Atc Basics Block 2

Front 1

451. Which special use airspace is always located offshore?
A. Warning Area
B. Alert Area
C. Controlled Firing Area
D. National Security Area

Back 1

A. Warning Area

Front 2

466. ATC does not have the authority or the responsibility to issue clearances in class airspace.
A. C B. D C. E D. G

Back 2

D. Class G

Front 3

480. Which type of special use airspace may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or unusual types of
aerial activities, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft?
A. Alert areas
B. Prohibited areas
C. Restricted areas
D. Warning areas

Back 3

A. Alert Areas

Front 4

481. What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace?
A. 2,500 feet MSL
B. Up to, but not including, 18,000 MSL
C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation
D. 3,500 AGL

Back 4

C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation

Front 5

571. Which airspace extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports?
A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

Back 5

B. Class B

Front 6

669. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prohibited Area?
A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement
B. Begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude
C. Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare
D. Identified by the letter “P” plus a number

Back 6

A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement

Front 7

237 A service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe,orderly, expeditious flow of air traffic.

Back 7

Air Traffic Control

Front 8

238 A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air.

Back 8

Aircraft

Front 9

239 An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft.

Back 9

Airport

Front 10

240 Specified information relating to the intended flight of an aircraft, that is filed orally, in writing, or by

Back 10

Flight Plan

Front 11

241 An authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, and for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace.

Back 11

Air Traffic Clearance

Front 12

242 Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control.

Back 12

Positive Control

Front 13

243 A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury.

Back 13

Flight Level.

Front 14

244 A geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported.

Back 14

Reporting Point

Front 15

245 Separation in accordance with the applicable minima in FAA Order JO 7110.65.

Back 15

Approved Seperation

Front 16

246. A pilot in command may deviate from FAR 91 if .
A. the aircraft is within Class G airspace
B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action
C. the aircraft is in visual conditions
D. an ATC clearance is requested

Back 16

B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action

Front 17

247. Which of the following Right-of-Way rules is not correct?
A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way
B. Overtaking, aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way
C. Head-on, both aircraft give way to the right
D. Landing, aircraft on final approach has right-of-way

Back 17

A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way

Front 18

248. Pilots of two aircraft may operate as a formation flight when .
A. authorization is obtained from ATC
B. flight visibility is at least 3 miles
C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard
D. flight is conducted at or above 1,500 feet MSL

Back 18

C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard

Front 19

249. ATC specialists who are age 40 and above shall be scheduled by facility managers for medical
examinations every if in the terminal or center environment.
A. 3 years B. year C. 2 years D. 6 months

Back 19

B. Year

Front 20

250. The maximum speed authorized by FAR for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL is knots.
A. 250 B. 200 C. 180 D. 150

Back 20

A. 250

Front 21

251. Airspeed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace shall not be more than knots.
A. 150 B. 180 C. 200 D. 250

Back 21

C. 200

Front 22

252. A pilot operating below 18,000 feet MSL shall set the altimeter to .
A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft
B. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 200 NM of the aircraft
C. 29.29 in hg
D. 29.92 in hg

Back 22

A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft

Front 23

253. When operating an aircraft at an airport in Class G Airspace that has an operating control tower, unless
otherwise authorized, the pilot must have _.
A. a transponder with Mode C
B. a transponder only
C. radar contact and two-way communications
D. two-way radio communications with the tower

Back 23

D. two-way radio communications with the tower

Front 24

254. The minimum age required to obtain an ATC control tower operator certificate is: _.
A. 18
B. 21
C. 30
D. No age requirement

Back 24

A. 18

Front 25

449. A pilot in command operating in VFR conditions shall not cancel an IFR flight plan while operating in Class
Airspace.
A. D B. C C. B D. A

Back 25

D. A

Front 26

450. What pre-flight action does FAR 91 require pilots to take before beginning a flight?
A. File a flight plan
B. Receive ATC authorization for the flight
C. Advise ATC of intentions
D. Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight

Back 26

D. Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight

Front 27

463. An ATC specialist who is 41 years of age and works in the Terminal option is required to have a medical
examination every .
A. year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 5 years

Back 27

A. Year

Front 28

464. Which of the following statements is true concerning FAR Part 91 aircraft speed restrictions?
A. Above 10,000 MSL, no aircraft may exceed 250 knots.
B. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots in any Class C airspace.
C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace.
D. Under no circumstances may an aircraft exceed 250 knots in Class B airspace.

