Oral Pathology - Old Final Exam Questions

Front 1

Which has the worse prognosis - ameloblastoma in the poserior mandible or ameloblastoma in the posterior maxilla?

Back 1

posterior maxilla

Front 2

most common location for lateral periodontal cyst

Back 2

mandibular canine-premolar region

Front 3

does the central giant cell granuloma respect the midline or cross it

Back 3

cross it

Front 4

In cherubism, is more than one quadrant involved or is the disorder restricted to one quad?

Back 4

bilateral and therefore involves more than one quad

Front 5

name a noninflammatory (not periodontitis) condition in which one or more teeth have a "floating in air" appearance

Back 5

langerhans cell histiocytosis

Front 6

what tissue is present in the radiolucent rim around odontomas?

Back 6

fibrous CT sac

Front 7

What feature of gardner's syndrome is most worrisome?

Back 7

premalignant intestinal polyps

Front 8

cemntoblastoma: associated with vital or nonvital tooth?

Back 8

vital tooth

Front 9

more common: maxillary or mandibular tori?

Back 9

maxillary tori

Front 10

which soft tissue calcification has a targetoid or bulls eye pattern?

Back 10

phlebolith

Front 11

Name the premalignant lesion of the lip where it is not possible to tell where the vermillion border of the lip ends and the skin begins.

Back 11

actinic chelitis

Front 12

What histologic type of cancer accounts for 95% of the cancers found in the oral cavity?

Back 12

Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 13

Which oral cancer is associated with HPV?

Back 13

verrucas carcinoma

Front 14

Name a cancer that does not metastasize

Back 14

basal cell carcinoma

Front 15

Target, iris, or bulls-eye type skin lesions and an explosive onset of oral lesions are associated with which disease?

Back 15

Erythema Multiforme Major

Front 16

Most common location for: lichen planus

Back 16

buccal mucosa

Front 17

Most common location for: ranula

Back 17

floor of mouth

Front 18

Most common location for: necrotizing sialometaplasia

Back 18

hard palate

Front 19

Most common location for: granular cell tumor

Back 19

tongue

Front 20

Most common location for: peripheral giant cell granuloma

Back 20

attached gingiva

Front 21

What disease is associated with: loss of lamina dura around teeth

Back 21

hyperparathyroidism

Front 22

What disease is associated with: cafe-au lait macules

Back 22

nerofibromatosis

Front 23

What disease is associated with: widened PDL

Back 23

scleroderma

Front 24

What disease is associated with: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

Back 24

diabetes mellitus

Front 25

What disease is associated with: increase phophoethanolamine in the urine and low levels of alkaline phosphatase

Back 25

hypophosphotasia

Front 26

What disease is associated with: herpes type 8 virus

Back 26

kaposis's sarcoma

Front 27

What disease is associated with: herpes type 3 virus

Back 27

varicella zoster

Front 28

What disease is associated with: herpes type 4 virus

Back 28

epstein barr virus - mononucleosis

Front 29

What disease is associated with: herpes type 5 virus

Back 29

cytomegalovirus

Front 30

What oral lesions are seen in patients with graft verses host disease?

Back 30

Lichenoid lesions

Front 31

Which drug or class of drugs is most common causes of drug induced ginigival hyperplasia

Back 31

calcium channel blokers

Front 32

what is the most common intraoral location of salivary gland tumors

Back 32

palate

Front 33

what is the most common benign salivary gland tumor?

Back 33

pleomorphic adenoma

Front 34

What percentage of parotid tumors are benign?

Back 34

~70%

Front 35

Most common location for gingival cyst?

Back 35

soft tissue in mandibular canine-premolar region

Front 36

What is the significant oral finding associated with: basal cell carcinoma syndrome

Back 36

multiple OKC

Front 37

What is the significant oral finding associated with: gardner syndrome

Back 37

multiple osteomas

Front 38

What is the significant oral finding associated with: cleidocranial dysplasia

Back 38

supernumerary teeth and retained primary teeth

Front 39

what is the most common supernumerary tooth?

