Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
105 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
If pilots persist in their request to depart from a closed runway_________. A. inform them that a clearance can only be issued with approval from airport management B. quote the appropriate parts of the NOTAM and inform them that a clearance cannot be issued c. issue a take off clearance |
B. quote the appropriate parts of the NOTAM and inform them that a clearance cannot be issued |
|
Which of the following is correct phraseology? A. Runway 35 charlie closed B. (quote NOTAM info) unable to issue departure clearance. Departure will be at your own risk C. Departure will be at your own risk. Runway 19 Left unsafe. |
B. (quote NOTAM info) unable to issue departure clearance. Departure will be at your own risk |
|
The controller can use their own good judgement in closing a runway. A. True B. False |
B. False Legally only the airport management can close a runway. |
|
If you observe or are informed of any condition that affects the safe use of a landing area: A. Copy verbatim any information received and record the name of the person submitting it B Close the runway immediately as unsafe C. take no action until the information can be confirmed |
A. Copy verbatim any information received and record the name of the person submitting it |
|
The types of breaking action are: A. Great, Good, Poor, Nil B. Good, Fair, Poor, Bad C. Good, Fair, Poor, Nil |
C. Good, Fair, Poor, Nil |
|
Issue the runway surface condition/RCR if provided to all: A. Naval aircraft B. Military aircraft C. Air Force/ Air Guard aircraft |
C. Air Force/ Air Guard aircraft |
|
When are braking action advisories in effect? A. When reports received from airport management or pilots include the terms: fair, poor, nil B. When reports received include the terms: good,fair, poor, nil C. Any time conditions are reported at "zero" |
A. When reports received from airport management or pilots include the terms: fair, poor, nil |
|
When breaking action advisories are in effect take the following actions: A. Advise airport management only after reports of "poor" are received B. If no report has been received for the runway of intended use advise " Breaking action good for runway 28 right" C. Issue the latest breaking action report for the runway in use to each arriving and departing aircraft |
C. Issue the latest breaking action report for the runway in use to each arriving and departing aircraft |
|
A safety device consisting of two major components: engaging or catching devices and energy absorption devices for the purpose of arresting both tailhook and/or nontailhook aircraft is: A. Landing Safety System B. Arresting System C. Military Landing System |
B. Arresting System |
|
The standard emergency phraseology for a pilot requesting an arresting system be raised is: A. BARRIER - BARRIER - BARRIER or CABLE - CABLE - CABLE B. EMERGENCY - EMERGENCY - EMERGENCY or BARRIER - BARRIER - BARRIER C. MADAY - MADAY - MADAY or CABLE - CABLE- CABLE |
A. BARRIER - BARRIER - BARRIER or CABLE - CABLE - CABLE |
|
A runway selection plan designed to enhance noise abatement efforts with regard to airport communities for arriving and departing aircraft A. Applies to all aircraft B. Applies to Large or Heavy weight class aircraft only C. Applies to all turbo jet aircraft 12,500 lbs or more |
C. Applies to all turbo jet aircraft 12,500 lbs or more |
|
A Formal Runway Use Program does not require a letter of understanding and is voluntary of aircraft operators and pilots. A. True B. False |
B. False |
|
Who approves the runway use programs for implementation? A. Regional Air Traffic Division B. Airport Manager C. Airport Manager and Community Official |
A. Regional Air Traffic Division |
|
When a runway use program is in effect there should be: A. Reported visibility of not less than 1 SM, breaking action of Good, and no significant wind shear or thunderstorms B. Visibility of at least 5 SM Braking of Fair or better, and no reports of hydroplaning C. Breaking action of Good, calm wind, visibility of 5 SM |
A. Reported visibility of not less than 1 SM, breaking action of Good, and no significant wind shear or thunderstorms |
|
When a runway use program is in effect for clear and dry runways: A. Crosswind component must not be greater than 15 KTS B. Crosswind component must not be greater than 20 KTS C. No tailwind component may be present |
B. Crosswind component must not be greater than 20 KTS |
|
When a runway use program is in effect for runways NOT clear or NOT dry: A. Tailwind component must not exceed 5 KTS B. Crosswind component must not exceed 20 KTS C. Crosswind component must not exceed 15 KTS |
