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500 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The tool control program is based on what
inventory concept? |
Instant inventory concept.
|
|
What officer is responsible for coordinating
the tool control program? |
Material Control officer.
|
|
What division is responsible for monitoring
the tool control program? |
Quality Assurance.
|
|
Tools of poor quality are reported to what
office? |
Fleet Material Support Office.
|
|
Who has the overall responsibility for control
of all tool containers and their keys? |
Work center supervisor.
|
|
What officer must be notified that a missing
tool cannot be found? |
Maintenance Officer (MO).
|
|
What two manuals outline the
chain-of-command responsibilities in regards to occupational safety? |
OPNAVINST 5100.19 and OPNAVINST 5100.23.
|
|
What is the primary source of information
involving the use of hazardous materials? |
Material Safety Data Sheet.
|
|
Who is responsible for training shop personnel
in the use of the material safety data sheet? |
Work center supervisor.
|
|
In naval aviation technical manuals, what
safety term is used to indicate an operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed? |
Warning.
|
|
In naval aviation technical manuals, what
safety term is used to indicate an operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in damage or destruction to equipment? |
Caution.
|
|
What type of diagram is useful for showing
the relationship of components of a system and the sequence in which the different components operate? |
Block.
|
|
What type of diagram is a graphic
representation of a system that shows how a component fits with other components but does not indicate its actual location in the aircraft? |
Schematic.
|
|
What type of diagrams use actual drawings of
components within the system? |
Installation.
|
|
The logical/deductive reasoning process of
finding a malfunction is known by what term? |
Troubleshooting.
|
|
What are the seven steps encompassed in the
troubleshooting aids generally found in the aircraft MIMS? |
Visual inspection, operational check, classify the trouble, isolate the trouble,
locate the trouble, correct the trouble, and conduct final operational check. |
|
During a visual inspection, a hydraulic system
should be checked for what primary concerns? |
Proper servicing levels.
|
|
What are the four basic categories of malfunctions?
|
Hydraulic, pneumatic, mechanical, or electrical.
|
|
When you conduct the final operational
check, how many times must the affected system be actuated? |
Five (5).
|
|
What components should be checked for
proper position prior to applying electrical and hydraulic power? |
Hydraulic selector valves and electrical switches.
|
|
When troubleshooting, what records should
you check to see if there is a previous history of the same type of discrepancy? |
Aircraft discrepancy records.
|
|
What equipment or tool should you use to
check the voltage and continuity of a circuit in an electrically controlled hydraulic system? |
Multimeter.
|
|
What substance is used to reduce friction,
cool metallic parts, prevent wear, and protect against corrosion? |
Lubricants.
|
|
What are the four methods of applying
lubricants? |
Grease gun, squirt can, hand, and brush.
|
|
What type of lubrication fittings rests level
with the surface and will not interfere with moving parts? |
Flush fittings.
|
|
Where would you find the prewash lubrication
chart for a particular aircraft? |
Maintenance Requirements Cards (MRC).
|
|
What document should you consult for special
safety requirements and personal protective equipment prior to using any lubricant? |
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
|
|
What characteristics of an aircraft are
directly dependent upon its weight and balance condition? |
Flight.
|
|
What technical manual covers weight and
balance? |
NAVAIR 01-1B-50.
|
|
What is the standard method used by the Navy
for weighing aircraft? |
Mobile Electronic Weighing System (MEWS).
|
|
How often must heavy-duty portable scales
and MEWS scales be calibrated? |
Every six (6) months.
|
|
What is the minimum time required for an
electronic scale to warm up? |
Twenty (20) minutes.
|
|
What actions must be accomplished if the
Weight and Data Handbook is lost? |
Weigh (or reweigh) and balance the aircraft.
|
|
What are the four types of aircraft slings?
|
Wire rope, fabric or webbing, structural steel or aluminum, and chain.
|
|
What is the most common type of aircraft
lifting sling used today? |
Wire rope.
|
|
What types of slings do not contain flexible
components? |
Structural steel.
|
|
What manual covers load testing and
inspection information for aircraft slings? |
NAVAIR 17-1-114.
|
|
How often should inspection and lubrication
of aircraft slings be accomplished? |
Before each use or monthly.
|
|
What are the two types of hydraulic aircraft
jacks used by the Navy? |
Axle and tripod.
|
|
Aircraft jacks are serviced with what type of
fluid? |
Standard authorized aircraft hydraulic fluid.
|
|
What type of jack is used for changing aircraft
tires? |
Axle.
|
|
What division performs 13-week special
inspections on axle jacks? |
AIMD Support Equipment Division.
|
|
What important safeguard prevents you from
lowering a jack too fast? |
Safety locknuts.
|
|
Details on jacking restrictions and
procedures can be found in what publication? |
Aircraft MIMs.
|
|
For shipboard operations, what is the
minimum number of tie-down chains required for each jack? |
Three (3).
|
|
How many principal structural units are there
in a fixed-wing aircraft? |
Nine.
|
|
On a semimonocoque fuselage, what component
absorbs the primary bending loads? |
Longerons.
|
|
What aircraft structure is designed to transmit
engine loads, stresses, and vibrations to the aircraft structure? |
Nacelle.
|
|
What is the main structural member of a wing
assembly? |
Spar.
|
|
What is the primary purpose of a stabilizer?
|
To keep the aircraft in straight and level flight.
|
|
What type of flight controls provides control
over pitch, roll, and yaw? |
Primary controls.
|
|
What flight control is operated by a
side-to-side movement of the control stick? |
Aileron.
|
|
What type of flight control system is used on
aircraft that travel at or near supersonic speeds? |
Power-operated or Power-boosted.
|
|
What flight control provides lateral control?
|
Aileron.
|
|
What flight control provides longitudinal control?
|
Elevator.
|
|
When is the mechanical control of an F-14
wing sweep used? |
Emergency wing sweep.
|
|
Trim tabs, wing flaps, and speed brakes are
all considered what type of flight controls? |
Secondary flight controls.
|
|
What is the main purpose of a speed brake?
|
Reducing aircraft speed.
|
|
What type of shock strut is used on all naval
aircraft? |
Air-oil shock strut.
|
|
What component of a nose landing gear
resists sudden twisting loads that are applied to the nosewheel during ground operation? |
The shimmy damper.
|
|
What force is used to raise the arresting hook
of an aircraft? |
Hydraulic power.
|
|
What component of a catapult system allows
the aircraft to be secured to the carrier deck? |
The holdback assembly.
|
|
What is the major advantage of a helicopter
over a fixed-wing aircraft? |
Lift and control are independent of forward speed.
|
|
Most Navy helicopters have what fuselage
design? |
Monocoque.
|
|
What type of stress is produced by two forces
pulling in opposite directions along the same straight line? |
Tension.
