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142 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the:
A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) period of invasion E) all of the choices are correct |
C) incubation period
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The reticuloendothelial system:
A) is a support network of connective tissue fibers B) originates in the cellular basal lamina C) provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs D) is heavily populated with macrophages E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Drug susceptibility testing:
A) determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics B) determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics C) determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics D) determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient E) none of the choices are correct |
B) determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics
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The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called:
A) ribosomal RNA B) messenger RNA C) transfer RNA D) primer RNA E) ribozymes |
C) transfer RNA
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Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of:
A) adhesive factors B) exotoxins C) hemolysins D) antiphagocytic factors E) exoenzymes |
E) exoenzymes
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The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the:
A) skin B) respiratory tract C) digestive tract D) urinary tract E) eyes |
B) respiratory tract
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All of the following pertain to platelets except:
A) contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide B) also called thrombocytes C) originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes D) function in blood clotting and inflammation E) they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells |
A) contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
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Semiconservative replication refers to:
A) each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar B) a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine C) one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction D) an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule E) none of the choices are correct |
D) an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
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The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at a peak activity is:
A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) period of invasion E) all of the choices are correct |
D) period of invasion
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An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a:
A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source |
C) vector
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Eucaryotic chromosomes differ from procaryotic chromosomes because only eucaryotes have:
A) histone proteins B) chromosomes in a nucleus C) several to many chromosomes D) elongated, not circular, chromosomes E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Sideeffects that occur in patient tissues while they are on anti microbic drugs include all the following except:
A) development of resistance to the drug B) hepatotoxicity C) nephrotoxicity D) diarrhea E) deafness |
A) development of resistance to the drug
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Resident flora are found in/on the:
A) skin B) mouth C) nasal passages D) large intestine E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires:
A) typically a protein antigen B) binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on a macrophage C) binding of T cell to a site on the antigen D) interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several other vitamins is the:
A) skin B) mouth C) large intestine D) vagina E) nasal passages |
C) large intestine
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Plasma cells:
A) function in cell-mediated immunity B) are derived from T-lymphocytes C) function in blood clotting D) produce and secrete antibodies E) all of the choices are correct |
D) produce and secrete antibodies
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Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A) gentamicin B) vancomycin C) cephalosporins D) penicillins E) clavamox |
A) gentamicin
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RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA:
A) has ribose B) has uracil C) is typically one strand of nucleotides D) does not have thymine E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Aminoglycosides:
A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis D) damage cell membranes E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules |
C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
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This gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes:
A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils |
B) thymus
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The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
C) neutrophils
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The enzymes that help pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle are:
A) DNA ligases B) DNA polymerases C) DNA helicases D) DNA gyrases E) primases |
D) DNA gyrases
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The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed:
A) syndrome B) symptom C) sign D) pathology E) inflammation |
B) symptom
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All of the following are events of early inflammation except:
A) macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis B) chemical mediators and cytokines are released C) brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation D) exudate and pus can accumulate E) capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema |
A) macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis
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Superantigens are:
A) body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign B) cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members C) bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens D) those that evoke allergic reactions E) none of the choices are correct |
C) bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens
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Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include:
A) chromosomes B) plasmids C) mitochondrial DNA D) chloroplast DNA E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires:
A) repressor alone bound to operator B) substrate bound to repressor C) substrate bound to promoter D) corespressor and repressor binding to operator E) none of the choices are correct |
B) substrate bound to repressor
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Sulfonamides:
A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis D) damage cell membranes E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules |
B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
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Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina?
A) Lactobacillus B) Streptococcus C) Haemophilus D) Escherichia E) Mycobacterium |
A) Lactobacillus
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The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is:
A) lactic acid B) hydrochloric acid C) lysozyme D) histamine E) bile |
C) lysozyme
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Class II MHC genes code for:
A) certain secreted complement components B) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes C) all HLA antigens D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells E) all of the choices are correct |
D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells
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The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the:
A) operator B) structural locus C) regulator D) promoter E) none of the choices are correct |
C) regulator
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Virulence factors include all the following except:
A) capsules B) ribosomes C) exoenzymes D) endotoxin E) exotoxin |
B) ribosomes
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A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is:
A) epidemic B) endemic C) pandemic D) sporadic E) chronic |
B) endemic
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The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in:
A) bacterial conjugation B) transformation C) generalized transduction D) specialized transduction E) all of the choices are correct |
D) specialized transduction
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Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?
