Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
261 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
/x |
No dme: no transponder
|
|
/t
|
No dme: transponder no mode c
|
|
/u
|
No dme: transponder mode c
|
|
/d
|
dme: no transponder
|
|
/b
|
dme: transponder no mode c
|
|
/a
|
dme: transponder mode c
|
|
/m
|
tacan only: no transponder
|
|
/n
|
tacan only: transponder no mode c
|
|
/p
|
tacan only: transponder mode c
|
|
/y
|
rnav: no transponder
|
|
/c
|
rnav: transponder no mode c
|
|
/i
|
rnav: transponder mode c
|
|
Do not abbreviate these call signs |
military, airlines, civil aircraft with faa approved all signs, similar sounding call signs
|
|
4 interphone priorities
|
emergency messages, control or clearance instructions, movement and control messages, movement messages for VFR
|
|
Controllers are required to
|
speak, hear, remember large amounts if critical operational data
|
|
Use authorized symbols or abbreviations recording
|
clearance, reports, instructions
|
|
Plain language can be used on strips
|
when clarification is necessary
|
|
locally approved identifiers and abbreviations can be used
|
within your facility
|
|
Holding instructions must include
|
a direction from the fix, direction from fix (if not posted), radial, turn direction, efc
|
|
Upper portion of H indicates
|
distance from the station to the fix
|
|
How to write a release time on a strip
|
RLS 1 min < acid
|
|
Released your discrestion
|
syd/ acid
|
|
Altitude box on strip
|
20
|
|
clearance void times are used
|
where no control tower is present and communications are hard to establish until airborne
|
|
When would you write a freq inside the C |
When other than standard
|
|
Information describing an emergency is written in?
|
Black, E in red
|
|
How do you write a block altitude
|
100B150 (lowest first)
|
|
How to show aircraft is on approach
|
type of approach and a time under
|
|
When a flight plan is filed directly with the center, record all items given by the pilot on
|
Flight progress strip, flight data entry(automated), voice recorder
|
|
Enter___ in block 26 on the initial flight progress strip for ____ use
|
Sector position number, to identify where information may be found in the event of search and rescue
|
|
When en route flight data processing is not in operations, forward flight plan information to the appropriate ___? and include ____ on the strip
|
Atc facility, fss, military base operator, record the time of filing and delivery on the flight progress strips
|
|
Who is data forwarded to as an aircraft progresses along it route?
|
Controller to controller within facility and then to receiving facility
|
|
When forwarding data make sure the information is
|
correct and up to date
|
|
Controllers cannot use the remarks section in lieu of voice coordination to pass what kind of information? |
Control information
|
|
Use automation in preference to manual procedures when permitted by
|
work load, communications, equipment capabilities
|
|
Flight progress data must be forwarded at least ___ minutes before the aircraft is estimated to enter the receiving facilities area.
|
15
|
|
Time requirements may be increased or decreased depending upon_____?
|
Loa or facility directive, increased due to manual data processing or nonradar operations
|
|
What items of a flight plan need to be forwarded
|
ALL but computer id, sector number,
|
|
When must you forward a position report over the at reporting point in the transferring facilities area?
|
> 3 min time difference, requested by controller, agreed upon between facilities,
|
|
What information is circled in red
|
Forward information, estimations over inbound fix
|
|
How many minutes before an aircraft is estimated to enter a receiving facilities area must flight progress data be forwarded?
|
15
|
|
When must you coordinated with the receiving facility before an aircraft departs?
|
When the flying time is less than 15 minutes from boundary
|
|
When automated transfer of flight data occurs, coordination requirements may be reduced by LOA to:
|
5 minutes, specific mileage
|
|
Forward departure time to recieveing facility
|
if it differs from assumed by >3
|
|
inbound information must be forwarded to approach control when?
|
Before the transfer of control point
|
|
Transfer radio communication and control responsibility early enough to ?
|
allow receiving facility to clear a/c beyond clearance limit prior to reaching it
|
|
When should you forward arrival information to a non approach control tower?
|
Soon enough to permit adjustment of traffic flow or prior to issuing clearance which a/c will enter airspace
|
|
What info should be forwarded to FSS from airborne military flights?
|
IFR flight plans, change from VFR to IFR, change in IFR plan (change of desination)
|
|
When an military A/C changes destination do the following
|
Advise FSS of 1. acid 2. departure point 3. original destination 4. position and time 5. new destination 6. ETA 7. remarks (fuel exhaustion) 8. revised ETA
|
|
What in the North American Route Program?
|
a set of rules and procedures that are designed to increase the flexibility of user flight planning within a published set of guidelines
|
|
NRP must only be entered in the remarks section of a flight plan when?
|
Prior coordination is accomplished with ATCSCC or by the NRP flight operations procedures
|
|
When an international flight entering the US requests to participate in NRP what must happen?
|
enter NRP in the remarks section
|
|
NRP must be retained in the remarks section of the flight plan if the aircraft is moved due to:
|
Weather, traffic, or other tactical reasons ( must return a/c asap to orig route)
|
|
When would you remove NRP from the remarks section?
