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170 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
Functions of endocrine system
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- single gland may produce multiple hormones
- i.e. anteriori pituitary - single hormone may be made by more than one gland - somatostatin - a hormone may have more than 1 target and response - testosterone - some organs may be exclusively hormonal - Anterior pituitary - Some organs produce hormones and have other functions - testes roduce testosterone and sperm |
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___ endocrine system releases _________ while the ___ nervous system releases _________
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Slow; hormones
Fast; neurotransmitters |
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Secondary endocrine organ
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secretion of hormones is secondary to other tasks
include heart, liver, stomach, small intestine, kidney and skin |
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Examples of primary endocrine organs
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hypothalamus, pituitary gland and pineal gland
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Posterior pituitary secretes what two peptide hormones
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- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- oxytocin |
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Function of ADH and oxytocin
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- regulates water reabsorption by kidneys
- oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and milk letdown in breasts |
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Anterior pituitary secretes what type of hormones?
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tropic hormones
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Function of tropic hormones
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regulate secretion of other hormones
inhibits and stimulates release of other hormones |
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Feedback loops
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regulate pathways of hormone production i hypothalamus and pituitary gland
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Inhibition of hypothalamus tropic hormones by the anterior pituitary gland is known as _________
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short loop negative feedback
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long loop negative feedback
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Hormone secreted by tropic hormone feeds back to hypothalamus, inhibiting the secretion of the tropic hormone, which limits its own secretion
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What hormone does the pineal gland secrete?
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melatonin
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Role of melatonin
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Regulates circadian rhythm
Sleep-inducing agent Enhances immune function Exerts a suppressive effect on reproductive function by interfering with activity of hormones |
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Hormones secreted by thyroid gland
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- tetraiodothyronine (T4)
- triiodothyronine (T3) - calcitonin |
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Function of thyroid hormones
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regulate body's metabolic rate and are necessary for normal growth and development
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Role of calcitonin
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regulate calcium levels in blood
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Parathyroid gland hormone
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PTH - parathyroid hormone
- regulates calcium levels in blood |
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Primary Endocrine organs
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• Pineal gland
• Thyroid gland and parathyroid glands • Thymus • Adrenal glands • Pancreas • Gonads • Hypothalamus • Pituitary gland |
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All hormones from anterior pituitary are tropic, except ______
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Prolactin
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T/F
Most hormones are hydrophobic |
False; hydrophilic
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Where are the receptors for hydrophilic hormones located?
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On the surface
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Peptides and catecholamines are what type of hormones?
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Hydrophilic
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Steroids and thyroid hormones are what type of hormones
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Hydrophobic
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Growth hormone
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Major stimulator for postnatal growth via stimulation cell division & protein synthesis
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How does GH promote growth?
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- stimulates protein synthesis
- increases cell size (hypertrophy) - stimulates cell division, which increases cell number (hyperplasia) |
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Metabolic actions supporting growth include:
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- Inhibit glucose uptake into adipose tissue and skeletal muscle
- Stimulate lipolysis in adipose tissue - Stimulate gluconeogenesis in liver - Increase uptake of amino acids into cell |
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factors leading to release of growth hormone releasing hormone
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- Decreases in glucose
- Decreases in fatty acids - Increases in amino acids - Sleep |
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Bone growth
- Increase in width |
Osteoblasts lay down new bone on outer surface
Osteoclasts resorb bone on inner cavity |
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Bone growth
- Increase in length |
Osteoblasts lay down new bone at epiphyseal plates
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What type of cells synthesize thyroid hormones?
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Follicular cells
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Where are thyroid hormones stored prior to secretion?
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colloid
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What type of cell secretes calcitonin?
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Parafollicular cells of thyroid
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Metabolism is regulated by what processes
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• Altering rate of transcription & protein synthesis
• ↑ rate of O2 consumption at rest ↑ Basal metabolic rate (BMR) • ↑ rate of Na+/K+ pump • “permit” many tissues¬ to readily respond to Epi |
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How does T3 hormone stimulate cellular respiration
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- Stimulates active transport of Na+/K+ pump
- Lower cellular ATP concentration burns off energy |
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What is the most important hormone in control of plasma Ca++ concentration?
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Parathyroid hormone
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T/F
Vitamin D is derived from cholesterol |
True
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How is Vitamin D transformed into a hormone?
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- adding H to carbon 25 in liver
- PTH adds OH to carbon 1 in kidneys |
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What is the active form of vitamin D?
