may not make consent to arbitration a condition of entering into a contract.
d. When it is determined that inclusion of such terms will create an inexpensive and expedition
resolution to any resulting issues in controversy.

Back 164

c. The government may not make consent to arbitration a condition of entering into a contract.

Front 165

How many days after the close of an arbitration hearing does the arbitrator have to make the
award?
a. 30 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. There is no exact time requirement in an alternative dispute resolution arbitration.

Back 165

a. 30 days.

Front 166

How would you close a contract if the contractor becomes bankrupt?
a. Get approval from your immediate supervisor.
b. Coordinate with the Officer of General Counsel.
c. Get approval from your small business specialist.
d. Coordinate with your quality assurance specialist.

Back 166

b. Coordinate with the Officer of General Counsel.

Front 167

The Buy American Act applies to what kind of contracts?
a. Supply contracts that exceed the micropurchase threshold.
b. Construction contracts under the micropurchase threshold.
c. All contracts that furnish supplies under the micropurchase threshold.
d. Service contracts without furnishing supplies that exceed the micropurchase threshold.

Back 167

a. Supply contracts that exceed the micropurchase threshold.

Front 168

Exceptions are allowed under the Buy American Act for articles, materials, and supplies
purchased
a. for use in the United States.
b. specifically for commissary resale.
c. at a reasonable price from a domestic source.
d. when the contracting officer determines that domestic preference would be in the public’s
interest.

Back 168

b. specifically for commissary resale.

Front 169

What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the nonqualifying country
offer and the duty is exempted by the Duty-Free clause?
a. Award the contract at the offered price plus the amount of duty.
b. Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty.
c. Withhold award of the contract until certificate of exemption is received.
d. Withhold award of the contract until additional funds for duty are verified.

Back 169

b. Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty.

Front 170

What Air Force publication establishes duties and identifies the functions of the servicing
contracting office?
a. AFI 64–301, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.
b. AFI 63–301, Nonappropriated Fund Acquisitions.
c. AFMAN 64–302, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.
d. AFMAN 63–302, Nonappropriated Fund Acquisitions.

Back 170

a. AFI 64–301, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.

Front 171

What Air Force publication governs the procedures for the NAF contracting office?
a. AFI 64–301, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.
b. AFI 63–301, Nonappropriated Fund Acquisitions.
c. AFMAN 64–302, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.
d. AFMAN 63–302, Nonappropriated Fund Acquisitions.

Back 171

c. AFMAN 64–302, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.

Front 172

The government policy requiring contractors to apprise their employees of any hazards to
which they may be exposed during contract performance mirrors the
a. Base Safety Program.
b. Hazardous Materials clause requirements.
c. Pollution Control and Clean Air and Water Acts.
d. OSHA requirements.

Back 172

d. OSHA requirements.

Front 173

What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous materials
to the government?
a. MSDS.
b. Proof of liability for potential hazards.
c. Material Shipping Document Sheet.
d. EPA notification.

Back 173

a. MSDS.

Front 174

Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be
performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are
known as
a. value engineering contracts.
b. professional services contracts.
c. architect-engineer services contracts.
d. engineering design services contracts.

Back 174

c. architect-engineer services contracts.

Front 175

What course of action may the CO take when a mutually satisfactory contract cannot be
negotiated with the selected firm?
a. Initiate negotiations with the next firm on the final selection list.
b. Initiate negotiations with the contractor submitting the next lowest bid.
c. Meet with the customer to determine if adjustments can be made in the government’s
requirement.
d. Meet with the contractors who have submitted bids to determine if adjustments should be made
in the government’s requirement.

Back 175

a. Initiate negotiations with the next firm on the final selection list.

Front 176

The final decision for contractor selection for acquisitions identified under the 8(a) program
will be made by the
a. contracting officer.
b. small business specialist.
c. SBA.
d. HCA.

Back 176

c. SBA.

Front 177

Who serves as the 8(a) representative for the contracting office?
a. Local representative of the SBA.
b. Small business specialist assigned to the individual contracting activity.
c. Local representative of the Office of Procurement, Title 5 USC Section 8(a).
d. Small business specialist assigned to the local SBA.

Back 177

b. Small business specialist assigned to the individual contracting activity.

Front 178

In accordance with FAR Part 19, who must approve and sign an 8(a) contract before award
can be made by the contracting officer?
a. Local representative of the SBA.
b. Small business specialist assigned to the local SBA.
c. Small business specialist assigned to the individual contracting activity.
d. Local representative of the Office of Procurement, Title 5 USC Section 8(a).

Back 178

a. Local representative of the SBA.

Front 179

The SABER program is best suited for what types of requirements?
a. Complex, construction, and repair projects that require minor design.
b. Noncomplex, minor construction, and repair projects that require no design.
c. Noncomplex, minor construction, and maintenance and repair projects that require minor
design.
d. Complex, minor construction, and maintenance and repair projects that require extensive
design.