|
When pilot request a change in route
|
|
What service must ZAE provide for GWO TWR
|
Approach and departure control services
|
|
GWO TWR must advise ZAE of what
|
Runway in use, change of runway in use prior to change, facility status, and all significant weather changes
|
|
When must data be forwarded to GWO TWR if FDIO is operational
|
When the sequence of aircraft change and/or the aircraft is issued an approach to a runway other than the tower specified runway in use
|
|
When must arrival information be forwarded to GWO TWR and what must be included
|
When FDIO is non operational prior to clearance permitting flight into class D surface area, to include type of approach
|
|
What happens when a controller receives a UTM (unsuccessful transmission message) notification to an FDIO only facility?
|
Controller must effect manual coordination for the flight plan data and must verify it to the receiving facility within three minutes of the TCP estimate
|
|
When can GWO TWR clear and aircraft for a visual approach
|
Weather permitting and with prior coordination with ZAE before the clearance is issued
|
|
ZAE must transfer communication to GWO TWR when?
|
Prior to aircraft reaching the FAF inbound or if on a VA 5 miles from the airport or prior to entering surface area, unless otherwise coordinated
|
|
When must GWO TWR advise ZAE of an unplanned missed approach?
|
Immediately
|
|
What is the procedure for GWO TWR to request a departure clearance from ZAE?
|
Specify the destination and request then in the order the aircraft will depart
|
|
Issue clearance utilizing what data?
|
FDIO data
|
|
When can you not issue as filed?
|
When issuing alternate routing instruction or FRC is noted
|
|
Advise aircraft to expect requested altitude when?
|
10 minutes after departure when released to an interim altitude
|
|
GWO TWR must advise ZAE if the aircraft does not depart within?
|
3 minutes of the time the release is issued ( not a void time and should not be used for sep)
|
|
When FDIO is not available, ZAE assumes responsibility for issuing ____, to include?
|
Full departure clearances, altitude to maintain and any alternate routing or instructions as necessary
|
|
Is GWO TWR authorized to conduct Special VFR?
|
Yes to aircraft with a functioning 2 way radio in the class D at or below 2,700 upon approval by ZAE
|
|
During non radar (after coordination) ZAE assumes what airspace over JAN?
|
at and above 6,000 in the terminal area
|
|
How must ZAE clear JAN arrivals?
|
To JAN VORTAC at lowest center altitude available(d66), to RAKIN on V11 or to BEATT on V18 (d65), lowest available altitude, established on airway
|
|
By LOA FSS must
|
include communication instructions when relaying departure ( contact ZAE 125.0 after departure)
|
|
ZAE must protect holding pattern airspace until when?
|
JAN appch calls with tower jurisdiction
|
|
Transfer of communication point at JAN is?
|
must be the common boundary, until TUX, then the closest intersection outside appch airspace
|
|
What control does JAN APCH have at the Tcp before an Aircraft reaches their airspace?
|
decent
|
|
When must ZAE forward the destination airport to JAN APCH?
|
When other than JAN
|
|
What route must JANAPCH clear departing aircraft on?
|
Direct JAN VORTC then the route/altitude obtained from ZAE with the restriction to cross JAN VORTAC at or below 5,000
|
|
ZAE is responsible for separating?
|
Departing aircraft from arriving aircraft still in their airspace, Departing aircraft on the same airway (must specify to APCH the rule to be used to separate departures entering ZAE airspace)
|
|
Can over flights enter JAN APCH airspace during non radar operations?
|
no
|
|
During non-radar what air airspace does ZAE own over MLU APCH?
|
at or above 7,000
|
|
What is the procedure for a MLU arrival?
|
TCP is Dinky (31 from MLU), EFC time is 5 minutes after the TCP time (after Dinky), Communication change is 49 NE MLU or 5 minutes before Dinky, ZAE must clear arrivals to Hold on V18 at Dinky(TCP) at lowest available altitude, Dinky is the clearance limit as well as the holding fix, APCH must transition arrivals into their airspace prior to 17 NM arch east of MLU
|
|
What is the procedure for MLU departures?
|
ZAE issues and APCH relays clearances, ZAE must issue an EFC time if unable to issue the clearance right away, ZAE must separate departures from arrivals still in ZAE airspace, ZAE must specify the separation to be used if cleared on the same airway, APCH cannot clear an aircraft above 6,000 until established on ZAE assigned route and clear of ZFW, APCH must separate aircraft of different airways
|
|
During non-radar all centers must clear aircraft via___?
|
Radials of NAVAIDs or established on airways
|
|
What is the TCP and communications point for all centers?
|
Common boundary
|
|
During non-automated data transfer between facilities, when must coordination by effect with the receiving center?
|
Before departure when the departure point is less than 15 minutes flying time from the boundary , Before changing an aircraft route or altitude when the aircraft is less than 15 minutes flying time from the boundary
|
|
When do you not have to provide service in accordance with the 7110.65?