A) aminoglycosides B) tetracyclines C) erythromycin D) trimethroprim E) chloramphenicol |
D) trimethroprim
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Infection occurs when:
A) contaminants are present on the skin B) a person swallows microbes in/on food C) a person inhales microbes in the air D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues E) all of the choices are correct |
D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
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Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are:
A) in food B) the patient's own normal flora C) on fomites D) in the air E) transmitted form one person to another |
B) the patient's own normal flora
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The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is:
A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM |
C) IgE
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Diapedesis is the:
A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues |
E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
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The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them are:
A) DNA ligases B) DNA polymerases C) DNA helicases D) DNA gyrases E) primases |
B) DNA polymerases
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Lymphocytes:
A) possess MHC antigens for recognizing self B) have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens C) gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self D) develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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All of the following pertain to interferon except:
A) protein B) produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells C) includes alpha, beta, and gamma types D) inhibit viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression E) increase capillary permeability and vasodilation |
E) increase capillary permeability and vasodilation
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The drug that can cause aplastic anemic, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is:
A) chloramphenicol B) clindamycin C) ciprofloxacin D) bacitracin E) gentamicin |
A) chloramphenicol
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An example of artificial passive immunity would be:
A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E) none o the choices are correct |
C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
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The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to:
A) each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar B) a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine C) one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction D) an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule E) none of the choices are correct |
C) one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
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Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are:
A) fomites B) aerosols C) mechanical vectors D) droplet nuclei E) biological vectors |
E) biological vectors
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Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a:
A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source |
B) carrier
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The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
B) eosinophils
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Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed:
A) antigenic determinant B) hapten C) antigen binding site D) variable region E) none of the choices are correct |
B) hapten
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The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora:
A) before birth, in uterine B) during, and immediately after birth C) when a child first goes to school D) when an infant gets its first infectious disease E) during puberty |
B) during, and immediately after birth
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The drug used for several protozoan infections is:
A) nystatin B) griseofulvin C) amphotericin B D) sulfa drugs E) metronidazole |
E) metronidazole
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These lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells:
A) helper T cells B) suppressor T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) delayed hypersensitivity T cells E) natural killer (NK) cells |
E) natural killer (NK) cells
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The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the:
A) variable region B) joining region C) constant region D) light region E) hinge region |
A) variable region
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Helper T cells:
A) secrete antibodies B) function in allergic reactions C) directly destroy target cells D) suppress immune reactions E) activate B cells and other T cells |
E) activate B cells and other T cells
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The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is:
A) chloramphenicol B) clindamycin C) ciprofloxacin D) bacitracin E) gentamicin |
B) clindamycin
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An example of artificial active immunity would be:
A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E) none of the choices are correct |
B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox
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Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have:
A) a beta-lactam ring B) resistance to the action of penicillinase C) a semisynthetic nature D) an expanded spectrum of activity E) all of the choices are correct |
A) a beta-lactam ring
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The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are:
A) complement B) interferons C) leukotrines D) pyrogens E) lysozymes |
D) pyrogens
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The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an:
A) antigenic determinant B) hapten C) antigen binding site D) variable region E) none of the choices are correct |
A) antigenic determinant
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All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except:
A) Escherichia B) Staphylococcus C) Corynebacterium D) Micrococcus E) Mycobacterium |
A) Escherichia
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The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as:
A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils |
D) GALT
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Lymphocyte maturation involves:
A) hormonal signals that initiate development B) B cells maturing in bone marrow sites C) T cells maturing in the thymus D) release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is:
A) direct B) fomite C) vehicle D) droplet nuclei E) aerosols |
C) vehicle
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The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed:
A) syndrome B) symptom C) sign D) pathology E) inflammation |
C) sign
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All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except:
A) have a beta-lactam ring B) greater resistance to beta-lactamases C) newer generations have activity against gram negatives D) many administered by injection not orally E) are synthetic drugs |
E) are synthetic drugs
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Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of:
A) toxemia B) inflammation C) sequelae D) a syndrome E) latency |
B) inflammation
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Properties of effective antigens include all the following except:
A) foreign to the immune system B) molecular complexity C) large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000 D) large polymers made up of repeating subunits E) cells or large, complex molecules |
D) large polymers made up of repeating subunits
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The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the:
A) primer B) Okazaki fragment C) template D) rolling circle E) replication fork |
E) replication fork
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Penicillins and cephalosporins:
A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis D) damage cell membranes E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules |
E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
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This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis:
A) penicillin G B) vancomycin C) aminoglycosides D) synercid E) isoniazid |
E) isoniazid
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The most significant cells in graft rejection are:
