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78 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
(V.4-U.1)
1. Organisms that cause infection and disease are called |
Pathogens
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(V.4-U.1)
2. Which tem is used to describe the host's abiity to develop a tolerance for the invading organism |
Commensalism
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(V.4-U.1)
3. which term is used to describe the measurement of the pathogenicity or ability of the organism to invade host tissues, withstand defenses and cause infection? |
Virulence
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(V.4-U.1)
4. Infectious agents which are primitive one-celled , plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly are called |
bacteria
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(V.4-U.1)
5. The classifcation of organisms responsible for the disease Rocky Mountain fever is |
Rickettsaie
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(V.4-U.1)
6. The classification of organisms known to cause the disease malaria is called |
Sporozoa
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(V.4-U.1)
7. Which infectious agent is considered parasitic |
helminths
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(V.4-U.1)
8. What orgnism harbors or allows an agent to grow and reproduce |
Host
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(V.4-U.1)
9. The stage of infection when systemic and localized symptoms appear is called |
Illness
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(V.4-U.1)
Hepatitis is best defined as inflammation of the |
Liver
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(V.4-U.1)
What communcable diseases are readily transmitted by casual contact and are difficult to control or prevent |
Respiratory
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(V.4-U.1)
12. The Air Force uses the Enzyme-Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay(ELISA) and Western Blot tests to detect |
The HIV antibodies
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(V.4-U.1)
13 Report communicable diseases to which one of the following offices? |
Public Health
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(V.4-U.1)
14. Which one of the following offices is resonsible for preparing a list of reportable diseases? |
Public Health
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(V.4-U.1)
15. A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by |
completing an AF form 570 "Notification of Patient's Medical Status"
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(V.4-U.1)
16. Which medical term means the freedom of infection? |
Asepsis
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(V.4-U.1)
17. Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all microorganisms? |
Surgecial Asepsis
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(V.4-U.1)
18. Which substance is used to reduce the number of microorganisms on living tissue? |
D???????
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(V.4-U.1)
19. Medical Asepstic handwashing is done to |
protect patiens, co-workers and self
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(V.4-U.1)
20. Surgical aseptic handwashing is done to prevent infecting |
Patients
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(V.4-U.1)
21. Why were transmission-based precautions developed by the Centers for Disease Control? |
Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organisms known method of production
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(V.4-U.1)
22. Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaurtion? |
Enteric
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(V.4-U.1)
23. Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored negative air pressure? |
Airborne
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(V.4-U.1)
24. Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in which of the following types of isolation? |
Reverse
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(V.4-U.1)
25. What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department |
Put a gown, mask and gloves on the patient alert personnel transport
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(V.4-U.1)
26. Which guideline should you fllow when providing postmortem care to a patient who was in isolation? |
Use the same precauations that you used when the patient was alive
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(V.4-U.1)
27. An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation is the |
isolation cart
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(V.4-U.1)
28. When should gloves rather than non-sterile gloves be worn when working with a patient in isolation? |
When doing a sterile procedure
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(V.4-U.1)
29. Which sterilization classification refers to instruments or objects introduced directyl into the bloodstream? |
Critical
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(V.4-U.1)
30. Which sterilization classification is applied to equipment used to perform a fiberoptic endescope? |
Semicritical
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31. What is the first step when preparing objects fo sterilization |
Cleaning
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(V.4-U.1)
32. High-level disenfection will destroy all of the following except |
spores
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(V.4-U.1)
33. Under the time related (traditional) method, which locally sterilized package would have a shelf life of 6 months? |
Items in "peel-packed" wrapper
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(V.4-U.1)
34. What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method? |
When packaging integrity is compromised
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(V.4-U.1)
35. Which method of sterilization is preferable for items that are delicate? |
Ethylene Oxide
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(V.4-U.2)
36. For what type of patients are rectal temperatures contraindicated? |
Cardiac
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(V.4-U.2)
37. When talking the rectal temperature of an adult patient, how far in the rectum should the thermometer be inserted? |
1.0 inch
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(V.4-U.2)
38. Which pulse point persists when stroke volume is low? |
Carotid
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(V.4-U.2)
39. What is the anatomical location of the apex of the heart, which is used for ausculating the apical pulse? |
Left side of the body, fourth or fifth intercostal space, micclavicular line.