|
When other procedures or minima are prescribed in a LOA or FAA or Military documents or deviation is necessary to assist an emergency aircraft
|
|
What is a controller's first priority?
|
Separate aircraft and issues safety alerts and provide support to nation security and homeland defense (including reporting suspicious and or unusual aircraft or pilot activity, good judgment must be used in prioritizing other situations based on the requirements of the situation at hand
|
|
Issue a safety alert to aircraft under your control when...?
|
You are aware that the aircraft is at an altitude which in your judgment places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft
|
|
When does a safety alert become a first priority?
|
Once the controller observes and recognizes a situation of unsafe aircraft proximity to terrain, obstacles, or other aircraft(although a controller cannot see immediately the development of every situation they must remain vigilant for such situations and issue a safety alert when the situation is recognized) applies to VFR and IFR
|
|
Provide additional services to the extent possible contingent upon....?
|
Higher priority duties, limitations to radar, volume of traffic, frequency congestion, workload
|
|
Are additional services optional? And what are they?
|
No, required as workload permits and include merging target procedures, traffic advisories, and weather advisories
|
|
Use automation procedures in preference to non-automation procedures when permitted by:
|
Workload, communications, and equipment
|
|
Use radar separation in preference to non-radar procedures when?
|
It will be operationally advantageous and workload, communications, and equipment permit
|
|
Use non-radar separation in preference to radar separation when?
|
It will be operationally advantageous
|
|
Provide ATC services on a ___ basis, except___? |
First come first served, Aircraft in distress, Military Air Evacuation when requested, Scheduled air carrier/air taxi/civilian air ambulance flight use Lifeguard call sign, Search and Rescue while performing a SAR mission, presidential or vice presidential aircraft and any escort aircraft(including movement and related control messages when traffic and communications permit) Flight check aircraft(when required provide special handling to expedite
|
|
Use the word immediately when...
|
Only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation (include reason is time permits)
|
|
Use the word expedite when...
|
Only when prompt compliance is necessary to avoid the development of an imminent situation (include the reason is time permits) and expedite clearance is canceled when a new instruction is given without the word expedite.
|
|
What do you do when an aircraft reports an inflight equipment malfunction?
|
Determine the nature of the malfunction, consider any special handling, provide needed assistance, coordinate with other controllers and concerned facilities
|
|
What does it mean when a pilot declares minimum fuel and what should the controller do?
|
Minimum fuel indicates recognition by the pilot that his/her fuel supply has reached a state where upon reaching destination, he/she cannot accept any undue delay. This is not an emergency situation but merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur, Controller should inform any other controller or facility that will assume control of the aircraft, provide necessary assistance, avoid undue delays
|
|
Who must you report information concerning components of the NAS or flight conditions that may adversely affect air safety to? And what would be an example of this information?
|
FSS, airport managers office, ARTCC, APCH control facility, operations office, or military office, NAVAID outages, radar system failures, computer outages, turbulence, and other weather conditions.
|
|
What do you do when at aircraft reports a ground based NAVAID malfunction? GPS anomaly?
|
Request a report from another aircraft, if the second aircraft reports normal, continue use of NAVAID and inform the pilot making the report, if second pilot confirms malfunction or if unable to get a second report, notify FLM, Report a GPS anomaly to FLM
|
|
How do you control formation flights?
|
Control formation flights as a single aircraft until aircraft have established separation and reported by pilot
Issue control instructions to the formation leader and when individual control is requested issue advisory information that will assist the pilots in attaining separation to the lead |
|
Can civil aircraft conduct formation flights?
|
Yes
|
|
When can you allow an aircraft under your control enter another controllers airspace?
|
After prior coordination
|
|
What must be done before issuing control instructions to an aircraft not in your airspace?
|
Coordination with the controller whose airspace the aircraft is in, the controller receiving the transfer of control, and any intervening controllers whose airspace the aircraft will pass through, unless covered in an LOA or facility directive
|
|
When do you transfer control responsibility?
|
At a prescribed or coordinated location, time, fix, altitude or at the time a radar handoff and frequency change to the receiving controller have been completed as specified in an LOA or facility directive
Only after eliminating any potential conflict with other aircraft for which you have separation responsibility |
|
When should you assume control of an aircraft?
|
Only after the aircraft is in your area of jurisdiction or specifically coordinated or as specified in an LOA or FD
|
|
When must you coordinate with the appropriate control tower?
|
Prior to issuing a clearance that would require flight within the surface area for which a tower has responsibility, unless in a LOA or for transit authorization when providing radar traffic advisory service to an aircraft that will enter another facilities airspace
|
|
When are communications transferred to a tower?
|
Prior to operation within the surface area if required
|
|
When do you transfer communications of an aircraft?
|
Before the aircraft enters the receiving controllers airspace unless coordinated or specified in an LOA or FD
|
|
Transfer communication by...