Back 39

mesiodens

Front 40

What is the most common cleft?

Back 40

combination cleft lip and palate

Front 41

Histologic finding in cherubism is the same as what other condition?

Back 41

Central giant cell granuloma

Front 42

What vitamin deficiency is associated with: pellegra

Back 42

B3 (niacin)

Front 43

What vitamin deficiency is associated with: scurvy

Back 43

Vitamin C

Front 44

What vitamin deficiency is associated with: osteomalsia

Back 44

Vitamin D

Front 45

What disease is associate with decreased levels of intrinsic factor?

Back 45

Pernicious anemia

Front 46

What condition is caused by increased production of growth hormone AFTER closure of epiphyseal plates and usually related to pituitary adenoma?

Back 46

Acromegaly

Front 47

Give a triggering event or phenomena related to bell's palsy

Back 47

Extreme cold or viral (herpes) infection

Front 48

Glossopharyngeal neuralgia involves which of the cranial nerves

Back 48

Cranial nerve IX

Front 49

Give a local or systemic factor associated with glossopyrosis

Back 49

depression/vitamin deficiency

list:
Vitamin deficiency
Diabetes
Hypothyroidism
Estrogen deficiency
Depression, Anxiety, Stress

Front 50

Trigeminal neuralgia may also be associated with what other neuromuscular disease?

Back 50

multiple sclerosis

Front 51

Give a systemic factor that may contribute to dysgeusia.

Back 51

Vitamin A deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency

Front 52

Besides dental identification name two other commonly used methods to identify a corpse so that a death certificate can be issued:

Back 52

finger prints & DNA analysis

Front 53

Sparse hair, heat intolerance, periocular pigmentation and hypodontia would lead you to suspect.

Back 53

Ectodermal dysplasia

Front 54

Comparison of antemortem dental evidence and post mortem dental evidence can yield one of four conclusions. Name the four:

Back 54

Positive
Presumptive (consistent with)
Exclusion
Iinsufficient

Front 55

In forensics, histologic evidence (PMNs, necrosis, hemosiderin) and clinical skin color (red-blue-purple, black-blue, green-blue) can be used to estimate:

Back 55

age of bitemarks on human skin

Front 56

More common on upper or lower lip: mucocele

Back 56

lower

Front 57

More common on upper or lower lip: canalicular adenoma

Back 57

upper

Front 58

More common on upper or lower lip: solar chelitis

Back 58

lower

Front 59

List three abnormalities that occur ONLY on the dorsum of the tongue:

Back 59

black hairy tongue, fissured tongue, median rhomboid glossitis, geographic tongue

Front 60

An 8mm radiolucency around the crown of an impacted tooth is most likely a/an:

Back 60

dentigerous cyst

Front 61

Most common location for ameloblastoma:

Back 61

posterior mandible

Front 62

Most common location for adenomatoid odontogenic tumor:

Back 62

Anterior portion of maxilla

Front 63

Most common location for lateral periodontal cyst:

Back 63

Mandibular canine/premolar region

Front 64

Which disease is associated with hypochromic microcytic RBCs, glossitis, and predisposition for candidiasis?

Back 64

Iron deficiency anemia

Front 65

Which disease is the megablastic anemia caused by poor absorption of coablamin?

Back 65

pernicious anemia

Front 66

What is addison's disease?

Back 66

Primary adrenal cortical insufficiency – insufficient production of adrenal steroids

Front 67

What is the characteristic finding in the oral head and neck area in patients with addison's disease?

Back 67

An accumulation of melanin in tissues

Front 68

What is the appearance of skin lesions in lichen planus?

Back 68

purple, pruritic, papules

Front 69

What is the appearance of skin lesions in erythema multiform?

Back 69

Bulls eye appearance

Front 70

This disease shows widened PDLs and can lead to loss of ramus, condyle, and coronoid process

Back 70

systemic scelroderma

Front 71

A butterfly rash across the face is associated with which systemic disease?