|
|
What force is the opposite of tension?
|
Compression.
|
|
What type of stress is a combination of tension
and compression? |
Bending.
|
|
What type of stress is the result of a twisting
force? |
Torsion.
|
|
What is the most widely used metal in modern
aircraft construction? |
Aluminum alloy.
|
|
What is the world's lightest structural metal?
|
Magnesium.
|
|
At what temperature does transparent plastic
become soft and pliable? |
225 F.
|
|
Radomes, wing tips, stabilizer tips, and antenna
covers are made from what type of plastic? |
Reinforced plastic.
|
|
What metal property allows it to resist
abrasion, penetration, cutting action, and permanent distortion? |
Hardness.
|
|
What metal property enables a metal to return
to its original shape after an applied force has been removed? |
Elasticity.
|
|
At what temperature does aluminum alloy
become a liquid form? |
1,110 F.
|
|
What term is defined as the eating away or
pitting of the surface or the internal structure of a metal? |
Corrosion.
|
|
What property allows two metals to be
welded, brazed, or soldered? |
Joining.
|
|
What are the three basic metal working
processes? |
Hot-working, cold-working, and extruding.
|
|
What type of metal contains iron as its
principal constituent? |
Ferrous.
|
|
What are the two most commonly used
methods of hardness testing? |
The Brinell and Rockwell tests.
|
|
What are the two classes of wrought alloys?
|
Heat treatable and nonheat treatable.
|
|
What type of metal is used in the construction
of fire walls and fuselage skin adjacent to the engine exhaust outlet? |
Titanium alloys.
|
|
What measurement must be taken to
determine the Brinell number of a metal? |
The diameter of the impression.
|
|
How does a Rockwell tester measure the
hardness of a metal? |
Measures the depth of the impression.
|
|
The Riehle tester is designed for making tests
comparable to what bench type machine? |
Rockwell tester.
|
|
What hardness tester is used for testing
aluminum alloys, copper, brass, and other soft metals? |
Barcol tester.
|
|
What type of plastic will soften when heated
and harden when cooled? |
Thermoplastic.
|
|
What type of plastic will harden when it is
heated? |
Thermosetting.
|
|
Plastic sheets should be stored in a bin and
must be tilted at least how many degrees from vertical? |
10 .
|
|
What are the three types of advanced composites
used on naval aircraft? |
Graphite, Boron, and Kevlar®.
|
|
Solid rivets are classified according to what
three factors? |
Size, material, and head shape.
|
|
A rivet with the code number MS 20426 has
what type of rivet head? |
Countersunk.
|
|
What code identifies a rivet with a plain head
marking? |
1100-F.
|
|
Rivets used primarily for joining magnesium
alloy structures have what alloy designation? |
5056.
|
|
When space is too restricted to properly use a
bucking bar, what type of rivet should be used? |
Protruding head, and flush 100-degree countersunk head.
|
|
Hi-shear (pin) rivets are available in what
two head styles? |
Blind.
|
|
What fastener has a shear and tensile
strength at least equal to the requirements of AN and NAS bolts? |
Lock bolt.
|
|
A 4002 series Camloc fastener consists of
what total number of principal parts? |
4 parts.
|
|
What metal is used in the construction of
threaded pins of Hi-lok fasteners? |
Cadmium-plated alloy steel.
|
|
Jo-bolts are available in what three head
styles? |
100-degree flush head, Hexagon protruding head, and 100-degree millable
head. |
|
How many threads must be extending through
the nut of a replacement bolt for it to be considered the correct length? |
Two.
|
|
What type of wrench is used to loosen
or tighten countersunk-head and internal-wrenching bolts? |
Allen wrench.
|
|
How many times can a self-locking nut be
reused? |
It cannot be reused.
|
|
What type of nut is designed to be used with a
cotter pin or safety wire? |
Castle nut.
|
|
What type of nut is used on an assembly that is
frequently removed? |
Wing nut.
|
|
What three types of screws are most
commonly used in aircraft construction? |
Machine, structural, and self-tapping screws.
|
|
What type of screw is as strong as a bolt of the
same size? |
Structural screw.
|
|
Flush-head machine screws are available in
what degree(s) of head angle? |
82- and 100-degree only.
|
|
What type of screw should NOT be used when
replacing an original screw in an aircraft structure? |
A self-tapping screw.
|
|
When should a ball socket and seat washer be
used on a bolt? |
When bolts are installed at an angle to the surface.
|
|
When you install a hose between two duct
sections, what is the maximum allowable gap between the duct ends? |
3/4 inch.
|
|
If the correct torque value is not specified on a
Marman clamp, what manual should you consult to locate the correct torque value? |
Maintenance Instruction Manual (MIM).
|
|
Where space is limited, what type of fitting is
used to connect a cable to a quadrant? |
Ball end.
|
|
A turnbuckle barrel with internal left-hand
threads can be identified by what means? |
By a groove or knurl around the end of the barrel.
|
|
What is the total thread tolerance for a
turnbuckle assembly? |
7 threads.
|
|
What type of cable guide should be used for a
small opening where a single cable passes through a wall separating unpressurized compartments? |
Grommet.
|
|
What manual should you first consult when
replacing an aircraft wire? |
Maintenance Instruction Manual (MIM).
|
|
What type of terminal is generally recommended
for use on naval aircraft? |
Solderless crimped-type.
|
|
What device is used on naval aircraft to allow
the continuous satisfactory operation of onboard electrical equipment? |
Static discharger.
|
|
What are the two most commonly used types
of torque wrenches? |
Dial or beam-indicating type and the setting type.
|
|
What manual provides torquing information
for a large variety of nuts, bolts, and screws used in aircraft construction? |
NAVAIR 01-1A-8.
|
|
What is the purpose of a cotter pin?
|
A cotter pin is used to secure bolts, nuts, screws, and pins.
|
|
How many different methods are used to
secure a turnbuckle? |
Two.
|
|
How many pieces of safety wire are used to
secure a turnbuckle using the wire-wrapping method? |
Two.
|
|
A soft-faced hammer is known by what name?
|
Mallet.
|
|
When rivets are too long for repair, you can
size them to the correct length with what tool? |
Rotary rivet cutter.
|
|
What must you use to form a bucktail on a
rivet? |
Bucking bar.
|
|
Locally manufactured bucking bars are
normally made from what type of steel? |
Tool steel.
|
|
To transfer hole locations from the airframe
or skin to a patch, you should use what tool? |
Hole finder.
|
|
What is the color of a 1/8-inch Cleco
fastener? |
Copper.
|
|
What is the difference between snips and
shears? |
Normally, shears are used to cut heavier gauge metal.
|
|
What are the five types of pneumatic riveters?