|
Who to contract(facility name, location name and terminal function), Frequency (optional for FSS and Departures if previously given or publish on a SID), Time, Fix, Altitude, or specified condition when to change (may be omitted if compliance is expected upon receipt)
|
|
Controllers must take appropriate action to establish/restore communications with all aircraft for which a communications transfer or initial contact to his/her sector is expected or required when?
|
Within a reasonable amount of time (5 minutes from the time the aircraft enters the controllers area of jurisdiction or comes within range or radios/communications coverage)
|
|
How do you instruct an aircraft to change to another frequency in your sector?
|
Change to my frequency (...)
|
|
When should you avoid issuing a frequency change to a single piloted helicopter?
|
Air taxing, hovering, low level flight
|
|
If you do not want a pilot to leave a frequency what do you do?
|
State Remain this Frequency
|
|
When control responsibility is being transferred between facilities or between controllers within a facility, effect the transfer at a ___?
|
Time fix or altitude
|
|
How do you respond to a request from another controller?
|
Restate the request in complete or abbreviated terms followed by APPROVED, Issuing the requested clearance, Stating restrictions followed by APPROVED, Stating UNABLE (give reason if time permits), Stating STAND BY
|
|
What conditions affecting sector operations should you ensure that your CIC or FLM are aware of?
|
Weather, Equipment status, Potential Sector Overload, Emergency Situations, Special Flights/Operations
|
|
Scan flight progress strips for?
|
Proper sequence, conflicts, IAFDOF, arrivals MEA violations, routing errors, coordination functions, type aircraft (number of aircraft, category if Heavy), non DME, speed
|
|
Red W's on a strip indicate?
|
Less than 10 minutes at the same fix and altitude, aircraft conflict, MEA/MOCA violation, Warning/Prohibited Area violation
|
|
When do you line out a red W?
|
When restrictions to fix the conflict are issued to the aircraft, never lined out on a requested altitude unless the route has changed
|
|
How do you determine solutions to traffic situations?
|
Analyze the situation to determine alternative solutions based on (pilots request, other controllers request, operational priorities, operational advantages)
|
|
When do you remove flight progress strips?
|
When no longer required for control purposes
|
|
Take action to obtain a position report affecting separation no later than __?
|
5 minutes after the aircraft is estimated over the fix
|
|
Pre planning checklist.
|
Stuff/sequence, TUX, on frequency, arrows, IAFDOF, W's, resolve, arrivals, priorities
|
|
Prefix a clearance, information, or a request for information which will be relayed through a non-facility by stating?
|
ATC Clears (clearance), ATC Advises (information), ATC Requests (request)
|
|
FSS must prefix a clearance with the appropriate phrase...and....
|
ATC Clears (clearance), ATC Advises (information), ATC Requests (request)...and relay clearances verbatim
|
|
Define Airway.
|
A class E airspace area established in the form of a corridor, the centerline of which is defined by radio navigational aids
|
|
Define Fix Radial Distance.
|
Is a geographical position determined by a fix (un to 5 Characters), an azimuth from the fix (3 digits in degrees magnetic), and a distance from the fix in NM (3 digits) (SQS270040)
|
|
Define Route.
|
A defined path consisting of one or more courses in a horizontal plane, which aircraft traverse over the surface of the earth.
|
|
Define Jet Route.
|
A route designed to sever aircraft operations from 18000 ft up to and including FL450, refered to as J routes
|
|
Define Q Route.
|
An RNAV route published for use in the US
|
|
Define Vector.
|
A heading issued to an aircraft to provide navigational guidance by radar
|
|
Define Preferential Arrival Route.
|
Specific arrival route from an appropriate en route point to an airport or terminal area. May be included in a STAR or preferred IFR route. Called a PAR not to be confused with precision approach radar.
|
|
Define STAR.
|
Preplanned IFR ATC arrival procedure published for pilot use in geographic and or textual form. They provide a transition from the en route structure to an outer fix or instrument approach fix/arrival waypoint in the terminal area
|
|
Define SID.
|
Preplanned IFR ATC departure procedure printed for pilot/controller use in geographic form to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. SID's are designed fro system enhancement to expedite traffic flow and to reduce pilot/controller workload. ATC clearance must always be received prior to flying a SID.
|
|
Always clear aircraft via route consistent with the____ by one or more of the following.....?
|
Altitude stratum in which the operation is to be conducted by designated airways and routes (via victor___ or J___)
radials, courses, azimuths, or direct (to utilize an airway above or below its route structure or to define a route when air airway does not exist), VIA THE RADIALS OF radials, courses, azimuths and headings of departure or arrival routes degree-distance fixes for special military operations Courses, azimuths, bearings, quadrants, or radials within a radius of a NAVAID Fixes/waypoints defined in terms of published name, degree-distance from NAVAIDs, latitude/longitude coordinates |
|
To transition within or between route structures, clear an aircraft by one or more of the following methods, based on VOR, VORTAC, TACAN, or MLS NAVAIDS:
|
Vector aircraft to or from radials. Courses, azimuths of the airway or route assigned
Assign a SID or STAR Clear a departing or arriving aircraft to climb or descend via: radials, courses, or azimuths of the airway or route assigned Clear a departing or arriving aircraft directly to or between NAVAIDs forming the airway or route assigned Clear aircraft to climb or descend via: the airways or route on which flight will be conducted or specified radials, courses, or azimuths of NAVAIDs |
|
How do you change a route of flight in a previously issued clearance?