A) helper T cells B) supressor T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) delayed hypersensitivity T cells E) natural killer (NK) cells |
C) cytotoxic T cells
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All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except:
A) form pairs by hydrogen bonding B) guanine pairs with uracil C) adenine pairs with thymine D) cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines E) allows variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information |
B) guanine pairs with uracil
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Cytotoxic T cells:
A) are activated by APC-bound antigen B) lack specificity for antigen C) secrete lymphotoxins and perforins that damage target cells D) secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells E) all of the choices are correct |
C) secrete lymphotoxins and perforins that damage target cells
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Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called:
A) antibiotics B) narrow-spectrum drugs C) semisynthetic drugs D) synthetic drugs E) broad-spectrum drugs |
A) antibiotics
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These cells carry CD8 receptors and function to inhibit B cells and other T cells:
A) helper T cells B) suppressor T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) delayed hypersensitivity T cells E) natural killer (NK) cells |
B) suppressor T cells
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The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except:
A) redness B) warmth C) swelling D) pain E) chills |
E) chills
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This molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene on the DNA template strand:
A) ribosomal RNA B) messenger RNA C) transfer RNA D) primer RNA E) ribozymes |
B) messenger RNA
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Resident flora of the intestines include:
A) Streptococcus B) Bacteroides C) Staphylococcus D) Haemophilus E) all of the choices are correct |
B) Bacteroides
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The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called:
A) histones B) amino acids C) nucleotides D) mRNA E) polymerases |
C) nucleotides
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Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include:
A) low toxicity for human tissues B) high toxicity against microbial cells C) do not cause serious side effects in humans D) stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Salvarsan was:
A) discovered in the mid-1900's B) used to treat syphilis C) formulated from the red dye prontosil D) first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum E) discovered by Robert Koch |
B) used to treat syphilis
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Antibiotics are derived from all the following except:
A) Penicillium B) Bacillus C) Staphylococcus D) Streptomyces E) Cephalosporium |
C) Staphylococcus
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The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause:
A) bacterial chromosomal mutations B) synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure C) prevention of drug entry into the cell D) alteration of drug receptors on cell targets E) all of the choices are correct |
C) prevention of drug entry into the cell
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The least numerous of all white blood cells, that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
A) basophils
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Gram negative rods are often treated with:
A) penicillin G B) vancomycin C) aminoglycosides D) synercid E) isoniazid |
C) aminoglycosides
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Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed:
A) antibiotics B) narrow-spectrum drugs C) semisynthetic drugs D) synthetic drugs E) broad-spectrum drugs |
E) broad-spectrum drugs
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A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a:
A) point mutation B) silent mutation C) back mutation D) missense mutation E) nonsense mutation |
E) nonsense mutation
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The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the:
A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source |
E) source
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The major histocompatibility complex is:
A) glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells except red blood cells B) a series of genes that code for MHC cell receptors C) found on the third chromosome D) located in the thymus gland E) all of the choices are correct |
B) a series of genes that code for MHC cell receptors
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These structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck:
A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils |
A) lymph nodes
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Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat ______ infections.
A) bacterial B) fungal C) protozoan D) helminthic E) virus |
B) fungal
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All infectious diseases:
A) are contagious B) only occur in humans C) are caused by microorganisms or their products D) are caused by vectors E) involve viruses as the pathogen |
C) are caused by microorganisms or their products
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An organism's genotype includes all the following except:
A) is inherited B) are structural genes coding for proteins C) are genes coding for RNA D) are regulatory genes controlling gene expression E) are the expressed traits governed by the genes |
E) are the expressed traits governed by the genes
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All of the following are characteristics of IgM except:
A) has 10 antigen binding sites B) contains a central J chain C) is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell D) is an opsonin E) is a dimer |
E) is a dimer
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Comprise 3-7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
D) monocytes
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All of the following pertain to transcription except:
A) occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm B) occurs before translation C) requires RNA polymerase D) requires a template DNA strand E) is a process of protein synthesis |
A) occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm
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The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called;
A) antibodies B) sensitized T cells C) activated macrophages D) plasma cells E) Bursa cells |
D) plasma cells
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The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the:
A) mortality rate B) morbidity rate C) incidence rate D) prevalence rate E) epidemic rate |
C) incidence rate
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Which is not terminology used for resident flora:
A) pathogenic flora B) normal flora C) indigenous flora D) normal microflora E) all of the choices are correct |
A) pathogenic flora
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Monoclonal antibodies:
A) originate from a single B cell clone B) have a single specificity for antigen C) are secreted by hybridomas D) are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is:
A) pathology B) clinical microbiology C) medicine D) immunology E) epidemiology |
E) epidemiology
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Bacterial conjugation involves:
A) bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell B) a donor cell with a plasmid for a pilus C) naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell D) new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells E) none of the choices are correct |
B) a donor cell with a plasmid for a pilus
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The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are:
A) IgM only B) IgG only C) IgD only D) IgM and IgG E) IgE and IgA |
C) IgD only
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The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is;
A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM |
D) IgG
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A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?
A) Kirby-Bauer B) antibiogram C) E-test D) MIC E) therapeutic index (TI) |
D) MIC
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The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is:
A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM |
A) IgA
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Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?