|
One-shot gun, fast-hitting gun, slow-hitting gun, corner gun, and squeeze
riveter. |
|
What rivet gun is generally used for heavy
hitting, and under suitable conditions, is the fastest method of riveting? |
One-shot gun.
|
|
What will happen if you apply too much
pressure to the drill? |
It can cause the drill to side slip and the hole to be elongated.
|
|
Most pneumatic drills are powered by what
type of motor? |
Vane air.
|
|
A flexible shaft drill is also known by what
other name? |
Snake drill.
|
|
The combination of bending and stretching of
metal, using male and female dies, forms what type of countersink? |
Dimple.
|
|
Why is it necessary to use a hot dimpling
process for aluminum alloys? |
Aluminum alloys are subject to cracking when formed.
|
|
Portable power-operated snips are more
commonly referred to by what name? |
Unishears.
|
|
What sheet metal equipment would you use to
fabricate a wire edge? |
Bar folder.
|
|
What brake has removable steel fingers of
varying widths? |
Box and pan brake.
|
|
What is the most commonly used layout fluid?
|
Bluing fluid.
|
|
What is the only thing you should use a
scriber for when laying out aluminum or magnesium? |
To indicate where the metal is to be cut or drilled.
|
|
The amount of material consumed in the
bending process is known by what term? |
Bend allowance.
|
|
What is the outside dimension of the formed
part called? |
Base measurement.
|
|
The setback is the combination of the metal
thickness and what other factor? |
Radius.
|
|
Machines used to cut sheet metal are
classified into what two groups? |
Power and manual operated.
|
|
When using a vise and forming blocks to
manually form a part, what are the three materials that the mallet you use must be made from? |
Rubber, plastic, or rawhide.
|
|
When you cut sheet metal, how much should
you add to allow for trim? |
1/4 in.
|
|
Before making any bends on the layout, what
should you do to make sure the brake settings are right? |
Use a piece of scrap metal.
|
|
How many adjustments must be checked on
the bar folder before you can properly bend and fold metal? |
Two.
|
|
To form cylindrical or conical shapes, you
should use what machine? |
Slip-roll forming machine.
|
|
What machine should you use to make a
groove on a bucket? |
Beading rolls.
|
|
What determines the minimum rivet
diameter? |
The thickness of the metal being riveted.
|
|
What is the Navy standard countersink
angle? |
100°.
|
|
A CP350 blind rivet tool is used to pull what
type of rivet? |
Huch rivet.
|
|
When drilling out a self-plugging rivet, what
size drill bit would you use to drill a 1/8-inch rivet? |
No. 31 drill bit.
|
|
After cleaning the damaged area of an
aircraft, what is the next step in the repair process? |
Inspect for secondary damage.
|
|
What kind of damage can turn into permanent
damage if not properly treated? |
Corrosion damage.
|
|
Damage caused by tools, bolts, rivets, and
nuts left adrift is known as what type of damage? |
Foreign object damage.
|
|
What type of damage can be identified by
loosened, sheared, or popped rivets? |
Stress.
|
|
When inspecting an area for damage, you
should always check rivet and bolt holes for what condition? |
Elongation.
|
|
What type of test should always be performed
on metal after a fire has occurred? |
Hardness test.
|
|
If you suspect a crack exist, what type of
inspection should you perform? |
Nondestructive inspection.
|
|
Small cracks that can be stop-drilled, dents,
scratches, or other minor damage that does not require major repair or replacement and does not restrict flight status is defined as what type of damage? |
Negligible damage.
|
|
Damage that cannot be repaired by any
practical means is defined as what type of damage? |
Damage requiring replacement.
|
|
The major requirement on making a repair is
to ensure you duplicate what condition? |
Strength of the original part or structure.
|
|
The process of interpreting and transcribing
of information from blueprints, drawings, and written instructions for the metal to be made into aircraft parts is known by what term? |
Layout.
|
|
If you are required to fabricate multiple parts
of the same dimensions, what can you use to ensure a higher degree of uniformity and speed production? |
A template.
|
|
What can you use to maintain aerodynamic
smoothness when repairing negligible damage, steps, and gaps? |
Aerodynamic filler.
|
|
What step must you take before applying a lap
patch over a crack? |
Stop-drill both ends of the crack.
|
|
As a general rule, when you make a flush
patch, what is the maximum clearance between the skin and the filler? |
1/32 in.
|
|
When making a repair over an internal
structure, what rivet pattern must you use? |
The existing rivet pattern.
|
|
The main spanwise members designed
primarily to take bending loads on the wing or other airfoils are known as what type of members? |
Spars.
|
|
What structural members are designed to give
the airfoil shape and rigidity? |
Ribs.
|
|
What structural member runs fore-and-aft
along the length of the fuselage and is continuous across frames and bulkheads? |
Longeron.
|
|
The self-sealing fuel cells now in naval
service are made up of what total number of primary layers of material? |
Four.
|
|
What is the main advantage of a bladder-type
fuel cell over a self-sealing fuel cell? |
Less total weight.
|
|
When applying the nylon barrier of a
rubber-type bladder fuel cell, you should use what method of application? |
Brush, swab, or spray.
|
|
The milled skins of an integral fuel cell are
normally fastened to the aircraft by what means? |
Bolts.
|
|
A fuel leak that reappears 30 minutes after it
is wiped dry is classified as what category of leakage? |
Seep.
|
|
What is the first step you should take to stop a
fuel leak in an integral fuel cell? |
Retorque all fasteners 6 inches on either side of the leak.
|
|
To allow the gun piston to return before
another cycle can begin, the trigger of a sealant injector gun must be released approximately how often? |
Every 30 seconds.
|
|
What gas is used to pressure test a repair
made on an integral fuel cell? |
Nitrogen.
|
|
What are cracks and small surface fissures in
transparent plastic materials called? |
Crazing.
|
|
What should you use to clean excessive
masking paper adhesive residue from plastic? |
Aliphatic naphtha.
|
|
What is normally used to measure scratches
on plastic materials? |
Optical micrometer.
|
|
To sand out scratches in transparent plastic,
what is the maximum coarse number of abrasive paper that you may use? |
No. 240A.
|
|
What substance is often applied to the buffing
wheel in place of, or in addition to, a buffing compound that acts similar to wax to fill hairline scratches and provides a high gloss to plastic surfaces? |
Plain tallow.
|
|
How many times greater will plastics expand
and contract as compared to metal? |
Three (3) times greater.
|
|
When repairing the surface of reinforced
plastics and sandwich construction laminates, what should you use over the build-up repair area to work out the excess resin and air bubbles? |
Cellophane.
|
|
In addition to the stepped method, what other
method of repair may be used to ply damage to solid laminates? |
Scarfed method.
|
|
What type of coating is frequently used to
protect frontal surfaces of reinforced plastics exposed to high speeds? |
Rain erosion coating.