Back 28

C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace

Front 29

465. A(n) is specified information, relating to the intended flight of an aircraft.
A. ATC Clearance
B. Flight Plan
C. Supplement
D. Notice

Back 29

B. Flight Plan

Front 30

478. To be eligible for an ATC tower operator's certificate, you must hold a medical certificate.
A. First Class
B. Second Class
C. Third Class
D. No medical is required.

Back 30

B. Second Class

Front 31

479. An aircraft has the right-of-way over all other aircraft when it is in .
A. VFR conditions
B. distress
C. IFR conditions
D. controlled airspace

Back 31

B. Distress

Front 32

572. ATC specialists in Terminal or Center, age 39 and below, shall be scheduled for medical examinations by facility managers.
A. twice a year
B. every year
C. every three years
D. every two years

Back 32

D. Every two years

Front 33

622. To be eligible for an , an individual must be at least 18 years of age, of good moral character,
able to read, write, and understand the English language, speak English without an accent or impediment,
and hold a valid second class medical certificate.
A. ATC airspace operator license
B. ATC airspace specialist certificate
C. ATC tower operator certificate
D. ATC tower specialist license

Back 33

C. ATC tower operator certificate

Front 34

623. Which of the following Right-of-Way rules is not correct?
A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way
B. Overtaking, aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way
C. Head-on, both aircraft give way to the right
D. Landing, aircraft on final approach has right-of-way

Back 34

A Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way

Front 35

670. A is specified information, relating to the intended flight of an aircraft.
A. ATC Clearance
B. Flight Plan
C. Supplement
D. Notice

Back 35

B. Flight Plan

Front 36

65. A pilot operating above 12,500 feet MSL, up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, must use supplemental
oxygen _.
A. constantly
B. after 1 hour of flight
C. after 15 minutes of flight
D. after 30 minutes of flight

Back 36

D. after 30 minutes of flight

Front 37

66. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in class and
airspace.
A. B;C
B. C;D
C. B;E
D. A;E

Back 37

B. C:D

Front 38

67. If takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a particular airport, the minimum visibility required for an air taxi
aircraft having two engines or less is statute mile(s).
A. 1\2
B. 1
C. 11\2
D. 2

Back 38

B. 1

Front 39

68. Aircraft operating on an airway at the published MOCA are only guaranteed within
of the VOR serving the airway.
A. terrain clearance; 22SM
B. terrain clearance; 22NM
C. NAVAID signal; 22SM
D. NAVAID signal; 22NM

Back 39

D. NAVAID signal; 22NM

Front 40

69. Which of the following statements regarding “VFR on top” (OTP) is true?
A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP
B. Pilots maintaining OTP are required to obtain ATC approval prior to changing altitude
C. Pilots maintaining OTP may, after advising ATC, deviate from their cleared route
D. Traffic advisories will not be provided by ATC

Back 40

A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP

Front 41

70. An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot shall_.
A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable
B. return IFR to point of departure
C. squawk code 7500
D. proceed to nearest airport and execute an IFR approach

Back 41

A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable

Front 42

71. Which of the following would not be an assigned flight level?
A. FL360
B. FL320
C. FL240
D. FL160

Back 42

D. FL160

Front 43

72. An inappropriate cruising altitude for an aircraft flying VFR on a magnetic course of 360 degrees is:
A. 2,000 MSL
B. 2,500 MSL
C. 3,500 MSL
D. 4,500 MSL