Back 71

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Front 72

An asymptomatic, well-defined radiopacity in alveolar bone with no inflammatory, dysplastic or neoplastic cause is called:

Back 72

bone scar

Front 73

Two dental features of paget's disease of bone

Back 73

diastema formation between teeth
Generalized hypercementosis

Front 74

Preferred form of pharmacologic therapy for patients with Paget's disease of bone and why?

Back 74

Bisphosphonates because they inhibit resorption and increase formation of bone.

Front 75

Give four clinical/radiographic features that would suggest that a particular central giant cell granuloma is likely to behave in an aggressive fashion.

Back 75

-pain
-rapid growth
-cortical perforation
-root resorption

Front 76

Components of McCune-Albright syndrome

Back 76

-Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
-Cafe au lait macules
-Endocrinopathy

Front 77

What feature regarding the borders of a radiopaque lesion in the jaws should help you discriminate between fibrous dysplasia and cemento-ossifying fibroma?

Back 77

Fibrous dysplasia borders are less defined (ground glass appearance)

Front 78

What is the recommend tx for periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia and why?

Back 78

No tx, because it may cause osteomyelitis

Front 79

Maxillary osteomas are usually associated with a paranasal sinus. Which of the paranasal sinuses is most frequently afflicted?

Back 79

Frontal

Front 80

Which are the two most common disorders in which multiple supernumerary teeth develop?

Back 80

Gardner's and Cleidocranial

Front 81

presents with a targetoid or "bulls-eye" appearance radiographically; the zones consist of an ovoid radiopaque central nidus with a peripheral radiolucent rim, surrounded by an area of host sclerosis.

Back 81

Osteoid osteoma

Front 82

What is the recommended tx for chondrosarcoma?

Back 82

Radical surgical excision

Front 83

Oral blisters of this potentially fatal skin disease are due to autoimmune attack of desmosomes. Name the disease.

Back 83

Pemphigus

Front 84

What percent abuse often demonstrate orofacial injuries?

Back 84

50%

Front 85

Application of topical anesthetic agent to the tonsil and pharynx on the side of pain can be used to diagnose which neuralgia?

Back 85

Glossopharyngeal neuralgia

Front 86

Name 3 yellow lesions

Back 86

FORDYCE’S GRANULES
LYMPHOEPITHELIAL CYST
PARULIS
LIPOMA

Front 87

Name 3 black/brown lesions

Back 87

Melanoma
amalgam tattoo
oral melanotic macule

Front 88

Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: mucocele

Back 88

lower

Front 89

Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: SCCA

Back 89

lower

Front 90

Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: salivary gland tumor

Back 90

upper

Front 91

Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: actinic chelitis

Back 91

lower

Front 92

Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: nasolabial cyst

Back 92

upper

Front 93

Is this more common in the upper or lower lip: congenital lip pits

Back 93

lower

Front 94

In clinical staging of oral SCCA what does the T, N, and M stand for?

Back 94

Tumor Size
Node involvement
Metastasis

Front 95

Medical term for freckle:

Back 95

Macule or ephelis

Front 96

A lesion with a stalk is called?

Back 96

Pedunculated

Front 97

Childhood herpangina is caused by what?

Back 97

Coxsackievirus

Front 98

Most common intraoral mucosal chemical burn

Back 98

aspirin burn

Front 99

Most common intraoral lesions caused by pipe/cigar smoking

Back 99

nicotine stomatitis

Front 100

Most common age range in patients with ameloblastic fibroma

Back 100

Teenage

Front 101

Most common radiopacity at the apex of a nonvital tooth

Back 101

condensing osteitis

Front 102

Most common jawbone for supernumerary teeth

Back 102

maxilla

Front 103

Most common genetically missing teeth

Back 103

3rd molars

Front 104

Most common intrinsic stain of a single tooth

Back 104

internal resorption or necrotic pulp

Front 105

Deposition of proteinaceous material that has primary, myeloma and hemodialysis associated forms. Rectal and salivary gland biopsy for diagnosis with tissue that stains positive with Congo Red. Macroglossia is common.