|
|
A hole, break, or crack in one or both facings,
resulting in damage to the honeycomb/core, is referred to as what type of damage? |
Puncture damage.
|
|
What type of repair patch is normally used to
ensure aerodynamic smoothness on aircraft control surfaces? |
Flush patch.
|
|
Advanced composite materials consist of a
combination of what materials? |
A combination of high-strength stiff fibers embedded in a common matrix
(binder) material. |
|
What type of inspection is used to analyze the
extent of the damage and effectiveness of repair to composite materials? |
Nondestructive inspection.
|
|
What types of fibers are golden yellow in
color and are used in many secondary structures replacing fiber glass or as a hybrid with fiber glass? |
Kevlar® fibers.
|
|
What is used as a single-ply arrangement of
unidirectional or woven fibers in a matrix? |
Lamina.
|
|
Crazing and cracking of composite materials
by ultraviolet radiation is categorized as what type of damage? |
Environmental damage.
|
|
What type of damage inspection method is
limited to finding defects close to the surface in composite materials? |
Tap test.
|
|
What does a dark area on the developed film
indicate when viewing an X-ray of composite materials? |
A thinner area of a part.
|
|
"As is" damage is classified as what type of
damage? |
Negligible damage.
|
|
Damage to the aircraft's skin that cannot be
allowed to remain "as is" is classified as what type of damage? |
Repairable damage.
|
|
Where can you find information about
structural damage classification, inspection procedures, typical repair procedures, and tool and materials lists? |
The aircraft’s structural repair manual (SRM).
|
|
What is the classification of damage when
water gets trapped in a honeycomb area? |
Class VII.
|
|
What enables you to identify and classify
aircraft damage by confining the repairs to load-carrying requirements? |
Repair zones.
|
|
What are the most critical zones in defining
aerodynamic smoothness of control surfaces? |
Leading edges of wings and tails, forward nacelles and inlet areas, and
forward fuselages. |
|
What is a good tool for removing small areas
of damage on laminates, although it has a tendency to damage the honeycomb core? |
A hole saw.
|
|
What type of dust and particles are
conductors, can cause shorts in electrical equipment, and contaminate hydraulic systems? |
Graphite.
|
|
When making bonded repairs, what materials
present health and fire hazards to personnel? |
Solvents.
|
|
What types of composite material particles
and dust cannot be disposed of by burning and must be packaged, tagged, and buried in an approved landfill? |
Carbon and graphite fibers.
|
|
What is the primary objective of any paint
finish? |
To protect exposed surfaces against corrosion and deterioration.
|
|
How can you identify the paint system of an
aircraft? |
A decal or stencil located on the right side of the aircrafts aft fuselage.
|
|
By what means should chemical or
mechanical paint removal be accomplished? |
The mildest means possible.
|
|
What appearance should chemical paint
stripper have that indicates the paint is ready to be removed? |
Wrinkled appearance.
|
|
What treatment is an extremely important
part of the corrosion control process? |
Chemical conversion.
|
|
What is the pot life of Epoxy-polyamide
primer once the two parts are mixed? |
Eight (8) hours.
|
|
What type of evaluation should all personnel
receive prior to being assigned duties involving the mixing and application of polyurethane paint system coatings? |
A preplacement and periodic medical evaluation.
|
|
What is the closest distance that unprotected
personnel should be allowed to newly painted surfaces upon completion of the painting operation? |
Fifteen (15) feet.
|
|
For excellent adhesion, what is the
drying period for Elastromeric rain erosion-resistant coating? |
Seven (7) days.
|
|
Regarding painting specifications for letters
and numerals, how is the space measurement between letters an numerals determined? |
It is always one-sixth (1/6) of the height of the letter or numeral.
|
|
What are tactical paint scheme patterns
based on? |
Optical principles.
|
|
What type of paint spray gun is designed for
small jobs? |
Suction-feed type.
|
|
What is the probable cause if your paint spray
gun is leaking in the front? |
The fluid needle is not seating properly.
|
|
What is the desirable distance from the
surface that you should hold the spray gun in order to get the proper coverage and a smooth coat of paint? |
Between six (6) and ten (10) inches.
|
|
What may cause dusting and rippling in a
paint finish? |
Excessive air pressure.
|
|
Basic sealants are classified in how many
general categories? |
Three (3), pliable, drying, and curing.
|
|
What is used to apply Class B sealing
materials? |
An extrusion gun and spatula.
|
|
According to NA-01-1A-16, who can perform
NDI inspections? |
Certified personnel only.
|
|
What type of examination must a candidate
receive before selection as an NDI inspector and annually there after? |
Eye exam.
|
|
What is the minimum amount of experience
required from a technician who is currently certified and engaged in NDI in order to train and certify NDI operators? |
3 years.
|
|
How often must active NDI technicians
recertify? |
3 years.
|
|
How often must an NDI technician or
operator perform the methods in which they are certified? |
Two times a month.
|
|
How long must a NDI operator maintain
proficiency without being required to update training for recertification? |
6 months.
|
|
The original copy of the NDI certification is
held by whom? |
The individual.
|
|
Who verifies the entries in the work center
supervisor's Technician/Operator work record? |
Quality Assurance (QA).
|
|
What command has cognizance over the NDI
program? |
Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR).
|
|
What command provides training for all
NADEPs? |
Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR).
|
|
Who is responsible for monitoring the NDI
programin activities under their cognizance? |
Aircraft Controlling Custodians (ACC).
|
|
What activity is responsible for ensuring
compliance with qualification requirements and enforcing the Industrial Radiation Safety Program (RASP) requirements in accordance with the RASP manual? |
Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA).
|
|
What division is responsible for monitoring
the organization’s NDI training program? |
Quality Assurance (QA).
|
|
What activity is responsible for requesting
NDI inspection on aircraft? |
Organizational Maintenance Activity (OMA).
|
|
For a magnetic particle inspection to be
performed, a part must be made of alloys that contain a high percentage of what material? |
Iron.
|
|
When conducting a magnetic particle inspection,
the magnetic field is interrupted by what factor? |
Discontinuity.
|
|
Which method of magnetization is used to find
radial discontinuities around the edges of holes and detect longitudinal discontinuities? |
Circular magnetization.
|
|
When you inspect hollow or tubelike parts, it
is important to inspect what surface? |
Inside surface.
|
|
What type of current should be used for the
detection of surface discontinuities? |
Alternating current (ac).
|
|
To detect subsurface discontinuities, you
would use direct current with what type of magnetic particle inspection? |
Wet magnetic particle method.
|
|
The particles that are used in magnetic
particle inspections have what two characteristics? |
High permeability and low retentivity.
|
|
The smallest particles are more easily
attracted to and held by what type of discontinuities? |
Very fine discontinuities.