A) inflammatory response B) phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils C) interferon D) T cell and B cell responses E) anatomical barriers in the body |
D) T cell and B cell responses
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Comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBC's, and are the cells that function in the body's immune system:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes |
E) lymphocytes
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Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat:
A) influenza A virus B) HIV C) herpes zoster virus D) respiratory syncytial virus E) hepatitis C virus |
B) HIV
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This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora:
A) skin B) respiratory tract C) digestive tract D) urinary tract E) eyes |
A) skin
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The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is:
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention B) World Health Organization C) National Institutes of Health D) United States Department of Agriculture E) Infection Control Committee |
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
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Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?
A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response |
A) neutralization
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Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all:
A) vasoactive mediators B) mediators of B cell activity C) mediators of T cell activity D) mediators that increase chemotaxis E) fever inducers |
A) vasoactive mediators
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The membrane attack stage of the complements cascade involves:
A) initiation of the cascade B) production of inflammatory cytokines C) a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes D) cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b E) C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane |
C) a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes
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Which of the following lymphoid organs and tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?
A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils |
C) spleen
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These white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections:
A) monocytes B) eosinophils C) basophils D) neutrophils E) lymphocytes |
B) eosinophils
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The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except:
A) two identical heavy polypeptide chains B) two identical light polypeptide chains C) disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains D) four antigen binding sites E) a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain |
D) four antigen binding sites
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The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the:
A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source |
D) reservoir
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Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause:
A) nephrotoxicity B) superinfections C) allergic reactions D) drug toxicity E) all of the choices are correct |
B) superinfections
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Plasma cells:
A) secrete antibodies B) function in allergic reactions C) directly destroy target cells D) suppress immune reactions E) activate B cells and other T cells |
A) secrete antibodies
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Components of the first line of defense include all the following except:
A) the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin B) nasal hairs C) flushing action of tears and blinking D) flushing action in urine E) phagocytic white blood cells |
E) phagocytic white blood cells
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The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where:
A) immune responses to antigen occur B) stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes C) antigen is filtered from the blood D) antigen is filtered from tissue fluid E) T lymphocytes complete maturation |
B) stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes
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Class I MHC genes code for:
A) certain secreted complement components B) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes C) all HLA antigens D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells E) all of the choices are correct |
B) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes
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Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
A) IgM only B) IgG only C) IgD only D) IgM and IgG E) IgE and IgA |
D) IgM and IgG
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Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by:
A) repressor alone bound to operator B) substrate bound to repressor C) substrate bound to promoter D) corepressor and repressor binding to operator E) none of the choices are correct |
D) corepressor and repressor binding to operator
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An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that:
A) blocks penetration B) blocks transcription and translation C) inhibits DNA synthesis D) blocks maturation E) bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane |
C) inhibits DNA synthesis
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When opsonization accompanies phagocytosis, this process involves:
A) formation of a phagolysosome B) myeloperoxidase giving rise to OCl- C) antibodies or complement coating the microbial cell surface D) the liberation of lysozyme E) neutrophils but not macrophages |
C) antibodies or complement coating the microbial cell surface
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Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions:
A) are the result of genetic expression B) function in recognition of self molecules C) receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system D) aid in cellular development E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is:
A) synercid B) penicillinase C) aztreonam D) clavulanic acid E) imipenem |
D) clavulanic acid
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Plasma:
A) is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended B) is mostly water C) contains albumin and globulins D) contains fibrinogen E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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The duplication of a cell's DNA is called:
A) mitosis B) replication C) transcription D) translation E) mutation |
B) replication
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An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a:
A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source |
A) fomite
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When would Koch's Postulates be utilized:
A) determination of the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab B) development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab C) determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab D) formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab E) whenever he scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem |
C) determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab
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The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the:
A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) period of invasion E) all of the choices are correct |
A) prodromal stage
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A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the:
A) Kirby-Bauer B) antibiogram C) E-test D) MIC E) therapeutic index (TI) |
E) therapeutic index (TI)
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The anti fungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is:
A) nystatin B) griseofulvin C) amphotericin B D) sulfa drugs E) metronidazole |
C) amphotericin B
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Antimicrobics that are macrolides:
A) disrupt cell membrane function B) include tetracyclines C) include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin D) are very narrow-spectrum drugs E) are hepatotoxic |
C) include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin
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The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are:
A) fomites B) aerosols C) mechanical vectors D) droplet nuclei E) biological vectors |
D) droplet nuclei
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Hemopoiesis is the:
A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues |
C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
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Nonspecific chemical defenses include:
A) lysozyme B) lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat C) skin's acidic pH and fatty acids D) stomach hydrochloric acid E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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An example of natural passive immunity would be:
A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E) none of the choices are correct |
D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta
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