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1,25-OH- vitamin D3
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T/F
In excess, vitamin D is stored in the skin cells. |
False; adipose tissue
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Roles of Ca++
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- Neuromuscular excitability
- Excitation and contractibility in cardiac and smooth - Stimulus for secretion - Maintains tight junctions bw cells - blood clotting factor in clotting cascade - Structural matrix in bones and teeth - ICF Ca++ = intrecellular messenger |
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What primary endocrine organ secrets hormone thymosin?
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Thymus
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All hormones of the hypothalamus that are affected by circadian rhythm and secreted in the _______________ _______
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suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)
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How can seasonal affective disorder be treated?
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Light box therapy
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Adrenocorticoids
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Hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex
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3 types of adrenocorticoid hormones
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1. aldosterone (Mineralocorticoids)
2. cortisol (Glucocorticoids) 3. androgens (Sex hormones) |
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3 hormones secreted by Adrenal medulla
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1. 80% epinephrine
2. 20% norepinephrine 3. >1% dopamine |
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The secretory cells of the adrenal medulla are known as ________
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Chromaffin cells
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Function of mineralocorticoids
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regulates sodium and potassium levels
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Stress control pathway
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Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) >>> Adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion
(ACTH) >>> Cortisol secretion |
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Cushing's syndrome
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excess cortisol secretion, which results in not enough release of CRH and ACTH into blood
lethargy, buffalo hump, round, red cheeks, high bp |
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Addison's disease
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autoimmune destruction of all zones
insufficient cortisol and decreased aldosterone levels |
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Predominant sex hormones in males
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androgens, testosterone and androstenedione
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Major sex hormones in females
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estradiol and progesterone
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Secondary endocrine organs
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heart
kidneys GI tract Liver (skin, liver, kidney necessary for activation of 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D3) |
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hormone secreted by heart
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atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
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hormone secreted by kidneys
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Erythropoietin (EPO)
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hormoneS secreted by GI tract
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- Cholecystokinin
- Secretin - Gastrin |
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hormone secreted by liver
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Insulin-like growth factors (somatomedins) (IGFs)
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Insulin vs. glucagon is an example of what type of hormone interaction?
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Antagonistic
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Additive hormone interactions
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A + B = AB
when two hormones produce the same type of response in the body |
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Synergistic hormone interactions
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A + B = AB+
net effect is greater than the sum of individual effects basically, they enhance each other |
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Permissive hormone interactions
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A needs B
i.e. epinephrine binds to ß adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle cells of bronchioles, causing airway to dilate |
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Blood glucose levels
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Normal - 70-100 g/dL
Hyperglycemia - glucose>140 mg/dL Hypoglycemia - glucose < 60 mg/dL |
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T/F
Blood glucose levels are maintained only by insulin. |
False; insulin and glucagon
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Insulin is a hormone of _________ state, while glucagon is ___________ state
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absorptive state (feasting)
post absorptive state (fasting) |
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Why does the liver release glucose?
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bc presence of glucose 6 phosphatase
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Exocrine pancreas is made up of what type of cells and what are their functions
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Acinar and duct
- secrete fluid and enzymes into digestive tract |
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Endocrine pancreas is called _______ and is made up of what type of cells. What does each cell secrete?
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Islets of Langerhans
- alpha - secretes glucagon - beta - secretes insulin - delta - secretes somatostatin - f cells |
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What causes alpha cells of the pancreas to secret glucagon?
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decrease in plasma
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T/F
All cells have insulin receptors. |
False; all except RBCs b/c they lack mitochondria
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Actions of glucagon in liver
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↑ Glycogenesis
↑ Gluconeogenesis ↑ Ketone synthesis ↑ Protein breakdown ↓ Glycogen synthesis ↓ Protein synthesis |
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Actions of glucagon in adipose
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↑ Lipolysis
↓ Triglyceride synthesis |
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Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is damage to what type of cells?
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Beta cells
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T/F
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is insulin dependent |
True
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3 acute effects of diabetes mellitus
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- diabetic ketoacidosis
- hyperosmolar nonketotic coma - Hypoglycemic coma |
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Early chronic complications of DM
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Polyuria
Polydipsia Polyphagia |
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What is the result of hyperglycemia in a diabetic?