|
State which portion of the route is being amended and then state the amendment CHANGE ___ TOREAD ___
State the amendment to the route and then state REST OF ROUTE UNCHANGED Issue a clearance direct to a point previously issued in the route CLEARED DIRECT (rest of route unchanged not necessary) Issue the entire route by stating the amendment |
|
What must be done when route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended?
|
Restate all applicable altitude instructions
|
|
What happens if you restate a previously issued altitude to maintain?
|
All restrictions are canceled
|
|
What terms would you use to issue departure clearances when necessary?
|
Depart, Fly or Departure
|
|
What word should you avoid using unless in the tower/terminal environment?
|
Takeoff
|
|
What should be included in an IFR departure clearance?
|
Departure airport as needed, clearance limit (destination airport, short-range clearance limit as provided for any established procedures, when a NAVAID the type must be included), Name the way point or intersection by type,
|
|
What can be specified if necessary, in a clearance to an aircraft at an airport with a control tower?
|
Direction of takeoff/turn and or initial heading/azimuth
|
|
What can be specified if necessary, in a clearance to an aircraft at an airport without air traffic control services?
|
Direction of takeoff/turn or initial heading/azimuth to be flown(must solicit pilots concurrence before issuing the clearance, after issuing direction of takeoff and or heading to pilot compatibility with a procedure issued may be verified by the pilot for compliance with local traffic pattern and terrain or obstruction avoidance
|
|
What can be specified if necessary,in a clearance to an aircraft at an airport not in controller airspace?
|
Nothing except a heading to be flown when entering controlled airspace
|
|
When would you include a departure procedure as part of the clearance?
|
Where only written departure procedures are published for an airport and pilot compliance is necessary to ensure separation
|
|
When is the departure airport included in a clearance?
|
When relayed through a non-control facility
|
|
When can a SID and Transition be assigned to an aircraft?
|
When necessary and with pilot concurrence (pilot must notify ATC if they cannot concur)
|
|
Define preferential departure route.
|
A specified departure route from an airport or terminal area to an en route point where there is no further need for flow control
|
|
Define preferential departure and arrival route.
|
A route between two terminals which are within or immediately adjacent to one ARTCC area
|
|
When issuing a route of flight specify one of the following:
|
Airway, route, course, heading, azimuth, arch, vector
|
|
What must be done when a short range clearance limit is utilized?
|
Must advise the pilot of the routing to expect beyond the short range clearance limit that differs from the filed route EXPECTF FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA...
|
|
Altitudes should be assigned in what preferential order?
|
Requested by the pilot, nearest to the pilot requested (inform the pilot when the altitude will be available unless specified in a SID) (if requested is not available inform the pilot that the final altitude is expected to be and when/where to expect the final altitude) IS NOT AVALIBLE (issue final altitude prior to aircraft reaching fix/time specified in clearance)
|
|
When can you issue an abbreviated departure clearance?
|
If it reduces verbiage and filed route is unchanged prior to departure (by the pilot, company, operations officer, input operator, in the stored flight plan system) and all ATC facilities concerned have sufficient route of flight information to exercise control responsibilities and destination airport information must be relayed between facilities(when flight with depart IFR prior to departure) and assigned altitude is always stated in an abbreviated clearance
|
|
If it is necessary to modify a filed flight plan in order to achieve computer acceptance what must be included?
|
FRC or FRC until the initial fix and must always be the first item of intracenter remarks
|
|
How do you issue a clearance when a route revision is needed?
|
CLEAREDTO ___ AIRPORT AS FILED EXCEPT CHANGE ROUTE TO READ____ Maintain___
|
|
When issuing a clearance in non radar what must be specified?
|
One tow or more fixes as necessary to identify the initial route of flight
|
|
When can you not use an abbreviated clearance?
|
For pilots requesting a detailed clearance, for military operations conducted within (altitude reservations, stereo routes, above FL600, other operations requiring special handling), when FRC appears in the remarks section
|
|
What can you assign for separation or to restrict or regulate departure flows?
|
Clearance void time (provide alternative instructions, request the pilot to advice ATC of intentions no later than 30 mins after the clearance void time if not airborne, the facility delivering a void time to a pilot must issue a time check)
HFR (use this to inform a pilot or controller that a departure clearance is not valid until additional instructions are received, include departure delay information, release aircraft as soon as conditions permit) (released-contoller, released for departure-pilot or fss) |
|
Define Release Time.