|
|
Fluorescent particles are widely used in wet
baths and are easily seen on dark backgrounds when what type of light is used? |
Black light.
|
|
What method of inspection is used to detect
flaws in areas that are not accessible or favorably oriented for use by other test methods? |
Radiation (X-Ray).
|
|
X-rays can be a health hazard when
improperly used because of what factor? |
They produce radiation.
|
|
What method of inspection uses vibration or
sound waves? |
Ultrasonic inspection.
|
|
What inspection method is used to detect
discontinuities parallel to the test surface on materials one-half inch thick or greater? |
Straight-beam.
|
|
What is the best inspection method to use
around fastener holes, cylindrical components, and welds? |
Angle-beam.
|
|
What ultrasonic method is used to detect
surface cracks and subsurface discontinuities in field activities? |
Surface wave.
|
|
Electric currents that are induced in a
conductor of electricity by a reaction with a magnetic field are known as what type of currents? |
Eddy currents.
|
|
What type of coil has the ability to better
define the exact location of discontinuities? |
Surface coil.
|
|
A simple, inexpensive, and reliable method
for detecting discontinuities that are open to the surface is known as what type of inspection? |
Dye penetrant.
|
|
Welding training and testing are conducted at
what facilities? |
Naval Aviation Depot (NADEP).
|
|
What is the recertification interval for
IMA-level aeronautical equipment welders if proficiency is maintained? |
3 years.
|
|
If you fail the first test weld(s), what amount
of time do you have to submit the retest welds after notification of failure? |
30 days.
|
|
What are the two main purposes of the
welding torch? |
To properly mix the gasses and direct the flame against the part to be welded.
|
|
What is the temperature range of acetylene
when mixed with oxygen? |
5,700 to 6,300°F.
|
|
What are the three main characteristics of
oxygen? |
Odorless, colorless, and slightly heavier than air.
|
|
If an oxygen bottle has a white band around it,
what type of oxygen does it contain? |
Breathing oxygen.
|
|
What pressure does the low pressure (0 to 500
psi) gauge on a single-stage regulator indicate? |
Working pressure.
|
|
Acetylene is colorless, but has what feature
that makes it easily detected? |
A distinct odor.
|
|
At what pressure does acetylene become
self-explosive? |
29.4 psi.
|
|
What is another name for a low-pressure
welding torch? |
Injector.
|
|
What color is the acetylene hose on an
oxyacetylene welding system? |
Red.
|
|
The thread fittings for the oxygen hose
hookup of an oxyacetylene welding system always have what type of threads? |
Right-handed threads.
|
|
Regardless of the shade of your welding
goggle's lens, they should be protected by what type of material? |
Clear cover glass.
|
|
Bronze and aluminum welding rods are
examples of what type of welding rods? |
Nonferrous.
|
|
What type of flame has three distinct zones
and is used to weld nickel alloys? |
Carburizing flame.
|
|
What type of flame has a small, white pointed
cone in the inner zone with a purple tinge and is used to fuse brass and bronze? |
Oxidizing flame.
|
|
An overheated welding tip, accompanied by a
popping sound, indicates what action has occurred? |
Backfire.
|
|
Define the term “flashback” as it applies to a
welding torch. |
Flashback is the burning of gases within the torch.
|
|
When the torch is held properly, the tip should
be in line with what structure? |
The joint to be welded.
|
|
What welding technique is the best method for
welding lighter metals? |
Forehand method.
|
|
Tee and lap joints are classified as what type
of welds? |
Fillet welds.
|
|
Corner and butt joints are classified as what
type of welds? |
Groove welds.
|
|
What type of joint is formed when two pieces
of metal are placed edge-to-edge with no overlap and welded together? |
Butt joint.
|
|
What type of joint is formed when two pieces
of metal are welded approximately perpendicular to each other? |
Tee joint.
|
|
What type of joint is formed by welding two
overlapping metals together? |
Lap joint.
|
|
What type of joint is formed when two or more
parallel or nearly parallel pieces of metal are welded together? |
Edge joint.
|
|
What type of electrode is used in GTA welding
because of its ability to resist high temperatures? |
Tungsten alloy.
|
|
DC reverse polarity in a welding machine
causes a greater concentration of heat in what location? |
At the electrode.
|
|
Directional and distributional control of the
shielding gas is provided by what component? |
Gas cups.
|
|
What is the most common type of shielding
gas used in the tungsten-arc welding process? |
Argon.
|
|
When striking an arc, you should hold the
electrode what distance above the work piece? |
1/8 inch.
|
|
The process that uses a consumable wire
electrode is known as what type of welding? |
Gas Metal Arc (GMA).
|
|
What determines the melting rate of the filler
wire? |
Current level.
|
|
When you use the GMA welding method to
weld aluminum, what is the preferred shielding gas? |
Helium.
|
|
When you use the GMA welding method, why
should you pull the gun back quickly when contact is made between the electrode and the work piece? |
To prevent sticking.
|
|
If you hear a loud crackling sound while you
are GMA welding, what direction should you move the wire-feed speed dial to correct this? |
Counterclockwise.
|
|
When using GMA welding equipment, where
should you attach the ground connection? |
Ensure it is firmly attached to the work piece.
|
|
When GMA welding equipment is not in use,
what should you do to the power source? |
Completely disconnect it.
|
|
What is the only metal that cannot be
hardened by heat-treatment? |
Pure metal.
|
|
Uneven heating of metal often causes what
actions to occur? |
Distortion and cracking.
|
|
The slow heating of metal ensures what condition?
|
Uniformity.
|
|
The heating rate for hardened tools and parts
should be slower than metals that are in what condition? |
Not in a stressed condition.
|
|
What is the process of holding a metal at a
temperature until it is heated throughout and changes have had time to take place? |
Soaking.
|
|
How can you reduce the distortion and
cracking of metal? |
Preheating.
|
|
The process for rapidly cooling heated metal
is known by what term? |
Quenching.
|
|
Alloy steels are generally hardened by
cooling with what substance? |
Oil.
|
|
The form of heat-treatment used to reduce
residual stresses, induce softness, and alter ductility is known by what term? |
Annealing.
|
|
The process in which an iron-based metal is
allowed to cool at room temperature, in still air, after being heated to approximately 100°F is known by what term? |
Normalizing.
|
|
The process of quenching a metal after it is
heated to a temperature slightly above the critical temperature is known by what term? |
Hardening.
|
|
The process by which steel is heated to just
below critical and held there for a period of time, and then cooled with oil, water, or brine is known by what term? |
Tempering.
|
|
What is the process of producing a hard case
over a tough core known as? |
Case hardening.
|
|
The process of hardening steel by introducing
carbon to the heated metal is known by what term? |
Carburizing.
|
|
The process of hardening alloy steel by holding
it at temperatures below the critical point in anhydrous ammonia is known by what term? |
Nitriding.