Back 179

c. Noncomplex, minor construction, and maintenance and repair projects that require minor
design.

Front 180

The value limitation of NPIs on an individual SABER delivery order cannot exceed
a. 10% of the total value of the delivery order.
b. 20% of the total value of the delivery order.
c. 10% of the total value of the unit price guides listing.
d. 20% of the total value of the unit price guides listing.

Back 180

a. 10% of the total value of the delivery order.

Front 181

What term is defined in the AFFARS as an emergency involving military forces caused by
natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or required military operations?
a. Contingency.
b. National distress.
c. National emergency.
d. International plan of action

Back 181

a. Contingency.

Front 182

Who maintains functional control over CCO deployed with a unit?
a. Host nation commander.
b. Receiving (unified) command.
c. Squadron commander at home station.
d. MAJCOM commander of the home station.

Back 182

b. Receiving (unified) command.

Front 183

What determines the appropriate certification level and training that contracting personnel
should have prior to selection as a CCO?
a. The individual’s rank.
b. The particular tasking.
c. Squadron commander’s discretion.
d. Individual’s education level held.

Back 183

b. The particular tasking.

Front 184

) Contracting activities should consider establishing solicitation mailing lists in which of the
following situations?
a. The requirements are nonrecurring.
b. The requirements can be obtained through simplified acquisition procedures.
c. Telegraphic and/or facsimile receipt of bids are authorized by the contracting officer.
d. Electronic commerce methods transmit solicitations or presolicitation notices automatically to
all interested sources participating in electronic contracting with the purchasing activity.

Back 184

c. Telegraphic and/or facsimile receipt of bids are authorized by the contracting officer.

Front 185

) Which phase is not one of the four phases of a deployment?
a. Bed-down.
b. Sustainment.
c. Initial deployment.
d. Termination/redeployment.

Back 185

a. Bed-down.

Front 186

Responsiveness to basic life support requirements (i.e. food services, potable water, etc.) is
the main focus of what deployment phase?
a. Bed-down.
b. Sustainment.
c. Initial deployment.
d. Termination/redeployment.

Back 186

c. Initial deployment.

Front 187

Who determines the priority of purchase requests in a contingency?
a. CCO.
b. QAP.
c. Deployed commander.
d. Functional commander.

Back 187

c. Deployed commander.

Front 188

What security classification should be marked on travel and billeting arrangements?
a. Secret.
b. Sensitive.
c. Classified.
d. For Official Use Only.

Back 188

d. For Official Use Only.

Front 189

What document is typically used to fund a contingency operation?
a. AF Form 9, Request for Purchase.
b. AF IMT 616, Fund Cite Authorization.
c. SF 44, Purchase Order-Invoice Voucher.
d. DD Form 1348–6, DOD Single Line Item Requisition System Document.

Back 189

b. AF IMT 616, Fund Cite Authorization.

Front 190

What phase of contingency is characterized by firming up of host nation support for beddown
and termination or transfer of contracts to the host nation?
a. Build-up.
b. Sustainment.
c. Initial deployment.
d. Termination/redeployment.

Back 190

b. Sustainment.

Front 191

What skill level identifies a contracting superintendent?
a. 6C031.
b. 6C051.
c. 6C071.
d. 6C091.

Back 191

d. 6C091.

Front 192

How many months does a student normally have to complete the mandatory Contracting
Career Development Course?
a. 6 months.
b. 12 months.
c. 18 months.
d. 24 months.

Back 192

b. 12 months.

Front 193

Which code classifies types of products or services by industry type?
a. CCR.
b. TPIN.
c. DUNS.
d. NAICS.

Back 193

d. NAICS.

Front 194

What are the typical savings of the public-private competition?
a. 01 – 10 percent.
b. 10 – 20 percent.
c. 20 – 30 percent.
d. 30 – 40 percent.

Back 194

c. 20 – 30 percent.

Front 195

What are the two types of competitions authorized in the OMB Circular A–76?
a. Basic and simplified.
b. Basic and streamlined.
c. Standard and simplified.
d. Standard and streamlined.

Back 195

d. Standard and streamlined.

Front 196

Which Act permits a federal agency to order supplies and services from another agency as
prescribed by FAR Part 17?
a. Economy Act.
b. Paperwork Reduction Act.
c. Regulatory Flexibility Act.
d. Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act.

Back 196

a. Economy Act.

Front 197

Which type of contract action report is used to report government–wide purchase card
transactions?
a. Single.
b. Express.
c. Multiple.
d. Bilateral.

Back 197

b. Express.

Front 198

Which government requirement can be violated when the wrong “color of money” is used?
a. Procurement Act.
b. Anti-Deficiency Act.
c. Bona-fide Needs Rule.
d. Misappropriations

Back 198

d. Misappropriations