|
A departure time restriction issued to a pilot to separate a departing aircraft from other traffic. Issue a release time to specify the earliest time an aircraft may depart. Time check.
|
|
What do you do if you cannot issue a clearance at the time of the request?
|
EDC time
|
|
Define EDCT time.
|
The runway release time assigned to an aircraft in a traffic management program and shown on the flight progress strip as an EDCT
|
|
When can you release an aircraft applicable to a ground stop that is in effect?
|
Get approval from the originator of the GS
|
|
If aircraft elect to take delay on the ground, issue clearances....
|
In the order of the original requests if practicable
|
|
Who should you inform of anticipated delays?
|
Approach control and or tower facilities
|
|
What is the phraseology to release an aircraft to another controller?
|
ACID Released
|
|
What is the phraseology to release an aircraft to a FSS?
|
Released for departure
|
|
What is the phraseology to release directly to a pilot at an airport with no control tower?
|
Released for departure
|
|
What facility is responsible for issuing a time check to a pilot whose clearance includes a void time?
|
The facility delivering the void time
|
|
What information should be forwarded to the receiving facility?
|
Aircraft ID, point of departure, either assumed departure time or subsequent fix posting time, altitude data and applicable restrictions, actual departure time is time differs by more than 3 minutes from assumed departure time, ETA except military and scheduled air carriers
|
|
How do you process an airfile?
|
Ensure the aircraft is in your area of jurisdiction unless coordinated, obtain information necessary to provide IFR service, issue clearance to destination airport or short range clearance limit, instruct pilot to contact FSS to file IFR flight plan
|
|
Issue the current altimeter setting to ...
|
All en route aircraft operating below FL 180 at least one time while in your airspace, aircraft cleared to descend through the lowest usable flight level, arriving aircraft approximately 50 miles from the destination airport if the destination is not served by an approach control
|
|
Lowest usable flight level table.
|
29.92- + (180)....29.91-28.92 (190)....28.91-27.92 (200)
|
|
You must let the aircraft know if the altimeter is more then ____ old.
|
1 hour
|
|
Appropriate altitudes for direction of flight.
|
At and below FL410- east odd, west even
Above FL410- East odd 4,000 ft intervals starting with FL410, - West odd 4,000 ft intervals starting with FL430 |
|
When can you assign an IAFDOF altitude?
|
Traffic conditions prevent it, LOA or FD, meteorological conditions, military aircraft on random routes, exceeds the aircrafts operational limitations
|
|
What types of clearances allow for descent pilots discretion?
|
Crossing restrictions, approach clearances and cruise clearances
|
|
Descent Pilots Discretion.
|
Can climb or descend or level off whenever but cannot return to an altitude once it is left
|
|
How do you cancel pilots discretion?
|
Assign a new altitude and state it is an amended altitude
|
|
What must be done when a route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended?
|
Restate all applicable instructions
|
|
How do you assign more than one altitude?
|
MAINTAIN BLOCK (altitude) THROUGH (altitude)
|
|
What do you do when a pilot is unable to accept a clearance?
|
Issue revised instructions to ensure positive control and standard separation
|
|
Controllers are expected to issue ATC clearances which conform with..?
|
Normal aircraft operational capabilities and do not require last minute amendments to ensure standard separation
|
|
What do you tell a pilot when you anticipate an altitude change?
|
Expect climb/descent clearance, or request altitude change from another controller
|
|
On initial contact or when position reports are received, request a pilot to confirm assigned altitude unless:
|
The pilot states it on initial contact or you assign a new altitude to climbing or descending aircraft
|
|
How do you ask for an altitude assignment verification in level flight?...climbing or descending below lowest usable FL?... at or above lowest usable FL?
|
VERIFY AT...VERIFY ASSIGNED ALTITUDE...VERIFY ASSIGNED FLGIHT LEVEL
|
|
What is a standard holding pattern?
|
Right turns, 1 min leg length at or below 14,000, 1.5 min leg above 14,000
|
|
What determines how much airspace is protected for an aircraft in holding
|
Speed (Civil 200-265, military 230), Altitude, Distance of holding fix from NAVAID
|
|
How do you issue a non-charted holding pattern clearance?
|
Clearance limit, holing instructions(Holding fix/waypoint which may be omitted if clearance limit, direction of hold, radial course azimuth and airway or route on which to hold, leg length, direction of turns), EFC time
|
|
How do you issue a charted holding pattern clearance?
|
Omit all instructions except direction and as published
|
|
When the holding pattern is charted must you give an EFC time?
|
Only if delay is expected
|
|
When delay is expected, issue holing instructs at least how many minutes before the aircraft reaches the clearance limit?
|
5 minutes
|
|
When aircraft are delayed or delay is expected tell...
|
FLM or TMU
|
|
What do you do when arrival delays reach or are expected to reach 30 mins?
|
Issue total delay information ASAP after the aircraft enters your area by the first controller to talk to the aircraft and may be omitted when available on the ATIS
|
|
What do you tell the pilot of the delay is lengthy?