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Increased free radicals and oxidative stress
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Pathway of Diabetes and Hyperglycemia promotion of microvascalature damage
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Hyperglycemia leads to
↑ Glycosylation and ↑ in advanced glycosylation end-products which leads to microvascalature damage. |
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Effexts of diabetes on microvascalature
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Retinopathy - damage to blood vessels of eye
Nephropathy - damage to idneys Neuropathy - completely changes the was neurons react Delayed wound healing |
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3 phases of wound healing
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1. Inflammation
2. Proliferation 3. Remodeling |
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T/F
75% of amputations started with foot ulcers |
False; 84%
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T/F
Type 2 Diabetes mellitus can be cured in morbidly obese people |
True
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sensory/afferent
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impulses from receptors to CNS
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motor/effector
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impulses from CNS to effector
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associated/interneurons
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located all throughout CNS
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The axon hillock must be reached by the signal as an ______ ________
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action potential
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Leak channels
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- always open
- throughout neuron - responsible for Resting membrane potential |
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ligand gated channels
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- open/close in response to ligand binding
- most densely on dendrites & cell body - synaptic otentials |
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voltage-gated
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- open or close in response to change in membrane potential
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Na+/K+ channels
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- mostly in axon hillock
- active during action potentials |
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Calcium channels
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- located at axon terminal
- release of NT |
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Which of these statements about life span changes are wrong?
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a. Endocrine glands decrease in size
b. Calcitonin level decrease; which decreases the risk of osteoporosis c. Thyomyosin production declines increasing risk of infections d. Insulin Resistance may develop e. ADH levels increase because of slower break down in liver and kidneys |
b. Calcitonin level decrease; which decreases the risk of osteoporosis
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Responsible for the closing of sodium channels during the repolarization phase of an action potential
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a. Activation gates
b. inactivation gates |
b. inactivation gates
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The most prevalent inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain is
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a. GABA
b. Glutamate |
a. GABA
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The preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system emerge from which part of the spinal cord?
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a. Thoracic
b. Lumbar c. Cervical d. A and B e. All of these |
d. a and b
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Writing out your notes instead of typing them would influence what part of the brain the greatest?
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a.Cerebellum
b.Hippocampus c.Thalamus d.Medulla |
b.hippocampus
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Glial Cells (5)
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- Astrocytes
- Ependymal Cells - Microglia - Oligodendrocytes - Schwann Cells |
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What is the most abundant glial cell?
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Astrocytes
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Muliple sclerosis
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myelin destroyed on motor neurons
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Guillain-Barre syndrome
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can't feel sensations or move muscles due to destroyed myelin on sensory and motor neurons
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Resting membrane potential depends on 2 factors:
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1. concentration gradients of ions across PM
2. presence of ion channels in PM |
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Why does resting membrane potential exist?
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More negative charges inside cell
More positive outside |
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hyperpolarization
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change to more negative value
membrane become more polarized |
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depolarization
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change to more positive value
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repolarization
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membrane potential returns to resting membrane potential following depolarization
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t/f
In graded potentials, the strength of stimulus affects the magnitude of the potential |
True
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In action potentials, rapid depolarization is the result of ___________
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dramatic increase in sodium permeability , followed by and increase in movement of Na+ into cell
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What causes repolarization?
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rapid increase in permeability of K+ --- movement of K+ out of the cell to bring membrane potential back to resting levels
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Action potential sequence
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1. Rapid depolarization
2. Repolrization 3. Hyperpolarization (leads to absolute refractory period) |
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What happens after threshold is triggered?
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1.Rapid opening of sodium channels
2. Slow closing of Na+ channels 3. slow opening of K+ channels - 1 msec lag time |
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What would happen if there was no lag time for K+ channels?
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Na+ and K+ channels would negate each other's effects
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⇡ Sodium flow into cell (depolarization) is an example of ___________, while ⇡ in K+ out of cell (repolarization) is an example of _____________
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positive feedback
negative feedback |
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T/F
Action potential from supra threshold causes greater magnitude than that of simply threshold. |
False; same magnitude
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Absolute refractory period
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immediately follows action potential
spans depolarization and most of repolarization Na+ and K+ gates not reset |
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Relative refractory period
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during the very end of repolarization and all of the after-hyperpolarization
action potential possible |
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2 types of synapses
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1. electrical
2. chemical |
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Electrical synapses
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electrical charge freely flows through gap junctions from cell to cell
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Chemical synapses
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NT acts as signal from presynaptic to postsynaptic cell
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LEARN FIG 8.2
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LEARN FIG 8.2
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Examples of electrical synapses
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smooth and cardiac muscle, the brain
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Rapid eye movement is an example of what type of synapse?