C. Crosswind component must not exceed 15 KTS |
|
Except where a runway use program is in effect use: A. The "Calm Wind" runway when less than 10 KTS B. The longest runway when more than 5 KTS C. The runway most nearly aligned with the wind when more than 5 KTS |
C. The runway most nearly aligned with the wind when more than 5 KTS |
|
Always state both wind direction and velocity: A. When Runway Use Program is in effect B. When breaking action advisories are in effect C. When a tail wind component exists |
C. When a tail wind component exists |
|
Always state both wind direction and velocity: A. When Runway Use Program is in effect B. When breaking action advisories are in effect C. When a tail wind component exists |
C. When a tail wind component exists |
|
Which statement is false: Turn the REILs off after: A. An aircraft is established on the approach B. An aircraft has landed C. It is determined the lights are of no further use to the pilot |
A. An aircraft is established on the approach |
|
A system of lights arranged to provide visual decent guidance during the approach to a runway |
The Visual Approach Slope Indicators (VASIs) |
|
The lower glide path of a VASI is how many degrees? |
3 degrees The upper path is normally .25 higher |
|
A 2 bar VASI shows what light configuration when on glide path? |
Red over White |
|
A three bar VASI shows what light configuration below glide path? |
Three red |
|
Provides the basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing |
Approach Light System |
|
Operate ALSs between sunrise and sunset when: A. ceiling of 5,000 or less and visibility 3 SM or less B. Ceiling of 1,000 or less and visibility 5 SM or less C. Ceiling of 1,000 or less and visibility 3 SM or less |
B. Ceiling of 1,000 or less and visibility 5 SM or less |
|
What is the recommended ALS setting for day/night |
Day 2/3 Night 4/5 |
|
A component of the ALS that can not be operated when the ALS is off and should be operated when visibility is less than 3 SM and instrument approaches are being made to the respective runway A. SFL - Sequenced Flashing Lights B. MALS - Medium Intensity Approach Light System C. Runway Edge Lights |
A. SFL - Sequenced Flashing Lights |
|
Operate runway edge lights between sunrise and sunset when visibility is less than A. 1 SM B. 2 SM C. 3 SM |
C. 3 SM |
|
Operate one-setting taxiway lights durning the day when A. Visibility is less than 1 SM B. Visibility is less than 3 SM The pilot calls for departure clearance |
A. Visibility is less than 1 SM |
|
Provides pilots increased situational awareness by illuminating runway entrance lights (REL) when the runway is unsafe for entry or crossing and takeoff hold lights (THL) when the runway is unsafe for departure |
RWSL Runway Status Lights |
|
Take-Off Hold Lights (THL) extend how many feet? |
1500 feet in front of the holding A/C |
|
Runways, taxiways, and other areas of an airport utilized for taxiing, and takeoff/landing exclusive of loading ramps and parking areas. At those airports with an operating control towers specific approval must be obtained for entry. |
Movement Areas |
|
Taxiways and apron (ramp) areas not under the control of ATC |
Nonmovement Areas |
|
A runway with a heading of 006 degrees |
Runway 1 |
|
A runway with a heading of 005 degrees |
Runway 1 Runway 36 |
|
A runway with a heading of 4 degrees |
Runway 36 |
|
What documents define movement/nonmovement areas? A. LOA B. SOP C. LOP |
A. LOA |
|
Runway 16/34 is _____ feet long A. 10,000 B. 9,750 C. 9,500 |
B. 9,750 |
|
All Academy runways are _____ feet wide A. 100 ft B. 200 ft C. 250 ft |
B. 200 ft |
|
Runways 28LR/10LR are ______ feet long A. 10,000 B. 9,750 C. 9,500 |
A. 10,000 |
|
On an instrument runway yellow replaces white on the last _____ feet or 1/2 the runway length which ever is less |
2,000 feet |
|
At Academy Airport there is an approach lighting system to which runway(s) |
28R only |
|
Academy airport has what instrument approaches |
VOR/DME 10L ILS 28R |
|
28R/10L has which intensity runway lights? |
HIRL |
|
All taxiway lights at Academy Airport are _____ inensity |
Single |
|
Taxiway A and G are how wide |
200 feet |
|
Taxiways other than A and G are how wide? |
100 feet |
|
Which standby locations are for runway 16/34? |
3 and 5 |
|
Academy airspace is a ___ NM radius of Academy Airport with extensions ___ NM long and _____ NM wide E/W from the surface up to and including ____AGL (_____ MSL) |
5NM radius 2NM long 4 NM wide 2,500 AGL 3,200 MSL |
|
Academy airspace extends from Tulsa VORTAC radial ____ |
100/280 |
|
Location of MacDonald's Bridge |
6 NM SE |
|
Location of Riverside Water Tower |
6 NM S |
|
Location of Sand Springs |
5 NM SW |
|
Location of Owasso Antenna |