|
Delay indefinite and the reason if known, and issue an EFC time ASAP, make every effort to provide the pilot with the best possible estimate of delay and reason
|
|
How long before the aircraft reaches its clearance limit should you issue a clearance beyond that limit?
|
ASAP or at least 5 minutes prior
|
|
What must be included in a clearance beyond a clearance limit?
|
Clearance limit or approach clearance, route of flight with complete details or via last routing cleared, altitude if different than present altitude
|
|
What is a pilot expected to do if no clearance is issued past the fix?
|
Hold as depicted on charts, request instructions prior to reaching fix, hold in a standard pattern on course approaching fix and request further clearance ASAP
|
|
When should arrival information be forwarded to a non-approach control tower?
|
Soon enough to permit adjustment to traffic flow, prior to issuing clearance which would require flight within the surface area
|
|
What makes up an arrival clearance?
|
Name of fix or airport, route of flight, altitude instructions, holding instructions, EFC and additional delay information as required
|
|
Transfer communications to an approach control facility when?
|
Early enough to allow the receiving facility to clear the aircraft beyond the clearance limit before the aircraft reaches it
|
|
What is depicted on each approach chart?
|
IAF, nav data, comm info, airport sketch, missed approach procedure
|
|
When must you ensure the pilot have the current weather?
|
Prior to beginning the approach
|
|
What must be included in the arrival information provided to an aircraft?
|
NOTAMS, approach clearance or type of approach to expect, runway if different from approach, wind, ceiling and vis if reported below 010 or highest circling min vis less than 3, altimeter
|
|
When issuing an approach clearance that is not under radar procedures or timed or a visual, when would you issue an approach to a second aircraft?
|
After the proceeding aircraft has landed or canceled IFR
|
|
When radar coverage does not exist how must an aircraft be cleared for an approach?
|
On a standard instrument procedures only and must commence at an IAF
|
|
How do you authorize a pilot to execute any standard instrument approach procedure for that airport?
|
CLEARED APPROACH
|
|
What must be done in order to specify a specific approach?
|
Specify the name of the approach...CLEAR (type) APPROACH
|
|
When would you not need to specify the runway?
|
When only one approach of a particular type is published
|
|
Where can you issue a circling approach?
|
Towered airport
|
|
When must you include the destination airport in an approach clearance?
|
At airports without a control tower
|
|
What must you do before instructing an IFR aircraft arriving at an airport not served by a control tower or FSS to change to advisory frequency?
|
Provide the pilot with instructions on how to cancel his/her flight plan
|
|
Transfer communications at a non-approach control tower when?
|
Prior to operation within class D surface area
|
|
Transfer communications at airports not served by control towers or FSS when? |
Approve a change to advisory when you no longer require direct communications
|
|
How do you acknowledge a cancellation of IFR
|
IFR CANCELATION RECEIVED
|
|
When an aircraft is inbound on an unpublished route when can you issue the approach clearance?
|
Only after the aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or IAP or you have assigned an altitude to maintain until established on a segment on a published route or an IAP (altitude must ensure terrain and obstruction clearance
|
|
What does a cruise clearance authorize?
|
A pilot to make an approach at the destination airport when in conjunction with an airport clearance limit or at an airport which does not have a published instrument approach procedure and provides means for an aircraft to proceed to destination airport, descend, and land in accordance with CFRs governing VFR procedures
Pilot can climb descend or level off at pilots discretion but once verbally reports leaving an altitude may not return to it without ATC clearance A cruise clearance provides SAR protection until IFR flight plan is canceled or closed |
|
What is a cruise clearance not?
|
An authorization for a pilot to descend under IFR conditions below minimum IFR altitude
|
|
When issuing a cruise clearance to an aircraft on an unpublished route what must you do?
|
Issue the appropriate crossing restriction to ensure terrain clearance until the aircraft reaches fix/point/route where altitude information is available to the pilot
|
|
When issuing a cruise clearance to an aircraft at an airport where there is no IAP what do you do?
|
Do not issue a crossing restriction
|
|
When a pilot is assigned a cruise clearance what altitude does he own?
|
ATC assigned altitude down to minimum IFR altitude
|
|
If an aircraft wants an advance descent....
|
Coordinate with the receiving facility for lower altitude
|
|
Issue an advance descent clearance when?
|
As appropriate and at a distance sufficient to allow for normal descent and speed reduction
|
|
Vertical separation minima.
|
Up to and including FL410- 1,000 ft except 2,000 ft at or above FL290 for non RVSM aircraft and al other aircraft
Above FL410- 2,000 ft |
|
When can you assign an altitude to an aircraft with another aircraft at that altitude? |
After the aircraft previously at that altitude has been issued a climb or descent clearance and is observed or reports leaving that altitude
|
|
What phraseology do you use to get an altitude report?
|
REPORT LEAVING/REPORT REACHING/SAY ALTITUDE/SAY FLIGHT LEVEL/SAY ALTITUDE OR FLIGHT LEVEL
|
|
What must you consider when applying vertical separation minima?