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electrical
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Axodendritic synapse (location)
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presynaptic neuron synapse with dendrite of postsynaptic neuron
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Axosomatic syanpse (location)
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presynaptic neuron synapses with cell body of postsynaptic neuron
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Axoaxonic (location)
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presynaptic neuron synapses with axon of postsynaptic neuron
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Response of removal of NT from synaptic cleft
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1. Reuptake
2. degradation 3. Diffusion |
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Ionotropic receptors - fast or slow
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fast b/c NT binds to ion channel and it opens
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Metabotropic receptors - fast or slow
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slo because binding of NT is coupled with G protein which leads to opening of ion channel
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2 types of metabotropic
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direct coupling
secondary messenger system |
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In slow EPSP, what enzyme phosphorylates a protein to close K+ channel
FIG 8.4!! |
protein kinase A
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What type of channels are involved with IPSP
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K+ or Cl- channels
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Temporal summation
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2 or more postsynaptic potentials are generated in rapid succession at same synapse
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Spatial summation
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2 or more postsynaptic potentials originating from diff synapses are generated at same time and overlap
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graded potentials vs. action potentials
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Graded Potentials vs Action Potentials
Magnitude varies with event All or None Magnitude diminishes with distance Does NOT diminish along membrane No refractory Refractory period Can be summed No summation Can be depolarization or hyperpolarization Always depolarized |
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What NT is specific to cholinergic receptors
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ACh
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2 types of cholinergic receptors and receptor caegorizaton
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Nicotinic - ionotropic (fast)
Muscarinic - metabotropic (slow) |
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Receptors for epi and norepi are called __________ receptors
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adrenergic
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Two types of adrenergic receptors
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alpha and beta
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ACh enzyme of degradation
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acetylcholinasterase (AChE)
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__________ is the most widespread NT in the PNS
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ACh
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ACh is ________ in the brain and skeletal muscles but ________ in cardiac muscles
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excitatory
inhibitory |
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Alzheimer's disease
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loss of cognitive and memory function due to degeneration of basal forebrain neurons making ACh
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________ is the most common NT at excitatory synapses in CNS
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Glutamate
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Enzymes for degrading biogenic amines
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MAO (generally)
COMT |
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Cocaine blocks reuptake of _________
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dopamine
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T/F
Norepinephrine is a NT in the CNS only |
False; CNS and PNS
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Function of Serotonin as NT
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regulate mood, behavior appetite sexual function and cerebral circulation
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_______ is the most common inhibitory NT
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GABA
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CCK - Cholecystokinin
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hormone acting as NT that promotes fullness after meals
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Gray matter contains...
White matter contains... |
gray: cell bodies, dendrites, axon terminals
white: axons |
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In the spinal cord, where are the cell bodies of afferent neurons located?
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dorsal root ganglion
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Left brain specializations
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o Logic & Analytical abilities
o Language rules o Stores verbal memories o The interpreter |
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right brain specialization
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o Creativity & Spatial perception
o Stores emotional memories |
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T/F
Sensory and motor pathways cross |
True
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Functions of limbic system
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learning
emotion behavior four f's |
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Components of limbic system
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amygdala
hippocampus fornix cingulate parahipocampal gyri |
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Sensitization
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response ↑ with repeated stimuli
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what type of synapse is modulating?
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axoaxonic
- leads to greater chance of action potential |
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only known monosynaptic reflex
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muscle spindle stretch reflex
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Organ critical to motor coordination
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cerebellum
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Basal nuclei function in....
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feedback
selective movements |
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Huntington's Chorea
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loss of motor coordination due to destruction of pathway from basal nuclei to thalamus
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purpose of sleep
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body and brain rest
enhance memory retention enhance learning immune system function |
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CNS site of induction of slow wave sleek and REM sleep
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Slow wave - forebrain
REM - Pons |
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Organ critical to motor coordination
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cerebellum
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Basal nuclei function in....
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feedback
selective movements |
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Huntington's Chorea
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loss of motor coordination due to destruction of pathway from basal nuclei to thalamus
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purpose of sleep
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body and brain rest
enhance memory retention enhance learning immune system function |
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CNS site of induction of slow wave sleek and REM sleep
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Slow wave - forebrain
REM - Pons |
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T/F
Most visceral organs are innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers |
True
- called dual innervation |
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Fight or flight reactions
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Heart rate ↑
Bronchioles dilate Glucose concentration ↑ GI tract shots down |
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