|
|
The carbon in steel, which exists as particles
of iron carbide, scattered throughout the iron mixture is known by what term? |
Ferrite.
|
|
If the cooling is slow, the carbon particles are
relatively course and few. In what condition will this leave the steel? |
A soft condition.
|
|
Before steel can be hardened completely, it
must be heated to a certain point, before it is rapidly quenched. What is this point called? |
Upper critical point.
|
|
If you don't have an instrument to determine
the temperature of steel being heated, you can judge it by what factor? |
Its color.
|
|
What term describes an aluminum alloy with
a protective coating of aluminum? |
Alclad.
|
|
What increases artificially aged alloys' resistance
to corrosion? |
They are slightly overaged.
|
|
What is the recommended time interval between
removal from the heat and immersion during the quenching process? |
10 seconds or less.
|
|
Small aluminum parts are normally quenched
in what substance to ensure good resistance to corrosion? |
Cold water.
|
|
What quenching method is used to quench
large forgings to prevent cracking and minimize distortions? |
Hot water.
|
|
The process of removing the effects of
heat-treatment in alloys is referred to by what term? |
Annealing.
|
|
It takes a 2-hour soak at 750° to 800°F,
followed by a maximum cooling rate of 50° per hour to 500°F to remove the effects of a partial or full heat-treatment and obtain what condition? |
Maximum softness.
|
|
Aircraft wheels are made from what two
materials? |
Aluminum or magnesium alloy.
|
|
What are the two general types of wheels used
on naval aircraft? |
Divided and demountable flange.
|
|
On a demountable flange wheel, what holds
the flange in place? |
A lockring.
|
|
What is the basic unit of an aircraft wheel
assembly? |
The wheel casting.
|
|
All main landing gear wheel braking
components are attached to the wheel casting. What do these components consist of? |
Brake drum or brake drive keys.
|
|
What are the two major causes of aircraft
wheel failures? |
Corrosion and loss of bearing lubrication.
|
|
What solvent should be used to clean
bearings, bearing cups, wheel bores, and grease retainers? |
P-D-680, type II.
|
|
Before installing felt grease retainers, what
should you soak them in? |
VV-L-800 oil.
|
|
During wheel installation, how far do you
back off the axle nut when the wheel no longer spins freely? |
One castellation (one-sixth turn).
|
|
Where can you find the procedures for
aircraft wheel installation? |
Applicable MIM.
|
|
What activity determines wheel overhaul
requirements? |
Intermediate maintenance activity (IMA).
|
|
To what manual should you refer to find
information on cleaning aircraft wheels? |
NAVAIR 04-10-1.
|
|
A fuse plug can be kept in service if the
eutectic core material does NOT extend what maximum distance above the surface of the hex nut? |
One-sixteenth (1/16) inch.
|
|
What grease should you use to repack wheel
bearings? |
MIL-G-81322 grease.
|
|
What is the recommended method for
repacking bearings? |
Pressure method.
|
|
Gouges, nicks, and pockmarks on the outside
ends of bearing hubs are considered significant if they exceed what depth? |
0.020 inch.
|
|
What part of the tire gives it tensil strength,
resistance to internal pressure, and the ability to maintain its shape? |
The cord body.
|
|
What is the most common tread pattern
design used on naval aircraft tires? |
Ribbed pattern.
|
|
What term refers to a tire's maximum
recommended load for a specific type of service? |
Ply rating.
|
|
What is the final nondestructive inspection
method used for rebuilt tires? |
Laser beam optical holographic method.
|
|
If only one numerical designation is used for
a tire, what does it refer to? |
The outside diameter.
|
|
Where is tire-marking information recorded
after a tire change? |
VIDS/MAF.
|
|
What does R or TR followed by a number on a
tire indicate? |
The number of times the tire has been rebuilt.
|
|
All tubeless tires and tires with tubes must be
suitably vented to release trapped air if they exceed what psi? |
100 psi.
|
|
How are vent holes marked on tubeless tires?
|
A bright green dot.
|
|
What type of damage is caused by sunlight?
|
Ultraviolet (UV) damage.
|
|
A tire should be sent to AIMD or IMA if it
shows repeated pressure loss that exceeds what percent of the correct operating pressure? |
5 percent.
|
|
Tire slippage marks are what color?
|
Red.
|
|
How often should slippage marks on aircraft
tires be inspected? |
After each flight.
|
|
What explosionproof, bead-breaking equipment
is intended for shipboard use? |
Lee-IX.
|
|
An aircraft inner tube can still be reused up to
what maximum age? |
5 years.
|
|
How are tubeless tires identified?
|
By the word tubeless on the sidewall.
|
|
During tire inflation, the setting on the
pressure regulator should NEVER exceed what psi? |
600 psi.
|
|
How often is a remote tire inflator assembly
required to be calibrated? |
Every 6 months.
|
|
After inflating an aircraft tire, what is the
minimum time you must wait before checking for a detectable pressure loss? |
10 min.
|
|
A nonserviceable tire that has been "H"
coded is considered to be in what condition? |
Nonretreadable.
|
|
What solution should be used to clean tires
that have come into contact with grease, oil, and other harmful materials? |
Soap and water.
|
|
What will cause a tire to wear faster in the
center? |
Overinflation.
|
|
A type III tire is used with what type of tube?
|
Type III.
|
|
Radial vent ridges molded on the surface are
found on what type (s) of inner tubes? |
Type III and type VII.
|
|
To prevent sticking, used tubes should be
dusted with what substance? |
Talc.
|
|
Small leaks in tubes can be detected by using
what type of check? |
Soapy water check.
|
|
If an inner tube is free of leaks and defects, it
is considered to be in what category? |
Serviceable.
|
|
A nonserviceable inner tube that has bent,
chafed, or damaged metal valve threads should be classified as what type of tube? |
Repairable.
|
|
What is the primary use for MIL-H-46170
hydraulic fluid? |
Preservative hydraulic fluid.
|
|
What is the temperature range of
MIL-H-83282 hydraulic fluid? |
–40°F to +275°F.
|
|
Where do you annotate that you have mixed
hydraulic fluid in a particular aircraft? |
Aircraft logbook.
|
|
What is the maximum acceptable Navy
Standard Class hydraulic fluid particulate for naval aircraft? |
Navy Standard Class 5.
|
|
What manuals specify how aircraft hydraulic
fluid sampling is conducted? |
Applicable MIM’s or MRC’s.
|
|
What are the four approved lubricants to be
used on O-ring seals? |
MIL-H-5606, MIL-H-83282, MIL-H-46170, and MIL-G-81322.
|
|
What type of contamination is most often
found in aircraft hydraulic systems? |
Particulate contamination.
|
|
What unit of measurement is used for
particulate matter? |
Microns.