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(V.4-U.2)
40. Which term is used to define difficult or painful breathing? |
Dyspnea
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(V.4-U.2)
41. Slow or irregular shallow respiration called hypoventilation can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, which can result in a condition called |
Respiratory Acidosis
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(V.4-U.2)
42. Rapid, deep breathing, referred to as hyperventilation, depletes the carbon dioxide level in the blood and can result in a condition called |
Respiratory Alkilosis
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(V.4-U.2)
43. Which breathing pattern is characterized by an increase in both depth and rate of respiration and is associated with metabolic acidosis and renal failure? |
Kussmauls
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(V.4-U.2)
44. Which sign, associated with the respiratory system , wold be an indication of pulmonary edema? |
Thick, green, purulent sputum
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(V.4-U.2)
45. When performing a health history, which factor would you suspect did not contribute to a patient's hypertension? |
Regular exercise
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(V.4-U.2)
46. Which blood pressure reading would be noticeable if a patient has suffered trauma to the head? |
Decreasing systolic, rising diastolic
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(V.4-U.2)
47. What is another term for orthostatic hypotension? |
Postural Hypotension
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(V.4-U.2)
48. Neurological checks should be performed on a patient with suspected |
increased intracranial pressure
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(V.4-U.2)
49. A pulse oximetry machine can give false high reading when a patient being tested is suffering from |
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
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(V.4-U.2)
50. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygenation saturations fall below |
80 percent
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(V.4-U.2)
51. The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs during normal breathing is called |
tidal volume
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(V.4-U.2)
52. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the predicted FEV1 or FVC? |
80
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(V.4-U.2)
53. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the FEV/FVC ratio? |
70
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(V.4-U.2)
54. Before administering the pulmonary function test, ensure the patient has not |
eaten within the past hour
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(V.4-U.2)
55. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are |
2;3
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(V.4-U.2)
56. Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart musce initiate? |
Sinoatrial (SA) node
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(V.4-U.2)
57. Where do the electrical impulses terminate within the heart? |
Purkinje fibers
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(V.4-U.2)
58. Where is the Purkinje fiber networkd the most elaborate? |
left ventricle
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(V.4-U.2)
59. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electroardiogram tracing are called? |
artifacts
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(V.4-U.2)
60. What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings? |
Arrythmia
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(V.4-U.2)
61. When you do an electocardiogram, where do you place the V2 chest lead on the individual |
Left side of sternum, fourth intercostas space
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62. If you are performing an electocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the
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USAF Central electrocardiographic library
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(V.4-U.2)
63. When converting pounds to kilograms, one kilogram is equal to how many pounds? |
2.2 lbs
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(V.4-U.2)
64. When taking an individual's measurements, standing height is recorded to the nearest |
quarter inch
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(V.4-U.2)
65. A sitting height measurement is required on all |
flying training physicals
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(V.4-U.2)
66. An individual's sitting height measurement si recorded to the nearest |
quarter inch
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(V.4-U.2)
67. An individual's weight measurement is recorded to the nearest |
quarter pound
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(V.4-U.2)
68. What is a girth measuremtent? |
Distance around a body part
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(V.4-U.2)
69. Which symbol is used when recording a pulse on SF511, vital record? |
O
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(V.4-U.2)
70. Which symbol is used when recoding a temperature on SF511, vital sign record? |
. solid filled in dot
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(V.4-U.3)
71. When performing a urine test, a sample with a specific gravity of 1.030 suggests that a patient is experiencing |
Dehydration
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(V.4-U.3)
72. How much fecal material is required to send to laboratory for a stool specimen? |
2 tablespoons
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(V.4-U.3)
73. Which site is not recommended for sking puncture to obtain a blood sample? |
Elbow
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(V.4-U.3)
74. During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away? |
It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test result
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(V.4-U.3)
75. The normal fasting blood glucose level is |
70 to 115 mg/dl
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(V.4-U.3)
76 What is the purpose of perfoming th Allen Test before performing an arterial blood gas (ABG) test? |
Ensure the ulnar artery can maintain blood supply to the hand
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(V.4-U.3)
77. What should you instruct a patient to do before coughing up a sputum culture? |
Rinse mouth with hot water
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(V.4-U.3)
78. The rapid strep test can only detect the presence of |
"Group A" strep
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