Back 105

Amyloidosis

Front 106

What deficiency is associated with Rickets?

Back 106

Vitamin D

Front 107

Iron deficiency anemia in conjunction with glossitis and dysphagia in Scandinavian women. There is an association with squamous cell carcinoma.

Back 107

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

Front 108

What disease with oral lesions discussed in class is associated with symblepharons, entropion and trichiasis?

Back 108

BMMP - benign mucous membrane pemphigoid

Front 109

Libman-Sack endocartitis is associated with?

Back 109

SLE

Front 110

What do the letters in CREST syndrome stand for?

Back 110

Calcinosis Cutis
Raynaud’s phenomenon
Esophageal dysfunction
Sclerodactly
Telangiectasias

Front 111

What serious oral disease is associated with skin lesions and histological findings that include intraepithelial separation with autoantibodies to the spinous cell layer? "The oral lesions are the first to show and the last to go":

Back 111

Pemphigus vulgaris

Front 112

What disease do the oral findings of graft-versus-host disease most closely resemble?

Back 112

lichen planus

Front 113

What are two histologic terms for a biopsied leukoplakic lesion that is considered premalignant?

Back 113

Hyperkeratosis
carcinoma in situ

Front 114

What is the histologic term for a biopsied leukoplakic lesion that is considered premalignant?

Back 114

dysplastic

Front 115

Laser-Trelat sign with pruritis associated with internal malignancy is associated with which skin condition?

Back 115

seborrheic keratosis

Front 116

Of the three major major clinical variations of recurrent apthous ulcerations which one occurs most commonly?

Back 116

minor

Front 117

Scarring may occur in which clinical variation of recurrent apthous stomatitis

Back 117

Major

Front 118

Kveim test may be used to help diagnose what multisystem disorder?

Back 118

sarcoidosis

Front 119

Frequency of adverse effects from dental amalgam is estimated to be:

Back 119

one in one million

Front 120

The most common oral soft tissue site to which malignant tumors metastasize is ________. In men the site from which metastases originate most frequently ________ while in women it is _______.

Back 120

gingiva
lungs
breasts

Front 121

What is the most serious complication of MEN type IIB?

Back 121

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

Front 122

This malignant neoplasm of skeletal muscle origin is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of children.

Back 122

rhabdomyosarcoma

Front 123

4% of persons with what neuromuscular (demyelinating) disease develop trigeminal neuralgia

Back 123

multiple sclerosis

Front 124

Which neuralgia can be diagnosed by application of a topical anesthetic agent to the tonsil and pharynx on the side of the pain?

Back 124

glossopharyngeal neuralgia

Front 125

Name a bone disease characterized by a slow or abrupt decrease in marrow blood flow causing degeneration and death of marrow and bone.

Back 125

NICO

Front 126

Name the type of drug that improves symptoms in 2/3 of patients with idiopathic glossodynia.

Back 126

mood altering

Front 127

What is the most common radiographic textural pattern seen in fibrous dysplasia?

Back 127

ground glass

Front 128

periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia has marked predilection for which age group, race, and gender?

Back 128

middle aged , african american, & women

Front 129

describe the radiographic borders of a typical cemento-ossifying fibroma:

Back 129

circumscribed

Front 130

Which 2 radiographic features help distinguish the OKC from an ameloblastoma?

Back 130

scalloping & anterior-posterior expansion

Front 131

What odontogenic cyst has the highest recurrence rate?

Back 131

okc

Front 132

what is the recommened tx for dentigerous cyst

Back 132

enucleation

Front 133

Patients with gardner's syndrome have multiple osteomas. List 2 other features of gardner syndrome.

Back 133

intestinal polyps and suepernumerary teeth

Front 134

Name the laboratory marker that is elevated in osteosarcoma

Back 134

alkaline phosphatase

Front 135

Name the radiographic feature, which is highly suggestive of chondrosarcoma:

Back 135

sunburst

Front 136

During postmortem examination of the dentition of deceased persons forensic dentists record the findings of the examination for comparison purposes later. Forensic dentists use three basic findings in the dentition of the deceased for comparison and identification purposes, list two of the findings.