|
|
Oxidation of hydraulic fluid can produce
what type of contaminants? |
Organic solid contamination.
|
|
Most metallic contamination in a hydraulic
system is produced by what component? |
Hydraulic pumps.
|
|
The presence of air in a hydraulic system has
what effect? |
Air causes a spongy response during system operation.
|
|
What two factors determine if a sampling
point is adequate? |
Its mechanical features and its location in the system.
|
|
The internal porting of the sample point
should not impede the passage of particulate matter up to what size? |
500 microns.
|
|
What is the primary contamination measurement
method used at all levels of maintenance? |
Patch test.
|
|
When is the best time to take a hydraulic fluid
sample? |
Immediately after flight and before shut down.
|
|
Before taking a hydraulic fluid sample from a
hydraulic test stand, you must recirculate the fluid for how long? |
5 minutes.
|
|
How many samples should you take from each
sampling point? |
Two.
|
|
When sampling hydraulic fluid, what size test
filter should you use? |
47-mm filter.
|
|
An aircraft’s hydraulic systems should be
operated a minimum of how many complete cycles while undergoing recirculation cleaning? |
15 cycles.
|
|
Hydraulic test stands used for system flushing
must be equipped with a 3-micron absolute filters and have an internal reservoir that holds how many gallons? |
16 gallons.
|
|
Whenever possible, purging operations
should be accomplished at what activity? |
NADEP (Naval Aviation Depot).
|
|
Considering maintenance man-hours and
material requirements, what is the most effective decontamination method? |
Recirculation.
|
|
What component is used to provide a means
of quickly disconnecting a line without the loss of hydraulic fluid? |
Quick-disconnect coupling.
|
|
When the quick-disconnect coupling is
disconnected, what component prevents the loss of fluid and entrance of air? |
A spring in each half closes the valve.
|
|
A hydraulic seal that is used between two
stationary items is referred to by what name? |
A gasket.
|
|
High-operating pressures require what
components to be used with O-rings? |
Backup rings.
|
|
A damaged O-ring storage envelope should
be repaired with what type of tape? |
Moistureproof, pressure-sensitive tape.
|
|
Tools used for installing and removing
O-rings should be made from what material? |
Soft metal.
|
|
What is the shelf life of Teflon® backup rings?
|
Teflon® backup rings do not have a shelf life.
|
|
What is the purpose of a wiper in an exposed
piston shaft installation? |
To clean and lubricate.
|
|
What three factors contribute to fluid loss in a
hydraulic system? |
Leakage, system maintenance, and malfunction.
|
|
What are the three types of hydraulic SE used
in the Navy? |
Portable, fluid dispensing, and stationary.
|
|
What size filter does the H-250-1 hydraulic
servicing unit use? |
3-micron (absolute).
|
|
What is the holding capacity of the integral
reservoir of a HSU-1 servicing unit? |
2 gallons. The total capacity of the unit is 3 gallons when a 1 gallon can is mounted to the unit.
|
|
On the HSU-1 servicing unit, the sight gauge
reads from0 to 2 gallons in what increments? |
1/4-gallon increments.
|
|
What size filter is used on the Model 310
servicing unit? |
3-micron (absolute).
|
|
What is the length of the service hose of a
Model 310 servicing unit? |
15-foot service hose.
|
|
What are the three most common types of fluid
level indicators? |
Sight glass, gauge, and piston-style.
|
|
All support equipment must be maintained
according to what publications? |
The applicable MIMs and MRCs.
|
|
What is the purpose of a portable hydraulic
test stand? |
They can be connected to an aircraft hydraulic system to provide power
normally obtained from the aircraft hydraulic pumps. |
|
What is the power source of the A/M27T-5
portable hydraulic power supply unit? |
Model 3-53 Detroit diesel engine.
|
|
What is the purpose of the emergency stop
handle on the A/M27T-5 unit? |
Used for emergency diesel engine shutdown.
|
|
What is the range of the high-pressure gauge
on the A/M27T-5 unit? |
0 to 6000 psi.
|
|
What is the main difference between the
A/M27T-5 unit and the A/M27T-7 unit? |
The A/M27T-7 is powered by an electric motor.
|
|
What publication supplies detailed
information on the A/M27T-7 unit? |
NA 17-15BF-91.
|
|
At what level should the reservoir of a
hydraulic test stand be maintained? |
Three-fourth full.
|
|
After you start a hydraulic test stand, what is
the first thing you must do? |
Allow the engine to warm up to its normal operating temperature.
|
|
What actions must be taken prior to
connecting a hydraulic test stand to an aircraft? |
Recirculation cleaning, deaeration, and fluid sample analysis.
|
|
Once you have the hoses connected to the
aircraft, what action must you take prior to applying hydraulic power to an aircraft? |
Check the aircraft reservoir levels.
|
|
What component is used to adjust the
operating pressure of a hydraulic test stand? |
Pump compensator.
|
|
What is the purpose of a stationary hydraulic
test stand? |
Used for shop-testing hydraulic system components.
|
|
Stationary hydraulic test stands are used at
what levels of maintenance? |
Intermediate and depot.
|
|
Other than hydraulic components, what other
types of components can be tested on the HCT-10? |
Pneumatic components.
|
|
What three things must be externally connected
to the HCT-10 unit for it to operate? |
Electrical power, water, and compressed air.
|
|
How many different test circuits does the
HCT-10 unit have? |
Three test circuits.
|
|
What test circuit is used to test double-acting
hydraulic cylinders? |
Dynamic test circuit.
|
|
What component on the HCT-10 prevents
operation when the door of the test chamber is open? |
Safety interlock.
|
|
Where is the nonbypass filter installed on a
support equipment unit used to test or service an aircraft hydraulic system? |
Upstream of the major fluid discharge port.
|
|
What can be used in place of an approved
metal closure to protect fittings on a hydraulic test stand? |
Clean, adequately secure polyethylene bag.
|
|
What is the purpose of air bleeding a piece of
hydraulic support equipment? |
It allows entrapped air to escape from a closed hydraulic system.
|
|
What is one method used to keep air from
being introduced into a hydraulic system when you are replacing a component? |
Prefilling replacement components with new, filtered hydraulic fluid.
|
|
What function must be accomplished prior to
connecting a test stand to an aircraft? |
Self-recirculation cleaning.
|
|
What cleaner is used to clean all sampling
points on a hydraulic test stand? |
MIL-PRF-680.
|
|
Howmuch fluid must you drain froma hydraulic
test stand before you can take a sample? |
One quart.
|
|
How many different methods are there for
decontaminating a hydraulic system? |
Four.
|
|
What size filter does the hydraulic fluid pass
through before entering the purifier tower during purification cleaning? |
25-micron (absolute) filter.
|
|
What decontamination method would
you use for support equipment that is heavily contaminated with particulate matter? |
Flushing.
|
|
What decontamination method is NOT
authorized at organizational and intermediate level maintenance? |
Purging.
|
|
What are the two basic types of hose used in
military aircraft and related equipment? |
Synthetic rubber and Teflon®.
|
|
What material is used to cover a Teflon®
hose? |
Braided stainless steel wire.
|
|
How is a synthetic rubber hose identified?
|
Indicator stripe and markings stenciled along the length of the hose.
|
|
A hose fitting consists of what separate parts?
|
Nipple, socket, swivel nut or flange, and the sleeve.
|
|
What color is an aluminum alloy 2024 hose
fitting? |
Blue.
|
|
How are commercially manufactured hose
assemblies identified? |
Identified by a band near one end of the assembly.