Back 43

D. 4,500 MSL

Front 44

73. Which one of the following items is not required on a VFR flight plan?
A. Pilot’s name and address
B. Fuel on board
C. Name of each occupant
D. Type of aircraft

Back 44

C. Name of each occupant

Front 45

74. A pilot shall file a DVFR flight plan if the flight will .
A. be in instrument flight conditions
B. enter positive control airspace
C. enter coastal ADIZ
D. enter Class D airspace

Back 45

C. enter coastal ADIZ

Front 46

75. VFR aircraft in class E airspace at or above , must maintain visibility. because there is
no speed limit at that altitude.
A. 1200 feet AGL; 3SM
B. 1200 feet AGL; 5SM
C. 10,000 MSL; 3SM
D. 10,000 MSL; 5SM

Back 46

D. 10,000 MSL; 5SM

Front 47

76. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding SVFR clearances to fixed wing aircraft?
A. The pilot must request SVFR clearance
B. A SVFR flight plan must be filed
C. Flight visibility must be at least 1SM
D. SVFR shall only be approved below 10,000 MSL

Back 47

A SVFR flight plan must be filed

Front 48

446. When an IFR flight loses two-way communications with ATC, controllers should consider the pilot’s actions
with regard to their:
A. route, speed and altitude
B. route, time to leave their clearance limit and speed
C.altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit
D. altitude, time to leave their clearance limit and speed.

Back 48

C. altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit

Front 49

447. FAR Part covers General Operating and Flight Rules.
A. 67
B. 121
C. 91
D. 135

Back 49

C. 91

Front 50

448. Which of the following statements concerning special VFR (SVFR) is true?
A. ATC clearance is required.
B. SVFR operations may be conducted at any altitude below FL180.
C. Pilot need not request SVFR clearance.
D. 3SM visibility is required.

Back 50

C. Pilot need not request SVFR clearance

Front 51

461. A pilot flying VFR must maintain at least 5 miles visibility in all or part of class and
airspace.
A. E;A
B. E;G
C. G;D
D. C;D

Back 51

B. E;G

Front 52

462. No person may operate an aircraft under VFR in Class C airspace with a flight visibility of less than
A. 1NM
B. 1SM
C. 3NM
D. 3SM

Back 52

D. 3SM

Front 53

475. What is the requirement for supplemental oxygen above 15,000 MSL?
A. Only the pilot is provided supplemental oxygen
B. None
C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen
D. Pilot and co-pilot are provided supplemental oxygen

Back 53

C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen

Front 54

476. A pilot flying under IFR conditions experiences a radio failure. If a route has not been assigned and or ATC
has not advised a route to be expected, what action should the pilot take?
A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan.
B. Land at nearest available airport.
C. Climb to VFR-on-top and continue flight.
D. Proceed to alternate airport.

Back 54

A. . Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan

Front 55

477. An appropriate magnetic course for an aircraft flying VFR at 6,500 feet MSL and more than 3,000 feet AGL
would be degrees.
A. 190
B. 100
C. 360
D. 010

Back 55

A. 190

Front 56

573. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in classes and
airspace.
A. B;C
B. C;D
C. C;E
D. D;E

Back 56

B. C;D

Front 57

574. A pilot must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight when flying at altitudes _.
A. between 12,500 MSL up to and including 14,000 MSL
B. above 14,000 MSL
C. above 15,000 MSL
D. the pilot is not required to use supplemental oxygen

Back 57

B. above 14,000 MSL

Front 58

624. Filing a VFR flight plan is .
A. optional, but strongly encouraged
B. mandatory when penetrating a Military Operations Area
C. only necessary when weather conditions are below VFR minimums
D. only necessary for search and rescue missions

Back 58

A. optional, but strongly encouraged

Front 59

625. At an airport where takeoff minimums are not prescribed (revenue flights only), an aircraft with two engines
or less may depart when there is at least statute mile(s) visibility.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0

Back 59

C. 1