|
Known aircraft performance characteristics and information indicating that climb/descent rates are not consistent with rates recommended in the AIM (information may be pilot-furnished or mode C observed)
|
|
What are the exceptions to the standard vertical separation minima? (Giving a/c altitude after first aircraft reports leaving the same alt)
|
Severe turbulence is reported
Military aircraft are conducting aerial refueling The aircraft at that altitude has been issued a climb or descent at pilots discretion (X restriction is PD) The aircraft at that altitude has been issued a cruse clearance |
|
What are the advantages of a PD?
|
Pilot gets to choose when to start climb or descent, pilot may level off but after vacating cannot go back, may conserve fuel for an aircraft
|
|
What are the disadvantages of PD?
|
Controller must protect more altitudes which may interfere with sequencing and separation of traffic
|
|
What are the minims for separating aircraft from SUA?
|
FL290 and below- at least 500 ft above or below...but altitudes are assigned in 1000 ft intervals
Above FL290- at least 1000 ft above or below |
|
What is standard longitudinal separation?
|
20 miles (DME equip aircraft, RNAV using ATD) or 10 minutes
|
|
What are the methods for separating aircraft longitudinally?
|
Depart at a specific time, arrive at a fix at a specified time, hold at a fix until a specified time, or change altitude at a specified time or fix
|
|
What can you use mileage-based DME and ATD procedures and minima?
|
Only when direct pilot controller communications are maintained
|
|
What is ATD?
|
Along track distance is the distance measured from a point in space by systems using area navigation reference capabilities that are not
|
|
When can you not use 20 miles to separate DME aircraft?
|
Above 10,000 ft or closer than ten miles from the NAVAID with non DME aircraft
|
|
How do you ensure all aircraft use DME mileages which allows all aircraft to have the same slant range error?
|
SAY DME
|
|
If aircraft have less than ten minutes when leaving your airspace what must be done?
|
Coordinate with next sector
|
|
What is the 44kt rule?
|
Lead aircraft must be at least 44k faster, 3 minutes or 5 miles
Can be used when departing aircraft follows an aircraft which has taken off from the same or adjacent airport, departing aircraft follows an enroute aircraft which has reported over a fix serving a departure airport, enroute aircraft follows an enroute aircraft that has reported over the same fix |
|
What is the 22kt rule?
|
Lead aircraft at least 22k faster, 5 minutes or 10 miles
Can be used when departing aircraft follows an aircraft which has taken off from the same or adjacent airport, departing aircraft follows an enroute aircraft which has reported over a fix serving a departure airport, enroute aircraft follows an enroute aircraft that has reported over the same fix |
|
When can you discontinue opposite direction vertical separation?
|
When both aircraft have reported passing NAVAIDS, DME fixes, or waypoints indicating they have passed each other
Both aircraft have reported passing the same intersection/waypoint and are at least 3 minutes apart |
|
When should you advise a pilot to use DME distances?
|
When applying DME separation
|
|
Can protected airspace touch?
|
yes
|
|
Can protected airspace overlap?
|
no
|
|
Can holding patterns overlap?
|
no, unless holding at different altitudes
|
|
Can holding patterns overlap protected airspace? |
No
|
|
What determines the size of holding pattern protected airspace?
|
Altitude and or speed
|
|
The protected airspace of a holding pattern must not _____ of an airway.
|
Overlap the protected airspace
|
|
How is airspace along airways or routes protected?
|
4 miles either side (8total) of the centerline to 51 miles from NAVAID
Diverging angle of 4.5 degrees from NAVAID to change over point (no max width) |
|
Consider separation to exist between aircraft established on diverging radials of the same NAVAID when...?
|
There is at least 15 degrees divergence when either aircraft is clear of the airspace to be protected for the other aircraft
|
|
DME Divergence Distance Minima
|
15 17
20 13 25 11 30 9 35 8 45 7 55 6 90 5 |
|
If the divergence falls between two values which one should you use?
|
Use the greater distance
|
|
Does the DME Application Table compensate for DME slant range error?
|
Yes
|
|
What is the DME application table used for?
|
To determine the distance required for angles of divergence to clear protected airspace
|
|
When are, aircraft established on radials on the same NAVAID that diverge by at least 15 degrees, considered to be laterally separated?
|
Beyond protected airspace
|
|
What is the one minute rule?
|
Courses must immediately diverge by 45 degrees or more after departure from same or adjacent airports (issue turns and headings)
|
|
What is the two minute rule?
|
Courses must diverge by 45 degrees or more within 5 minutes after takes off
|
|
Define visual separation of departures.
|
Separation must be ensured before and after visual separation is applied, both aircraft must be visually observed by the tower VISUAL SEPARATION APPROVED BETWEEN (departure) and (arrival) (departure) RELEASED YOU DISCREDTION
|
|
What group of individuals are straight G's? |
Enroute class of 9/19/12 ! Holla
|