5 NM SW |
|
Location of Chandler |
6 NM W-SW |
|
AAC Approach North Frequency A. 120.2/261.0 B. 119.5/252.6 C. 125.5/231.0 |
A. 120.2/261.0 |
|
AAC Approach South frequency A. 120.2/261.0 B. 119.5/252.6 C. 125.5/231.0 |
B. 119.5/252.6 |
|
AAC Approach airspace extends _____ NM radius from the airport and up to and including ____ MSL |
30 NM 12,000 MSL |
|
Frequency of Tulsa VORTAC located ____ NM from AAC |
114.4/CH91 5 NM |
|
When on the RNY1 and AAC1 departures a pilot can expect to receive their requested altitude ___. |
10 mins after departure |
|
Components of the FDIO |
Printer Cathode Ray Tube Keyboard |
|
Which components of a FDIO are used to compose and edit outgoing messages? A. CRT and Printer B. Keyboard and Modem C. CRT and Keyboard |
C. CRT and Keyboard |
|
What is the format to remove a strip message on AAL233 A. SR (space) AAL233 B. RS (space) AAL233 C. RS (space) AAL133 (space) 2330 |
B. RS (space) AAL233 |
|
The center section of he FDIO where newly arrived messages are first displayed |
Incoming information display area |
|
AM |
To Amend |
|
DM |
To depart an aircraft |
|
FP |
To enter an active or proposed flight plan |
|
Final Approach fix for ILS 28R and frequency |
Woody 338 KHz |
|
FR |
To request a flight plan readout |
|
GI |
To enter general information |
|
RS |
To remove strip from the host computer |
|
SR |
To request a specific flight plan strip |
|
PR |
To update an active flight plan |
|
FIDO Field 1 |
Message type |
|
FIDO Field 2 |
Aircraft ID |
|
FIDO Field 3 |
Aircraft Type |
|
FIDO Field 4 |
Beacon Code |
|
FIDO Field 5 |
Speed |
|
MEA of all Victor airways at AAC |
3,000 feet |
|
FIDO Field 6 |
FIX |
|
FIDO Field 7 |
Time |
|
Fido Field 8 |
Assigned Alt |
|
FIDO Field 9 |
Requested Alt |
|
FIDO Field 10 |
Route of Flight |
|
Fido Field 11 |
Remarks Always preceded by a clear weather or overcast symbol |
|
Like elements of a route are separated by ___ non similar elements are separated by___. |
Like elements 2 periods different elements one period |
|
ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded ___ information. A. Noncontrol B. Control C. Bird Activiy |
A. Noncontrol |
|
One purpose of the ATIS is to A. Relieve frequency congestion B. Provide pilots with post arrival info C. Help relieve the controller separation workload |
A. Relieve frequency congestion |
|
An ATIS is formatted in the following sequence: A. Phonetic Letter Code, Airport Name, Time of Weather B. Airport Name, Time of Weather , Phonetic Letter Code C. Airport Name, Phonetic Letter Code, Time of Weather |
C. Airport Name, Phonetic Letter Code, Time of Weather |
|
Specified altitude or height in the precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue is not established |
Decision Altitude (DA) |
|
Considered direct reading instruments and are to be the primary sources of wind information |
ASOS/AWOS |
|
NOTAMs and PIREPs are included in the ATIS report when they are determined to be_____. |
Pertinent to operations in the terminal area |
|
Optimum duration of an ATIS is |
30 seconds |
|
Before broadcasting the message, the Atis should be checked for A. Volume, readability, enunciation, currency B. Accuracy, completeness, speech rate, enunciation C. Frequency, completeness, currency, volume |
B. Accuracy, completeness, speech rate, enunciation |
|
Ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions may be omitted if the ceiling is above ___ feet and the visibility is more than ____ miles. A. 3,000/3 B. 4,000/4 C. 5,000/5 |
C. 5,000/5 |
|
The lowest altitude to which a decent is authorized where no electronic glide slope is provided |
Minimum Decent Altitude (MDA) |
|
Preplanned IFR departure, provides obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. designed to expedite traffic flow and reduce pilot/controller workload |
Standard instrument Departure |
|
Southbound aircraft file the ____ SID |
Academy 1 |
|
Northbound aircraft file the _____ SID |
Rainey 1 |
|
On the AAC1 departure what altitude would an aircraft clim to before turning |
1,500 feet |
|
On the RNY1 departure an aircraft will fly runway heading until reaching 1,500 feet and then turn to a heading of ___? |
360 degrees |
|
Which components of a FDIO are used to compose and edit outgoing messages? A. CRT and Printer B. Keyboard and Modem C. CRT and Keyboard |
C. CRT and Keyboard |
|
What is the format to receive a flight plan readout on N23317? A. FP (space) N23317 B. FR (space) N23317 C. RS (space) N23317 |
B. FR (space) N23317 |
|
What is the format to amend the proposed departure time of N2314S to 1345 A. N2314S (space) 1345 B. AM (space) N2134S (Space) 1345 C. AM (space) N2314S (space) 07 (space) P1345 |
C. AM (space) N2314S (space) 07 (space) P1345 |