Back 136

anatomy of teeth
restorations

Front 137

Forensic dentists perform a dental identification when the deceased can not be identified through visual means or person recongintion. List two conditions of the bodies decedents in which dental identification is necessary.

Back 137

burned
decomposed

Front 138

What 2 procedures do forensic dentists use to identify and record human bite mark victims for possible use as evidence in court?

Back 138

photos
impressions of bite marks

Front 139

Medical examiner and coroner systems in the US have available five possible means of identification of the deceased. Which one is considered the most reliable when visual means or personal recognition is not possible?

Back 139

dental identification

Front 140

3 types of mass-disasters

Back 140

NATURAL (Earthquakes, Tornadoes, Hurricanes, Floods)
ACCIDENTAL (Transportation accidents, fires, mining accidents)
CRIMINAL DISASTERS (Serial killers)

Front 141

Reed-Sternberg cells associated with:

Back 141

Hodgkin's lymphoma

Front 142

Matching: ALL, CLL, AML, CML with
-Children
-elderly adult
-3rd to 4th decades
-broad age range

Back 142

ALL - children
CLL - elderly adult
AML - broad age range
CML - 3rd to 4th decades

Front 143

Most common intrinsic stain of all teeth

Back 143

fluorisis

Front 144

List three predisposing conditions that are known to lead to development of secondary osteosarcoma

Back 144

fibrous dysplasia
paget's disease
ionizing radiation

Front 145

Describe the tx protocol for osteosarcoma

Back 145

Neoadjuvant chemo and surgical removal

Front 146

A reactive hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue in response to local irritation or trauma is called:

Back 146

irritation fibroma

Front 147

list the 2 UNIQUE histopathologic features of lateral periodontal cyst

Back 147

mural plaques & clear cells

Front 148

A well-defined, homogenous, area of increased radiopacity with an unknown etiology, occurring central in bone is:

Back 148

idiopathic osteosclerosis

Front 149

Non-gonnococcal urethritis, arthritis, conjunctivitis and a high male predilection are found in which disease?

Back 149

Reiter's syndrome

Front 150

What is Raynaud's phenomenon?

Back 150

vasoconstrictive event of the extremities, the "r" in CREST syndrome

Front 151

Which lab test is positive in CREST syndrome and not in Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia when you are attempting to differentiate the telangiectasis of CREST from HHT?

Back 151

anti-centromere antibodies

Front 152

The most common cause of death in long standing systemic lupus is related to:

Back 152

renal failure

Front 153

In a pt scheduled for radiation therapy for a head and neck cancer, when is the IDEAL time to do dental tx?

Back 153

3 weeks before beginning therapy

Front 154

How long following therapy does chemo and radiation induced mucositis resolve?

Back 154

2-3 weeks

Front 155

Which endocrine disorder causes hyperpigmentation of skin?

Back 155

Addison's Disease

Front 156

Ground Glass RO: list 2

Back 156

Fibrous Dysplasia
Hyperparathyroidism

Front 157

Lesions are hypervascular in young patients – hemostasis concerns. Lesions become avascular with age, leaving bone more susceptible to infection. Malignant transformation occurs in up to 1%, only in polyostotic type. Rapid enlargement or pain suggest this possibility

Back 157

Fibrous Dysplasia

Front 158

Cotton Wool RO: list 3

Back 158

Cemento-osseous dysplasia
Paget's disease of bone
Gardner Syndrome
Gigantiform Cementoma

Front 159

Sunburst RO:list 2

Back 159

Osteosarcoma
Intraosseous Hemangioma

Front 160

Onion Skin: list 2

Back 160

Proliferative periostitis
Ewing's Sarcoma
Langerhans Cell Disease

Front 161

Three histologic features of OKC.

Back 161

uniformly thin (~6 layers)
devoid of rete pegs
prominent basal cell layer