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How are locally fabricated hose assemblies
identified? |
Hose assembly identification tag or label.
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What type of cover is used to protect a hose
assembly that is subjected to high temperatures? |
Firesleeve.
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All hose assemblies manufactured in a shop
must have what test completed before they are installed on an aircraft? |
Either a hydraulic or pneumatic pressure test.
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What is the first thing you must do when you
discover a swivel nut leaking? |
Check for proper torque.
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What is the acceptance life for a synthetic
rubber hose assembly? |
Eight years (32 quarters) from the cure date.
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What is the service life of a synthetic rubber
hose assembly that is exposed to the weather, fuel, or heat? |
Seven years (28 quarters).
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How are rigid tubing assemblies sized?
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Outside diameter and wall thickness.
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What type of tubing is used in a high-pressure
hydraulic system that has 3000 psi or above? |
Corrosion-resistant steel (CRES).
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What type of tubing is used for
general-purpose lines? |
Aluminum alloy tubing.
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What color is a carbon steel tube fitting?
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Black.
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What manual must you refer to when
fabricating a tube assembly? |
NA 01-1A-20.
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What is the primary objective when cutting a
piece of tubing? |
To produce a square end free from burrs.
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What must be done to a tube immediately
after it has been cut? |
Remove all burrs.
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What is the primary objective when bending a
piece of tubing? |
Obtain a smooth bend without flattening the tube.
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What are the two types of tube joints used on
naval aircraft? |
Flared and flareless.
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What is used to lubricate the threads of a
hydraulic line prior to installation? |
MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid.
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What is the preferred cleaner for cleaning a
tube assembly? |
Dry-cleaning solvent MIL-PRF-680.
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The depth of a dent in a tube assembly must
not exceed what percentage of the tubing diameter? |
Twenty percent.
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How many different types of repairs can be
made on a tube assembly? |
Two, permanent and temporary.
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What unit transforms hydraulic fluid pressure
into mechanical force, which performs work by moving some mechanism? |
An actuating unit.
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Aircraft actuating cylinders are used when
which of the following mechanism movements are required? |
Linear or reciprocating motion.
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If hydraulic pressure is used to move a
single-acting actuating cylinder in only one direction, what force is used to move it in the opposite direction? |
Spring tension.
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The operation of a single-acting,
spring-loaded, piston-type actuating cylinder is normally controlled by what component? |
A directional control valve.
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Most piston-type actuating cylinders are of
what type? |
Double-acting type.
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An unbalanced, double-acting, piston-type
actuating cylinder uses a directional control valve capable of directing fluid in what total number of ways? |
Four.
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When the cylinder is in the down and locked
position, the locking ball bearings are held in the locking position by what means? |
A ball-lock plunger.
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To equalize the displacement of fluid on either
side of the piston, a double-action, finger-lock actuator incorporates what component? |
An inner cylinder.
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During normal extension of a landing gear
finger-lock actuator, what forces move the piston over the fingers? |
Hydraulic pressure and spring tension.
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In a power-operated flight control system, all
the force necessary for deflecting the control surface is supplied by what type of pressure? |
Hydraulic pressure.
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A tandem-type, control surface, actuating
cylinder uses a synchronizing rod for what purpose? |
To equalize the flow of fluid into the actuator piston chambers.
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In the maintenance of actuating cylinders,
what is the most common trouble encountered? |
External leakage.
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What type of motor converts hydraulic
pressure into rotary mechanical motion? |
A hydraulic motor.
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Hydraulic motors are commonly used to
operate what aircraft equipment? |
Radar and wing flaps.
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To relieve pressure created by thermal
expansion of the fluid, a system that has a balanced poppet-type selector valve must also incorporate what other type of valve? |
A thermal relief valve.
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The poppets of a poppet-type selector valve
are actuated by what means? |
The cams on the camshaft.
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When all four of the poppets of a poppet-type
selector valve are held firmly seated by the springs and there is no fluid flow, the valve is in what position? |
The neutral position.
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External leakage from a poppet-type selector
valve could be caused by what condition? |
A damaged gasket under the sealing plug.
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Currently, what type of selector valve is the
most durable and trouble-free? |
The slide-type.
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The slide-type selector valve has raised,
machined portions that are known by what term? |
Lands.
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A slide-type selector valve has three grooves
at the end next to the eye. The grooves are known by what term? |
Detents.
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A slide-type selector valve should have a light
film of hydraulic fluid applied to the exposed areas of the slide primarily for what purpose? |
To prevent corrosion.
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A solenoid-operated selector valve is
controlled by what means? |
Electrically.
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A solenoid-operated selector valve directs the
flow of fluid to and from the actuator by the use of what component? |
The selector slide.
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For the proper cleaning, inspection, repair,
and testing of selector valves, you should use what series of NAVAIR manuals as a guide? |
03 series.
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When testing a solenoid selector valve, you
must bleed all air from the valve before applying pressure for what reason? |
To prevent a leak from going undetected.
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What is the purpose of a check valve?
|
To allow fluid to flow in one direction only.
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A bypass check valve differs from an
automatic check valve in what way? |
It can be manually opened to allow fluid to flow in both directions.
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In what two ways are sequence valves
operated? |
Mechanically operated or pressure-operated.
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What are the two types of mechanically
operated sequence valves? |
Balanced and unbalanced.
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Trouble associated with a mechanically
operated sequence valve is most commonly a result of what problem? |
Improper adjustment.
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Isolation of the normal system from the
emergency hydraulic system is the main function of what valve? |
The shuttle valve.
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Excessive heating of a shuttle valve is a good
indication of what type of problem? |
Internal leakage.
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An actuating units speed of operation is
controlled by what component? |
A restrictor.
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To retard the action of a hydraulic cylinder by
limiting the flow of fluid in both directions, you should use what device? |
A two-way restrictor.
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What is the primary purpose of a hydraulic
fuse? |
It is a safety device.
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Hydraulic fluid entering a hydraulic fuse is
divided into two flow paths by what means? |
The control head.
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